BSC Academy (BANKING SERVICES CHRONICLE)
SBIPO-PT-A-001 (Based on SBI PO (Prelims) latest pattern for SBI PO EXAM) No. of Questions : 100
Time : 1:00 hrs
Name of Student : ____________________________
Father’s Name: ______________________________
Centre : _____________________________________
Batch No.: ___________________________________
Read the directions (given below) carefully. 1.
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This Booklet contains three tests as follows : Test I - English Language Q.Nos. 1-30 Test II - Quantitative Aptitude Q.Nos. 31-65 Test III - Reasoning Q.Nos. 66-100 You will be given an aggregate time of 1:00 hour to answer all the three tests. The tests are not separately timed. You may distribute the time as you please but remember that to qualify in the written test as a whole you have to qualify on each of the three tests separately. Tests of Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude are printed in both Hindi and English. The Hindi version is printed on the left hand side page and the English version on the right hand side page. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by you, one-fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. Rough work, if you want to do any, is to be done in this booklet itself and not on the answersheet. For this purpose use the empty space in the margin or anywhere else you find in this booklet. Do not use any other paper. Indicate your answers on the separate answersheet (given at the end of the booklet), using HB Pencil. Follow the instructions given on the answersheet for indicating your answers. Your answersheet contains answer-spaces for answering 100 questions. Use 100 answer spaces for answering the 100 questions given in this booklet. Do not open the booklet until you are told to do so. When the instruction for opening the booklet is given, do not try to remove the wire staples at the left. Insert the blunt end of your pencil under the sticker and tear it to open the booklet. Immediately after opening the booklet, verify that all the pages containing questions from 1 to 100 are properly printed in your booklet and then begin answering the test. In case the booklet is defective get it replaced by another test booklet.
BSC Academy
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Test I English Language Directions (Q. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
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Government’s plan to change 77 crore conventional bulbs and 3.5 crore conventional street lights with LED range would save ` 45,500 crore by reducing 21,500 MW electricity demand, said the Economic Survey 2015-16.National LED programme will also facilitate India’s commitment towards reducing its emission intensity per unit of GDP by 33-35 per cent by 2030 under its Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC).“It is estimated that the National LED programme will result in annual electricity saving of about 109 billion units and a 21,500 MW reduction in demand along with monetary savings of ` 45,500 crore accruing to domestic consumers and urban local bodies,” said the survey tabled by Finance Minister Arun Jaitley in Parliament. Additionally, it will play a major role in mitigating climate change by effecting reductions of 85 million tonnes of CO2 annually.By March 2019, government is planning to replace 77 crore incandescent bulbs with LED under Domestic Efficient Lighting Programme (DELP) and 3.5 crore conventional streetlights with energy-efficient LED lights under the Street Lighting National Programme (SLNP).To meet the demand, the programme is expected to encourage and support domestic manufacturing of LED bulbs, making it consistent with the Make in India policy of the government. Presently, LED bulbs are only assembled here while its chip is imported along with some other parts. National LED programme which was launched on January 5, 2015 had installed 4.77 crore units under DELP and 5.51 lakh units under SLNP as on January 15, 2016, avoiding 1,547.2 MWs of peak demand. To meet the target, Energy Efficiency Services Ltd (EESL) along with Discoms is distributing LED bulbs to consumers at ` 10 per unit against the market price of ` 350-400.The upfront investment made by EESL is paid back by cost recovery from consumers by deduction of easy instalments of ` 10 every month for 8-12 months. 1. Which of the following the most suitable TITLE of the passage? The merits of Government’s LED drive
2)
Positive effects of LED on environment
3)
Cost cutting by LED light
4)
LED Light – Pros and Cons
5)
Need for LED bulbs to replace conventional bulbs
C
1)
2. In the context of the passage how can LED play a vital role in the climatic change? By reduction of CO2 in the atmosphere
2)
By reduction of the heat emission in atmosphere
3)
By helping Ozone layer from getting depleted
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1)
4)
By preventing industries from releasing poisonous gases into atmosphere
5)
All of the above
3. In the context of the passage, what is the government basically trying to achieve?
2
1)
Meeting the growing electricity demand
2)
Facilitation of India’s commitment towards reducing its emission intensity per unit of GDP
3)
Encouragement of indigenous manufacturing of LED bulbs
4)
Consistency with Make in India policy
5)
All of the above
SBIPO-PT-A-001
BSC Academy 4. Which of the following statements is/are true in context of the passage?
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A. Under the Domestic Efficient Lighting Programme (DELP) the Indian Government is planning to replace 77 crore incandescent bulbs with LED. B. Presently, India deals with only assembling of LED bulbs while its other parts are imported from other countries. C. Climate concern is the major reason behind government’s plan to replace incandescent bulbs with LED. 1)
2) Mainstream
2) Reducing
5) Only B and C
3) traditional
4) Accustomed
5) All the above
3) Incoherent
4) Jumbled
5) Unintelligible
Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning of the word ‘MITIGATING’ given in bold as used in the passage? 1) Attenuate
8.
4) Only A and B
Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word ‘ACCRUING’ given in bold as used in the passage? 1) Emanate
7.
3) Only C
Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word ‘CONVENTIONAL’ given in bold as used in the passage? 1) Prevalent
6.
2) Only A
2) Appease
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5.
All A, B and C
3) Commute
4) Aggravating
5) None of the above
Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning of the word ‘CONSISTENT’ given in bold as used in the passage? 1) Incompatible
2) Unwavering
3) Reconcilable
4) Coherent
5) Accordant
9. Which of the following statements is/are not true in context of the passage?
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A. The LED bulbs which are being distributed by Energy Efficiency Services Ltd (EESL) along with Discoms have market price of ` 350-400. B. An annual electricity saving of about 109 billion units is being targeted through the National LED programme. C. 33-35 per cent by 2030 cut in emission intensity per unit of GDP is being targeted under Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC). 1) All A, B and C
2) Only A
3) Only C
4) Only A and B
5) None of these
10. What, in the context of the above passage is Street Lighting National Programme (SLNP) all about? A. Permanent replacement of 77 crore modernized streetlights with the traditional street lights B. Replacement of 3.5 crore conventional streetlights with energy-efficient LED lights
C
C. In (SLNP) 3.5 crore conventional street lights with LED range would save ` 45,500 crore by reducing 25,100 GW electricity demand. 1) All A, B and C
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Only A and B
5) Only B and C
Directions (Q. 11–15): Rearrange the following seven sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below. (A) “This is a department of gods,” says the Muzrai’s website.
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(B) Like every year, this year also his name appeared on the invitation card of a local temple’s annual festival. (C) Dakshina Kannada is a prosperous coastal district often riven with religious tension. (D) For God everyone is equal, and the committee decided, this time also, that it would keep on countenancing a Muslim name on the card. (E) “It did not matter that Ibrahim was often involved with temple festivities; that he ate the prasad offered; and that, over the years, the head of the police station next door — always invited to join the celebrations — is, sometimes, Muslim”, said the Muzrai head committee head. (F) In this district collector Adoor B Ibrahim is a popular man — soft-spoken, impartial and efficient. (G) Ibrahim is also the local head of the Muzrai, the government’s department of religious endowments, which administers 35,000 state-aided temples in Karnataka.
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BSC Academy 11. Which of the following would be the ‘SECOND’ sentence after rearrangement? 2) A
3) C
4) F
5) D
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1) E
12. Which of the following would be the ‘FIFTH’ sentence after rearrangement? 1) A
2)C
3) B
4) D
5) F
13. Which of the following would be the ‘FIRST’ sentence after rearrangement? 1) B
2) D
3) C
4) E
5) A
14. Which of the following would be the ‘FOURTH’ sentence after rearrangement? 1) A
2) D
3) B
4)E
5)G
15. Which of the following would be the ‘THIRD’ sentence after rearrangement? 1) C
2) B
3) D
4) E
5) A
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Directions (Q. 16–20): Read each of the following sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’ the answer is 5. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any) 16. All in India, non-issues with bigoted, 1)/ majoritarian views are not 2)/ just dominating public 3)/ discourse but poisoning minds 4)/. No error 5) 17. Recently, I heard an artist who restores furniture, 1)/ narrate how friends frowned on her 2)/ visits to a furniture market she has frequenting 3)/for years in Mumbai’s suburb area. 4)/ No error 5)
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18. Instead of taking a stand, party often 1)/pandered to emerging prejudice 2)/such as allowing the police to faking 3)/ many terror cases, while espousing secularism 4)/. No error 5) 19. Minister said a report of 1)/ interrogation revealed 2)/ that there has been plans 3)/ to target the capital 4)/. No error 5) 20. For some time now 1)/ the country had been creaking 2)/under a financial crisis, threats and a wave of migrants 3)/ fleeing the war in Syria 4)/. No error 5) Directions (Q. 21 – 25): In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.
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Let’s think of Jinnah in terms of the history of the subcontinent. Also, once you start to look at him, you see what an ambivalent and complicated figure (21). Even just to discover his liking for theatre and drama. He (22) with Shakespeare; he wanted to become an actor; he imitated his hero Chamberlain by wearing a monocle. Sometimes, with his speeches, you don’t know if he believes what he’s saying or if he’s acting. There is a way in which he just took (23) a role.
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So did he really want what he created? Did he know what he was doing, or was it almost like a lawyer arguing a brief? I wanted again to bring him into a human dimension and to show him in relationship to Gandhi, (24) other figures like Tilak. He was a great friend of Tilak’s. Now, that’s a curious friendship. We think of Tilak as a kind of rightist Hindu; Jinnah defended Tilak in court against the British. His anger at Gandhi was because Gandhi (25) religious! So there are all sorts of twists in Jinnah’s story. 21. 1) he was
2) he has been
3) he had been
4) have been
5) as he was
22. 1) had liked
2) was in awe
3) was obsessed
4) related
5) was incorrigible
23. 1) at
2) on
3) in
4) for
5) kind of
24. 1) at par
2) in relation to
3) with
4) as in
5) as of
25. 1) was being
2) had been
3) has been
4) could have been 5) would be
4
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BSC Academy Directions (26-30): The sentence has two blanks. Choose the words that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
1) begins, on
2) will begins, on
3) has will be beginning, to
4) had begun, at
27. ____, online and offline banking transactions ____possible. 1) whatever, can
2) Despite, be
4)Till then, has been
5) Inspite of, will
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26. The much anticipated holiday weekend ____with Holi ____ Thursday. 5) will begin, by
3) However, will be
28. The nation is __to define the term “forest” and there is an ongoing case in court __ this matter. 1) yet, on
2) so, at
3) now, for
4) so far, from
5) waiting, to
29. As per the ___ estimation, India’s total green cover ___ about 26% of the country’s total geographical area. 1) new, has been
2) latest, is
3) newest, was
4) last, was
5) latest, had been
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30. She even ____to a pattern of killings of activists defending forests as a growing “epidemic” ___the world. 2) mentioned, about
4) clued, in
5) pointed, around
3) discussed, of
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C
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1) said, in
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Test II Quantitative Aptitude Directions (Q. 31-35) : What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 31. 4003.1 × 65.98 – 21015.12 = ? × 2.98 1) 84061 2) 82081 3) 81961 4) 81061 5) 83061 32.
33488 2601.1 – (82.9)2 = ? + (36.9)2 1) 1075 2) 1175
3) 1192
33. 22.9% of 5799.9 + 55.01% of 23840.11 = ? 1) 14846 2) 15846 3) 14486
49.1 = ? 2) 283
3) 248
35. (5449 49.9) + 645.12 24.9 + 3990.9 25.9 = ? 1) 288 2) 365 3) 342
5) 1285
4) 14496
5) 14446
4) 182
5) 292
4) 322
5) 394
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34. 8891.9 342.01 × 1) 243
4) 1318
Directions (Q. 36-37) : In the given questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer. 1) if x > y
2) if x > y
4) if x < y
5) if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be determined. II. y2 + 13y + 42 = 0
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36. I. x2 + x – 12 = 0
3) if x < y
37. I. 4x2 + 32x + 63 = 0
II. y2 + 5y + 6 = 0
Directions (Q. 38-40) : In the following number series one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number. 38. 30, 35.5, 76.5, 1) 30
238, 945.5, 2) 4733
4733
39. 1849, 2209, 2604, 1) 2604
3025, 3481, 2) 3025
3969
40. 411, 428, 1) 313
315, 191, 2) 187
–24
4) 238
5) 76.5
3) 3481
4) 2209
5) 3969
3) 424
4) 376
5) 411
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378,
3) 945.5
Directions (Q. 41-45) : Study the bar graph carefully to answer these questions. Number of tourist spots in different states
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1000 900 800 700 600 500 400 300 200 100 0
950 820 650
430
400
300
J
K
780
720
250
L
M
N
O
P
Q
190
210
R
S
T
State
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BSC Academy 41. What is the approximate average number of tourist spots in all the states together ? 1) 538 2) None of these 3) 528 4) 518
5) 524
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42. The number of tourist spots in state S is approximately what per cent of the total number of tourist spots in all the states together ? 1) 8% 2) 7% 3) 4% 4) None of these 5) 6% 43. The highest increase in the number of tourist spots in the two consecutive states is approximately what per cent of the lowest increase in two consecutive states ? 1) 2850 % 2) 2950% 3) 2840% 4) None of these 5) 2750% 44. If ` 10 is charged for visiting spot in state J, ` 20 for visiting spot in state K and so on, a person has to pay how much money to visit the tourist spots in all the states ? 1) ` 560 2) ` 660 3) None of these 4) ` 680 5) ` 720 45. The number of tourist spot in state N, is approximately what per cent more/less than the number of of tourists spot in state P ? 1) 32% 2) 34% 3) 36% 4) 29% 5) None of these
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Directions (Q. 46-50) : In the following table the data related to the number of books on different subjects sold by six shopkeepers in a city are given. The pie-chart shows the percentage return of books. Read them carefully and answer the questions.
F
Reasoning
18
17
16
15
14
13
Maths
17
20
18
15
14
12
Geography
19
18
19
20
24
22
English
20
17
16
15
14
13
History
15
14
13
18
15
16
Pol. Science
18
13
20
22
18
13
Books sold by six shopkeepers in April 2015 (in hundred) Shopkeeper
Subject
B
C
D
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C
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A
E
Percentage of books returned
F, 23%
A, 16% B, 10%
E, 17% D, 13%
C, 21%
46. Which of the following shopkeepers sold the maximum number of books in the given month ? 1) A 2) D 3) C 4) None of these 5) E
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BSC Academy 47. What is the ratio of books sold by shopkeeper B to that by C ? 2) 31 : 34
3) 33 : 34
4) 35 : 37
5) None of these
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1) 34 : 35
48. What is the approximate average number of books sold by shopkeeper E, F and B together ? 1) 9567
2) 9587
3) 9287
4) None of these
5) 9597
49. What is the difference between the no. of books sold by shopkeeper B and D ? 1) 550
2) 600
3) 650
50. If total 15800 books were returned what was A’s share in them ? 1) 2528
2) 2648
3) 2938
4) None of these
5) 700
4) 2638
5) None of these
51. Two men start walking together to a certain destination, one at 6 km/hr and other at 7.5 km/hr. The later arrives an hour
1) 27 km
2) 15 km
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before the former. The distance is ? 3) 21 km
4) 30 km
5) 18 km
52. The average age of class of 21 students is 34 years. If the age of the teacher be included the average rises by 1 year. What is the age of the teacher ? 1) 58 years
2) 56 years
3) 60 years
4) 54 years
5) 52 years
53. The salary of P, Q and R are in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5. The salary of P, Q and R together is ` 33600 by what per cent is the 2 1) 66 % 3
1 2) 68 % 3
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salary of R more than that of P ?
3) 64%
4) None of these
1 5) 69 % 3
54. From a pack of 52 cards two cards are drawn at random. What is the probability that it has no digit cards ? 19 17 18 15 20 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 223 221 224 221 221
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55. Find the volume of the material in a cylindrical tube. The radius of the outer surface being 10 m, the thickness being 0.4 m and the height being 9 m. 1) 224 m3 2) 220 m3 3) None of these 4) 229 m3 5) 218 m3 1 56. P and Q can do a piece of work in 15 days, Q and R in 22 days, P and R in 30 days. They all work at it for 9 days and 2 then P leaves but Q and R go on together for 6 days more. If then Q leaves, how long will R take to complete the work? 1) 14 days 2) 18 days 3) 15 days 4) 16 days 5) 12 days
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57. Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 24 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. Both are opened together, but at the end of 6 minutes the first is turned off. How much longer pipe B will take to fill the cistern ? 1 1 1) 22 minutes 2) 21 minutes 3) 24 minutes 4) 25 minutes 5) 23 minutes 2 2 58. At a simple interest ` 3050 becomes ` 4026 in four years.If the interest rate was increased by 4% how much would ` 7500 become in four years ? 1) ` 13100 2) ` 11200 3) ` 12100 4) ` 11100 5) ` 12200 59. In a stream running at 2 km/hr, a motor boat goes 10 km upstream and back again to the starting point in 55 minutes. Find the speed of the motorboat in still water ? 1) 22 km/hr 2) 24 km/hr 3) 26 km/hr 4) 20 km/hr 5) 28 km/hr
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BSC Academy
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60. The profit earned by selling an article for ` 8320 is equal to the loss incurred when the same article is sold for the ` 4480. What should be the selling price for making 45% profit ? 1) ` 9480 2) ` 9280 3) ` 9260 4) ` 9560 5) None of these 61. A train crosses 420 metres and 244 metres long bridge in 50 seconds and 34 seconds respectively. Find the length of the train ? 1) 146 m 2) 140 m 3) 130 m 4) 132 m 5) 148 m 62. The total age of A and B is 14 years more than the total age of B and C. C is how many years younger than A ? 1) 12 years 2) 15 years 3) 16 years 4) 13 years 5) 14 years
63. Rahul spends 25% of his monthly income on food and 30% of the remaining on room rent. He saves the remaining amount. If the saving amount is ` 9870, find the monthly income of Rahul ? 1) ` 18600 2) ` 18400 3) ` 18500 4) ` 17800 5) ` 18800
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64. 120 kg of an alloy A is mixed with 200 kg of alloy B. If alloy A has lead and tin in the ratio of 3 : 2 and alloy B has tin and copper in the ratio of 1 : 4, then find the amount of tin in the new alloy ? 1) 89 kg 2) 88 kg 3) 86 kg 4) 90 kg 5) 84 kg
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C
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65. Two friends P and Q started a business by investing in the ratio of 6 : 7. R joined them after six months by investing an amount equal to that of Q’s. At the end of the year, profit earned was ` 66,000. What was the share of R ? 1) None of these 2) ` 18000 3) ` 14500 4) ` 14000 5) ` 16000
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BSC Academy
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Test III Reasoning Ability Directions (Q. 66–70) : In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in each statement. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer1) if only conclusion I is true.
2) if only conclusion II is true.
3) if either conclusion I or II is true.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5) if both conclusion I and II are true. 66. Statements : E > B A < M, Conclusions : I. N > B
N>A> P
67. Statements : N = E P > Q, Conclusions : I. N S
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II. M > N
68. Statements : V < P > Q = T R, Conclusions : I. T S
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II. S > Q QS II. S V
69. Statements : L = I J < K, Conclusions : I. K > M
JM
70. Statements : A > B C < L, Conclusions : I. E > L
D
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II. L M
II. E B
Directions (Q. 71-75) : In each questions given below three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with the commonly knows facts. Read the conclusions and decide which conclusion logically follows from the three given statement disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer 2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
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1) if only conclusion I follows.
5) if both conclusion I and II follow. (Q. 71-73)
Statements : Some books are papers.
Conclusions : I. Some books are not colours.
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71.
No papers is colour.
All colours are graphs. II. Some books are colours.
72. Conclusions : I. All colours being books is a possibility.
II. All books being colours is a possiblity.
73. Conclusions : I. No paper is a graph.
II. Some papers are graphs.
74. Statements : All cars are planes. Conclusions : I. Some metros are planes.
75. Statements : All red are blue.
Conclusions : I. All red are green.
SBIPO-PT-A-001
Some planes are ships.
All ships are metros.
II. Some metros are cars. All blue are green.
Some green are black.
II. All black being red is a possiblity.
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BSC Academy Directions (Q. 76-80) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.
76. What does the code ‘pa’ stand for ? 1) player 2) Hyderabad
3) will
77. Which of the following can be the code for ‘people’ ? 1) li 2) cil 3) pan 78. ‘pan pa kit na’ is the code for which of the following ? 1) players will win Hyderabad 2) players will win IPL 4) Can’t be determined 5) None of these
4) Either ‘will’ or ‘win’
5) None of these
4) kit
5) None of these
3) People will IPL win
4) na
5) pa
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79. Which of the following is the code for ‘support’ ? 1) li 2) cil 3) kit
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In a certain code language ‘People like IPL’ is written as ‘pan cil mig’, ‘Hyderabad will win IPL’ is written as ‘pan na zil pa’, ‘People support players’ is written as ‘li cil kit’ and ‘players will win match’ is written as ‘na pa kit nit’.
80. Which of the following can be the code for ‘players win IPL’ ? 1) kit na pan 2) pan pa kit 3) pan na pa
4) Can‘t be determined 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 81-85) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it. Eight students P, Q, R, S,T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them belongs to different states of India viz— Bihar, UP, MP, Rajasthan, Kerala, Delhi, Haryana and Punjab.
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There are two persons between those who belong to UP and Bihar and neither of them sits opposite P. R and V are immediate neighbours and neither of them belongs to Punjab or Bihar. P who belongs to Haryana sits second to the right of the one who belongs to Punjab. Q and T neither belongs to Punjab nor sit adjacent to P. T belongs to Bihar and sits second to the left of V who belongs to Rajasthan. R does not belong to UP. The immediate neighbour of T faces R who sits third to the left of the one who belongs to Haryana. U doesnot belongs to Punjab. Both S and W do not belong to UP or MP. Q belongs to Delhi while S belongs to Kerala. Q is not an immediate neighbour of P.
C
81. UP is related to Delhi in a certain way and Bihar is related to Punjab in the same way. Which of the following is related to MP following the same pattern ? 1) Rajasthan 2) Haryana 3) Kerala 4) Can’t be determined 5) None of these 82. Who among the following belongs to Punjab ? 1) U 2) W 3) T
4) Can’t be determined 5) None of these
83. Who among the following sits third to the right of U ? 1) T 2) V 3) R
4) Q
BS
84. Which of the following statements is/are true about T ? 1) T is sitting opposite to W. 2) T belongs to Punjab. 4) All are true 5) None of these
5) None of these
3) T is not an immediate neighbour of Q.
85. Which of the following statements is/are true ? 1) R is an immediate neighbour W and U. 2) The person who belongs to Haryana sits opposite V. 3) W belongs to Punjab and sits on the immediate right of Q. 4) Only 2) and 3) 5) None is true.
SBIPO-PT-A-001
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BSC Academy Directions (Q. 86-88) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.
If ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’. If ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is daughter of Q’. If ‘P Q’ means ‘P is son of Q’. 86. How is U related to Q in the given expression ‘Q × R U + S’ ? 1) Mother 2) Father-in-law 4) Either ‘Mother-in-law’ or ‘father-in-law’ 5) None of these
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If ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is wife of Q’.
3) Mother-in-law
87. How is R related to Q in the given expression ‘Q – S × U R’ ? 1) Granddaughter 2) Mother-in-law/Father-in-law 4) Grandmother/Grandfather 5) None of these 88. How is R related to Q in the given expression ‘P – Q + R T’ ? 1) Brother/Sister 2) Niece 3) Brother
4) Nephew/Niece
3) Grandmother
5) None of these
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Directions (Q. 89–90) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Five friends A, B, C, D and E are playing a game on the play ground. All are facing north and are standing according to the given statements. I.
B stands right of D at a distance of 40 m.
II.
A stands south of B at a distance of 60 m.
III.
C stands west of D at a distnace of 25m.
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IV. E stands north of A at a distance of 90 m. 89. Who sits in the northeast of the person, who sits on the immediate left of B ? 1) A 2) C 3) D 4) Either ‘C’ or ‘D’
5) None of these
90. If C starts moving, first he meets D, then meets B, then A and at last he meets E, if he walks in a straight line, how much distance does he cover? 1) 215 m 2) 155 m 3) 245 m 4) 185 m 5) None of these Directions (Q. 91-95) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it. Seven Prime Minister A, B, C, D, E, F and G belonging to seven different countries viz— India, Pakistan, Australia, Sri Lanka, USA, England and Bangladesh gave their speech in UNO. on global-warming on seven different days from Monday to Sunday.
C
F gives speech on Saturday but is neither the Prime Minister of Australia nor Sri Lanka. The one who is the Prime Minister of India, gives speech on Friday. A is the Prime Minister of Pakistan and he gives speech neither on Wednesday nor on Thursday. The one who is the Prime Minister of Bangladesh, gives speech on Sunday. B gives speech on Tuesday but is not the Prime Minister of Sri Lanka. The one who is the Prime Minister of Sri Lanka doesn’t give speech on Thursday. D is the Prime Minister of Nepal. G doesn’t give speech on Friday and is not the Prime Minister of Sri Lanka. E isn’t the Prime Minister of Sri Lanka.
BS
91. On which of the following day does E give his speech ? 1) Thursday 2) Monday 3) Sunday
4) Wednesday
5) None of these
92. Four of the following five form a group as per the given arrangement. Which of the following does not belong to that group ? 1) G-Bangladesh 2) F-England 3) C-Sri Lanka 4) B-Australia 5) E-Pakistan 93. Which of the following combinations is definitely correct ? 1) C-Thursday 2) G-Friday 3) A-Monday
4) E-Wednesday
5) All are correct
94. F is the Prime Minister of which of the following countries ? 1) England 2) India 3) Nepal
4) Bangladesh
5) None of these
95. What is the name of the Prime Minister of India ? 1) A 2) B 3) D
4)E
5) C
SBIPO-PT-A-001
19
BSC Academy Directions (Q. 96-100) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.
96. Who among the following faces W ? 1) Q 2) M
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Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row I, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting and all of them are facing South. In row II, M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member of a row faces another member of the other row. P sits third to the left of R. U faces P and P doesn’t sit at any extreme ends of the line. X sits third to the left of W. O faces V. The one facing V sits third to the right of M. Y and M do not sit at the extreme ends of the line. P is not an immediate neighbour of Q and W is not an immediate neighbour of U. 3) N
4) O
97. Who among the following represent the persons sitting at the extreme ends of the rows ? 1) O, U 2) Q, Z 3) W, O 4) X, N
5) None of these 5) P, Z
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98. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? 1)Y, Q 2) Z, N 3) X, P 4) U, M 5) V, N 99. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? 1) W 2) P 3) R 4) Q 5) Z 4) Four
5) None
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C
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100. How many persons are seated between O and Q ? 1) One 2) Two 3) Three
SBIPO-PT-A-001
21
BSC Academy (BANKING SERVICES CHRONICLE)
SBIPO-PT-010 (Based on SBI PO (PRE) latest pattern for COMMON WRITTEN EXAM) No. of Questions : 100
Time : 1 hr
Name of Student : ____________________________
Father’s Name: ______________________________
Centre : _____________________________________
Batch No.: ___________________________________
Read the directions (given below) carefully. 1. 1.
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6. 7.
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bl i q fLr dkesafuEufyf[ kr i ka p i z'ukofy; kagS a% i z'ukoyhI - va xzst hHkk"kk i -zØ1–30 i z'ukoyhII - l a [ ; kRed vfHk; ksX; r k i -zØ31–65 i z'ukoyhIII - r dZ ' kfDr i -zØ- 66–100 bu pkj i z'ukofy; ksadsmÙkj nsusdsfy, vki dksdq y 1:00 ?ka Vsdk l e; fn; kt k, xkAi z'ukofy; ksadsfy, vyx&vyx l e; ughagS A vki vi uhbPNkdsvuq l kj l e; dkl a foHkkt u dj l dr sgS a ] i ja rq vki dksLej .k j [ kuk pkfg, fd bl i j h{kk esal Qy gksusdsfy, vki dksr huksi z'ukofy; ksaesavyx&vyx l Qy gksukvko' ; d gS A r dZ ' kfDr vkS j la [ ; kRed vfHk; ksX; r k dh i z'ukofy; kafgUnh vkS j va xzst hnksuksaHkk"kkvksaesaNi hgq bZgS AfgUnh: i kUrj ck, ar j Q dsi Uus a i j vkS j va xzst hnkfgusr j Q dsi Uusi j Ni sgq , gS a A vxj vki xyr mÙkj nsa xsr ksna MLo: i vki dsva d ksaesadVkS r hdh t k, xhA , sl sfdl hHkhi z'u dsfu/kkZ fj r va d ksaesal s]ft l dk vki us xyr mÙkj fn; k gS ] na M ds: i esa, d&pkS FkkbZ; k 0.25 va d dkV fy, t k, a xsA j Q dke] ; fn vki dj ukpkgsa ] r ksbl i q fLr dkesaghdj ukpkfg, u fd mÙkj i =ki j Abl gsrqgkf' k, dhvFkokvU; =kmi yC/k[ kkyh t xg dkmi ; ksx dhft , vU; fdl hdkxt dkmi ; ksx u dhft , A vi usmÙkj vyx mÙkj i =ki j , p-ch- i sfUl y dki z;ksx dj n' kkZ b, A mÙkj n' kkZ usdsfy, mÙkj i =kesafn, x, vuq ns'kksadki kyu dhft , A vki dsmÙkj i =k esamÙkj n' kkZ usdsfy, 100 mÙkj LFkku gS a A bl iq fLr dkesafn, gq , 100 i z'uksadsmÙkj nsusdsfy, 100 mÙkj LFkkuksa dk mi ; ksx dhft , A t c r d funsZ ' k u feysbl i q fLr dk dkser [ kksfy, A i q fLr dk [ kksy usdkfunsZ ' kfeyusi j i q fLr dkdsck, afdukj si j yxsgq , eq M+ s gq , r kj fudkyusdki z;kl u dj sa Ai sa fl y dsfi NysHkkx dhenn l snkfguhr j Q yxsLVhdj dksQkM+ dj i q fLr dk dks[ kksy sa A iq fLr dk [ kksy r sght ka p yhft , fd l Hkhi `"B ft u i j i z'u 1 l s 100 gS a ] l ghi zd kj l sNi sgq , gS avkS j fQj i z'ukofy; ksadsmÙkj nsuk i zkj a Hkdhft , A; fn i q fLr dknks"ki w . kZgksr ksbl sml hi z'ukoyhi zk: i Øeka d okyhnw l j hi z'ui q fLr dkl scnyokyhft , A
2.
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5.
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This Booklet contains five tests as follows : Test I - English Language Q.Nos. 1–30 Test II - Quantitative Aptitude Q.Nos. 31–65 Test III - Reasoning Q.Nos. 66–100 You will be given an aggregate time of 1:00 hours to answer all the three tests. The tests are not separately timed. You may distribute the time as you please but remember that to qualify in the written test as a whole you have to qualify on each of the three tests separately. Tests of Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude are printed in both Hindi and English. The Hindi version is printed on the left hand side page and the English version on the right hand side page. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by you, one-fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. Rough work, if you want to do any, is to be done in this booklet itself and not on the answersheet. For this purpose use the empty space in the margin or anywhere else you find in this booklet. Do not use any other paper. Indicate your answers on the separate answersheet (given at the end of the booklet), using HB Pencil. Follow the instructions given on the answersheet for indicating your answers. Your answersheet contains answer-spaces for answering 100 questions. Use 100 answer spaces for answering the 100 questions given in this booklet. Do not open the booklet Until you are told to do so. When the instruction for opening the booklet is given, do not try to remove the wire staples at the left. Insert the blunt end of your pencil under the sticker and tear it to open the booklet. Immediately after opening the booklet, verify that all the pages containing questions from 1 to 100 are properly printed in your booklet and then begin answering the test. In case the booklet is defective get it replaced by another test booklet.
BSC Academy Test I English Language
1. Shambles 4.
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Directions (Q. 1–5): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Teamwork allows employees to take greater responsibility for decision making and also allows team members to control more of the work process. This can lead to improved morale as employees gain more authority and ownership over the projects they are working on. The extra responsibility can lead to a more rewarding work environment and lower turnover. Working on a team also gives employees a greater sense of belonging and of recognition which helps them take more pride in their work, and their company. Teamwork can help companies to be more flexible. By bringing employees from different parts of a project together into one team, problems or bottlenecks can sometimes be ironed out more easily. For example, car manufacturers might sometimes use this method when designing automobiles. Instead of each new car design going through separate areas, such as design, engineering and parts supply, the car manufacturer will organise one team that includes employees from all those areas to design each car. As problems arise in one area, the entire team can deal with them and the work can proceed much faster. 1. Which of the following statements is 'FALSE' in the context of the passage? 1. Team work has primarily been within software engineering. 2. Working alone reduces learning. 3. Working effectively as part of a team is incredibly important for output quality, morale and retention. 4. Both 1 and 2 5. Both 2 and 3 2. The author in the given passage focuses on the following except 1) process of teambuilding in an organisation. 2) how to increase team spirit through organisational change. 3) bringing about a sense of unity, of enthusiasm shared in common interests and responsibilities. 4) importance of teamwork that allow employees to complete tasks efficiently and quickly. 5) the benefits of teamwork. 3. Choose the word which is most simillar in meaning to the word 'bottlenecks' as used in the passage? 2. Impediments
3. Pines
4. Amiss
5. Knack
4. Only B and C
5. All A, B and C
What did the author try to highlight in the passage? A. The ailing condition of staff in the company.
C
B. Role of teamwork in improving the efficiency among all employees. C. Strategies that may help organisations increase the profit. 1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Only C
5. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word 'ironed out' as used in the passage? 1. Made worse
2. Arbitrated
3. Reconciled
4. Simplified
5. Eradicated
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Directions (Q. 6 – 15) : In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete. We still prefer job security and comfort (6) the (7) offices and fast (8) corporate lifestyles. The prestige, security and comfort of government jobs still (9) (10) for many Indians. Before the markets were liberalised in the 1990s, the government was one of the country’s most (11) employers. We believe that although the tide and (12) of private sector jobs may have strongly (13) in (14) the last three decades, but the government’s (15) as an employer still continues with many people. This appeal has become stronger over the past few years, in the face of recession induced layoffs and salary cuts in the private sector.
2
SBIPO-PT-010
BSC Academy 1) in
2) for
3) at
4) over
5) as
7.
1) swanky
2) diligent
3) esteem
4) fetter
5) perplex
8.
1) moving
2) paced
3) made
4) perilous
5) placed
9.
1) hold
2) release
3) dappled
10. 1) result
2) mire
3) appeal
11. 1) decamped
2) coveted
3) replete
12. 1) incessant
2) knack
3) trick
13. 1) put
2) hold
3) settled
14. 1) within
2) to
3) on
15. 1) legacy
2) vitiate
3) desultory
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6.
4) hampered
5) provide
4) post
5) diffident
4) forlorn
5) gratified
4) glamour
5) aptitude
4) take
5) prove
4) well
5) for
4) rank
5) alacrity
Directions (Q. 16–20) : Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
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A) And it should not block or discriminate against any applications or content that ride over those networks.
B) Just as our phone company shouldn't decide who you can call and what you say on that call, your ISP shouldn't be concerned with the content you view or post online. C) Net Neutrality means an Internet that enables and protects free speech.
D) Without Net Neutrality, cable and phone companies could carve the Internet into fast and slow lanes. E) It means that Internet service providers should provide us with open networks.
1) E
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16. Which of the following would be the 'SECOND' sentence after rearrangement? 2) A
3) D
4) B
5) C
17. Which of the following would be the 'LAST (FIFTH)' sentence after rearrangement? 1) A
2) E
3) D
4) C
5) B
18. Which of the following would be the 'FIRST' sentence after rearrangement? 1) B
2) C
3) E
4) D
5) A
19. Which of the following would be the 'FOURTH' sentence after rearrangement? 1) D
2) A
3) C
4) B
5) E
1) C
2) B
C
20. Which of the following would be the 'THIRD' sentence after rearrangement? 3) D
4) E
5) A
Directions (Q. 21–25): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error' the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
BS
21. We might not have 1)/ such well develop strategies 2)/ to protect 3)/ confidential data. 4)/ No error 5) 22. Of the various 1)/ selection criteria 2)/ costing is perhaps 3)/ the most important. 4) /No error 5) 23. By this time 1)/ initial enthusiasm 2)/ of applicants 3)/ fades away 4)/No error 5) 24. Creat affordability 1)/ is crucial 2)/ in tapping 3)/ the unbanked market 4)/ No error 5) 25. Rural development 1)/ aims improving 2)/ rural people's livelihood 3)/in an equitable and sustainable manner. 4)/ No error 5)
SBIPO-PT-010
3
BSC Academy Directions (Q. 26–30): Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each pair of blanks that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 26. Neither welfare nor workfare could have _____ the sharp ____ of economic growth. 2) caused, acceleration
4) done, flow
5) utilised, slope
27. These cities ____ behind in infrastructure _____. 1) have, notice
2) key, matter
4) lag, development
5) make, deal
3) crushed, link
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1) rised, yore
3) far, stand
28. She ____ her ____ experience of working in the company. 1) described, initial
2) explained, abridge
4) liked, craven
5) gained, badger
3) asked, engross
29. A large percentage of the total _______ _______ the internet is e–mail. 1) common, of
2) incongruity, in
4) amass, in
5) traffic, over
3) unanimity, on
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30. Having money and ___ able to make decisions, is one _____ of being independent. 2) to, matter
4) to be, action
5) rightly, reason
3) likely, target
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C
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1) being, means
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SBIPO-PT-010
BSC Academy Test II Quantitative Aptitude 31.
56, 496, 3466, 17326, ? 1) 51976
32.
2) 51876
2) 4632.518
3) 4642.548
2) 240
3) 265
2) 118
3) 119
132, 156, 182, 210, ? 1) 272
34.
3) 52496
25, 30, 66, 211.2, 887.04, ? 1) 4602.608
33.
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Directions (Q. 31 - 34): What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
227, 200, 173, 146, ? 1) 121
4) 51986
5) 52986
4) 4612.508
5) 4612.608
4) 260
5) 280
4) 123
5) 117
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Directions (Q. 35 – 38): In each of these questions, two equations numbered I and II with variables x and y are given. You have to solve both the equations to find the value of x and y. Give answers: 1) if x > y
2) if x y
4) if x y
5) if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be determined.
2
35.
I.
36.
I. 55x2 + 53x + 12 = 0
37.
I. x2 – 25x+ 114 = 0
38.
I. 8x2 + 42x + 27 = 0
II. y 2 –
6 x 4 15 x 2 10 0
3) if x < y
6 5 y 30 0
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II. 48y2 – 24y + 3 = 0 II. y2 – 10y + 24 = 0
II. 15y2 + 43y + 30 = 0
Directions (Q. 39 – 40): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 39.
6189 × 958.98 ÷ 240.01 = ? 1) 24800
1) 4255
2) 3855
42.
5) 26800
3) 2855
4) 3255
5) 2255
114 % of 250 + 124 % of 450 = ? 1) 833
43.
4) 27800
Directions (Q. 41 – 43): What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 0 99 561 ? 51 1) 57089 2) 54089 3) 56089 4) 56099 5) 56182
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41.
3) 29800
1398% of 129 + 1434.85 = ?
C
40.
2) 20800
2) 843
3) 923
4) 823
5) 943
2) 44/105
3) 47/110
4) 43/107
5) 43/105
1 ? 1 5 4 5 5 6
1) 41/105
SBIPO-PT-010
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BSC Academy Directions (Q. 44-46): Each question below is followed by two statements A and B. You have to determine whether the data given in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of mathematics to choose between the possible answers. Give answer
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1) if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement B alone is not sufficient. 2) if the statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement A alone is not sufficient. 3) if the both statement A and B together are needed to answer the question.
4) if either the statement A alone or B alone is sufficient to answer the question.
5) if you cannot get the answer from the statements A and B together, but needed even more data. 44.
What would have been the selling price per kg of sugar?
A. 80 kg of sugar was purchased at ` 5200 and ` 400 were spent on transport. B. Profit earned on selling would be 15%. 45.
What is the volume of a cube?
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A. The area of each face of the cube is 81 m2. B. The length of one side of the cube is 9 m. 46.
What is the speed of a boat in still water?
A. The downstream speed of the boat is three times the upstream speed of the boat. B. The sum of upstream and downstream speeds of the boat is 16 kmph.
1) 26 48.
2) 53
5) 71
2) 278.48 km
3) 276.38 km
4) 254.81 km
5) 268.18 km
2) ` 11,400
3) ` 8600
4) ` 10,400
5) ` 9600
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A 280-m-long train takes 20 sec to cross a person who is going in the same direction with the speed of 6 km/h. After crossing that person, the train can reach next station in 45 min. How long will that person take to reach the station after being crossed by train? 1) 7 hr 3 min
51.
4) 35
Aashi had ` 20,000 with her out of this money she lent some money to Anshul for 4 years at 20% p.a. simple interest. She lent the remaining money to Rajat for an equal number of years at the rate of 24% p.a. After 4 years, Aashi found that Anshul had given her ` 864 more as interest as compared to Rajat. The amount of money which Aashi had lent to Rajat must be. 1) ` 10,600
50.
3) 62
The distance between two stations S1 and S2 is 640 km. A train J starts at 5 pm from S1 and moves towards S2 at an average speed of 80 km/h. Another train K starts from S2 at 4 : 20 pm and moves towards S1 at an average speed of 100 km/hr. How far from S1 will the two trains meet? 1) 248.18 km
49.
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The number obtained by interchanging the two digits of a two-digit number is less than the original number by 36. If the sum of the two digits of the number is 8, then what is the original number?
C
47.
2) 6 hr 3 min
3) 7 hr 30 min
4) 7 hr 50 min
5) 6 hr 30 min
Anil and Deepak started a business by investing ` 24000 and ` 36000 respectively. At the end of 5th month from the start of the business, Sohan joined them with ` 16000. At the end of 7th month Deepak quits, at that time Sohan invests ` 4000 more. At the end of 10th month, Deepak rejoins with the same investment. If the profit at the end of the year is ` 26164, what is Deepak's share of profit? 1) ` 10894
2) ` 10394
SBIPO-PT-010
3) ` 10000
4) ` 11394
5) ` 11000
9
BSC Academy The circumference of the two circles is 352 cm and 264 cm respectively. What is the difference between the area of the larger circle and the smaller circle?
53.
1 kg 16
4) 4123 cm2
5) 4132 cm2
2) 14
1 kg 16
3) 14
3 kg 16
4) 14
1 kg 18
1 5) 15 kg 8
One–third of Radha's savings in National Savings Certificate is equal to one–half of her savings in Public Provident Fund. If she has ` 150000 as total savings, how much has she saved in Public Provident Fund? 1) ` 60,000
55.
3) 4312 cm2
The price of sugar is increased by 28%. Therefore a family reduces its consumption so that the increment in the expenditure of sugar is only 20%. If the consumption of sugar is 15 kg before the increment, what is the consumption now? 1) 15
54.
2) 4332 cm2
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1) 4032 cm2
2) ` 75,000
3) ` 80,000
4) ` 90,000
5) ` 85,000
The number obtained by interchanging the digits of a two-digit number is less than the original number by 54 if the digit at the unit place of the original number is one–third of the digit at ten's place. What is the original number? 1) 31
2) 93
3) 62
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52.
4) 26
5) 39
56. The present age of Raju and his father are in the ratio of 2 : 5. Four years hence, the ratio of their ages will become 5 : 11. What was the father's age five years ago? 1) 35 years
20 days 3
2) ` 11,000
3) ` 12,000
4) ` 13,000
5) ` 12,500
2)
23 days 5
3) 8 days
4)
24 days 5
5) 10 days
A basket contains 2 white bands, 3 green bands and 5 blue bands. In how many ways can three bands be drawn from the basket, if at least one green band is to be included in the drawn? 2) 84
C
1) 95
3) 85
4) 80
5) 65
A card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. The probability of getting a king of a club or a queen of heart is 3 1 2 1 1 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 26 13 13 26 52 Directions (Q. 61-65) : Study the graph carefully and answer the questions given below.
BS
60.
5) 42 years
Two men or three women alone can complete a piece of work in 4 days. In how many days can one woman and one man together complete the same piece of work? 1)
59.
4) 38 years
Manoj sold an article for ` 15,000. Had he offered a discount of 10% on the selling price, he would have earned a profit of 8%. What is the cost price? 1) ` 11,500
58.
3) 36 years
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57.
2) 40 years
The bar graph below gives the distribution of the people of five cities based on their online shopping from different sites .
SBIPO-PT-010
11
BSC Academy Number of people shopping online (percentage wise) from different sites.
4
Flipkart
18
Mumbai
5
Bengaluru
6
Chennai
8
Hyderabad
Snapdeal
8
24 14
16
10%
20%
19
30%
40%
50%
20
21
20
8
28
18
0%
Amazon
6
24
20
3
Jabong
12
24
16
28
60%
70%
10
80%
90%
100%
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Delhi
Myntra
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Shopclues
The table shows the total number of people from different cities.
10
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Mumbai Bengaluru
8
Chennai
3
Hyderabad
4
2) Chennai
4) 1.18
5) 1.15
3) Mumbai
4) Hyderbad
5) Bengaluru
What is the average number of people shopping online from Myntra in all the cities together? 2) 186800
3) 184800
4) 194800
5) 196800
BS
What is the percentage of the number of people shopping online from Jabong in Delhi to the number of people shopping online form Snapdeal in Bengaluru? 1) 42.75%
65.
3) 1.78
In which of the following cities, the number of people shopping online from Jabong is the maximum?
1) 195800 64.
14
2) 1.20
1) Delhi 63.
Delhi
What is the total number of people (in lakh) shopping online from Flipkart in Chennai and Hyderabad together? 1) 1. 28
62.
No of people (in lakh)
C
61.
City
2) 43.75%
3) 49.45%
4) 40.75%
5) 45.68%
The number of people in Mumbai shopping online from Amazon is what per cent more than the number of people shopping online from Shopclues in Delhi? 1) 275%
2) 225%
SBIPO-PT-010
3) 250%
4) 175%
5) 200%
13
BSC Academy Test III Reasoning Ability Directions (Q. 66–70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
BS
C
Ac
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A group of eight students A, B,C, D, E, F, G and H goes eight different cities viz Lucknow, Delhi, Kolkata, Bengaluru, Mumbai, Patna, Jaipur and Bhopal for participating in eight different activities Drama, Painting, Dialogue, Music, Acting, Discussion, Sports and Adventure, but not necessarily in the same order. D participates in discussion and neither go to Bengaluru nor to Mumbai. H goes to Kolkata. C goes to Patna and participates in Sports. One who participates in Painting goes to Bhopal. B participates in Music. One who goes to Jaipur, participate in Acting. H doesn't participate either in adventure or in dialogue. A does not go to Bengaluru and Bhopal. E, who goes to Lucknow doesn't like adventure. G goes to Mumbai. 66. Who is going to Delhi? 1)A 2) D 3)E 4) F 5) Other than given options 67. Who does participate in Drama? 1) B 2) E 3) H 4) A 5) Other than given options 68. One, who participates in Adventure is going to 1) Kolkata 2) Delhi 3) Lucknow 4) Mumbai 5) Other than given options 69. Which of the following combinations is true? 1) F – Jaipur – Acting 2) G – Lucknow – Adventure 3) B – Kolkata – Music 4) Other than given options 5) E – Lucknow – Dialogue 70. Who is going to Bengaluru? 1) B 2) F 3) H 4) D 5) Other than given options Directions (Q. 71-75): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer 1) if only conclusion I is true. 2) if only conclusion II is true. 3) if either conclusion I or II is true. 4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true. 5) if both conclusions I and II are true. 71. Statements: P > R, R < S T, P S Conclusions: I. P < T II. S R (72–73): Statements: N S < T > O, O E , S = I 72. Conclusions: I. N < I II. N < E 73. Conclusions: I. I < T II. E T (74–75): Statements: L= M O S =T>Z M 74. Conclusions: I. Z < E II. Y T 75. Conclusions: I. S = L II. Y > Z Directions (Q. 76–79): In each question given below three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take all the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with the commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and decide which conclusion logically follows from all the given statement disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer 1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
SBIPO-PT-010
15
BSC Academy 3) if either conclusion I or II follows. 4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows. (76–77): Statements: All tribes are trainer.
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5) if both conclusions I and II follow. No teacher is a typewriter.
76.
Conclusions: I. All teacher being trainer is a possibility.
77.
Conclusions: I. At least some trainers are typewriters.
(78–79): Statements: Every board is black.
All colour is black.
78.
Conclusions: I. All boards being black is a possibility.
79.
Conclusions: I. Some blacks are bats is a possibility.
Some tribes are teachers
II. Some tribes are not teachers.
II. Some tribes are not typewriters. Some bats are not black.
II. Some colours are not bats.
II. At least some boards are bats.
Directions (Q. 80 – 85): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of the input and rearrangement.
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Input: variety 13 enough 7 12 maximum union 24 tree 4
Step I: enough variety 13 7 12 maximum union 24 tree 4
Step II: enough variety 13 12 maximum union 24 tree 4 7
Step III: enough maximum variety 13 12 union 24 tree 4 7
Step IV: enough maximum variety 13 union 24 tree 4 7 12 Step V: enough maximum union variety 13 24 tree 4 7 12
Ac
Step VI: enough maximum union variety 24 tree 4 7 12 13
Step VII: enough maximum union tree variety 24 4 7 12 13 Step VIII: enough maximum union tree variety 24 7 12 13 4 Step IX: enough maximum union tree variety 7 12 13 4 24
And step IX is the last step of the above arrangement. As per the rules followed in the above step, find out the appropriate step for the given input. Input: steps 22 onion apt 19 tribe 4 new 18 13
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement of the above input? 1) Six
81.
2) Eight
3) Ten
4) more than ten
5) Both 3 and 4
3) Step IX
4) Step X
5) Other than given options
4) 6
5) 4
4) Step VII
5) Other than given options
4) Third
5) Other than given options
Which step number is the following output?
C
80.
apt new onion steps tribe 4 18 13 19 22 1) Step V 82.
2) Step VI
How many elements are there between 'new' and '18' in step VI ? 2) 2
BS
1) 5 83.
Which of the following steps would be the last step but one? 1) Step VIII
84.
2) Step X
3) Step IX
What is the position of 'tribe' to the left of '13' in step VI? 1) Fifth
85.
3) 3
2) Seventh
3) Ninth
Which of the following steps will be step VII?
1) apt new onion steps tribe 4 18 19 22 13 2) apt new onion steps tribe 4 19 22 13 18
SBIPO-PT-010
17
BSC Academy 3) apt new tribe steps onion 4 19 18 22 13 4) There is no any such step 5) Other than given options
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Directions (Q. 86–90): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A group of eight members A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a rectangular table facing the centre. H is second to the right of A. C and E along with two other sit at four different corners of the rectangular table. A and D facing each other sit at the middle of the longer different sides. G is second to the right of D, who is fifth to the left of E. F is facing to the C, who is neighbour of A. Who is fourth to the right of H? 1) G 87.
2) A 2) GC 2) Three
5) Other than given options
3) Four
4) CA
5) Other than given options
4) One
5) Other than given options
Which of the following combinations represents the first and third to the left of H respectively? 1) AE
90.
3) EA
How many people are there between A and D? 1) Two
89.
4) C
Which of the following pairs represent the first person is immediate right of second person? 1) HF
88.
3) D
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86.
2) CA
3) EC
Who is third to the right of B? 1) E
2) H
3) F
4) AG
5) Other than given options
4) D
5) A
1)
if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2)
if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3)
if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4)
if the data in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5)
if the data in both the statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
C
91.
Ac
Directions (Q. 91–93): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statement and give answer
Among R, S, T, U and V, who is the second slowest? I. V is slower than T, but faster than S, who is faster only than U. II. T is not slower than R.
92.
How many sisters does P have?
BS
I. R is the grandfather of S, who has two brothers T and P? II. Q is the father of S, who is the only sister of T.
93.
How is 'about' written in a code language?
I. 'He knows about you' is written as '3 12 7 4' and 'He knows everything' is written as '7 6 3'. II. 'It is about you is written as '4 5 8 12'.
94.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1) Sphere
2) Cube
SBIPO-PT-010
3) Triangle
4) Cuboid
5) Pyramid
19
BSC Academy If 'BROAD' is written in coding language as '0 20 13 3 2' then in that language how the word 'SPECTACULAR' will be written? 1) 3, 16, 17, 18, 3, 5, 23, 18, 10, 3, 1
2) 17, 18, 3, 5, 18, 3, 1, 23, 10, 3, 16
3) 18, 17, 5, 3, 3, 18, 1, 23, 3, 10, 16
4) 3, 16, 18, 17, 3, 5, 23, 10, 18, 3, 1
5) Other than given options
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95.
Directions (Q. 96–98): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. (i) P × Q means P is brother of Q (ii) P + Q means P is sister of Q (iii) P – Q means P is father of Q (iv) P ÷ Q means P is mother of Q Which of the following denotes that R is nephew of N? 1) N + M × R 97.
99.
3) N × T ÷ K × R
In expression I + Q ÷ N × S, What is the relation of I with S ? 1) Uncle
98.
2) R × T ÷ N 2) Maternal Aunt
3) Brother
4) N × T – R × K
5) Other than given options
4) Niece
5) Other than given options
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96.
Which of the following does shows that W is grandmother of Q? 1) H × W ÷ N – Q
2) H + W × N ÷ Q
4) T × W ÷ H + N
5) Other than given options
3) H ÷ N × T – W
The Government of India was both whole Sale Price India (WPI) and Consumer Price Index (CPI) to measure the rate of inflation. But CPI is better indicator as compare to the WPI. Which of the following conclusions supports the above statements?
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(A) All the countries of the world use CPI to measure the rate of inflation.
(B) Majoring of the population of India buy commodities at the retail prices. (C) Majority of the population of India are very poor. (D) The WPI has a very old bare year. 1) Only A
2) Only B
4) Only C
5) Only C and D
3) Only A, B and C
100. Statement: The government got a great deal of legislative work done during the just concluded budget session. Which of the following can be inferred from the above statement?
C
1) Government has majority in both the houses of parliament. 2) Government knows how to get consent from opposition. 3) It might suggest that despite its lack of numbers in the Rajya Sabha it remained dominant in parliament. 4) Nothing can be said
BS
5) Other than given options
SBIPO-PT-010
21
BSC Academy (BANKING SERVICES CHRONICLE)
SBIPO-PT-002 (Based on SBI PO (PRE) latest pattern for COMMON WRITTEN EXAM) No. of Questions : 100
Time : 1 hr
Name of Student : ____________________________
Father’s Name: ______________________________
Centre : _____________________________________
Batch No.: ___________________________________
Read the directions (given below) carefully. 1. 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6. 7.
8.
9.
bl i q fLr dkesafuEufyf[ kr i ka p i z'ukofy; kagS a% i z'ukoyhI - va xzst hHkk"kk i z-Ø1–30 i z'ukoyhII - l a [ ; kRed vfHk; ksX; r k i z-Ø31–65 i z'ukoyhIII - r dZ ' kfDr i z-Ø- 66–100 bu pkj i z'ukofy; ksadsmÙkj nsusdsfy, vki dksdq y 1:00 ?ka Vsdk l e; fn; kt k, xkAi z'ukofy; ksadsfy, vyx&vyx l e; ughagS A vki vi uhbPNkdsvuq l kj l e; dkl a foHkkt u dj l dr sgS a ] i ja rq vki dksLej .k j [ kuk pkfg, fd bl i j h{kk esal Qy gksusdsfy, vki dksr huksi z'ukofy; ksaesavyx&vyx l Qy gksukvko' ; d gS A r dZ ' kfDr vkS j la [ ; kRed vfHk; ksX; r k dh i z'ukofy; kafgUnh vkS j va xzst hnksuksaHkk"kkvksaesaNi hgq bZgS AfgUnh: i kUrj ck, ar j Q dsi Uus a i j vkS j va xzst hnkfgusr j Q dsi Uusi j Ni sgq , gS a A vxj vki xyr mÙkj nsa xsr ksna MLo: i vki dsva d ksaesadVkS r hdh t k, xhA , sl sfdl hHkhi z'u dsfu/kkZ fj r va d ksaesal s]ft l dk vki us xyr mÙkj fn; k gS ] na M ds: i esa, d&pkS FkkbZ; k 0.25 va d dkV fy, t k, a xsA j Q dke] ; fn vki dj ukpkgsa ] r ksbl i q fLr dkesaghdj ukpkfg, u fd mÙkj i =ki j Abl gsrqgkf' k, dhvFkokvU; =kmi yC/k[ kkyh t xg dkmi ; ksx dhft , vU; fdl hdkxt dkmi ; ksx u dhft , A vi usmÙkj vyx mÙkj i =ki j , p-ch- i sfUl y dki z;ksx dj n' kkZ b, A mÙkj n' kkZ usdsfy, mÙkj i =kesafn, x, vuq ns'kksadki kyu dhft , A vki dsmÙkj i =k esamÙkj n' kkZ usdsfy, 100 mÙkj LFkku gS a A bl iq fLr dkesafn, gq , 100 i z'uksadsmÙkj nsusdsfy, 100 mÙkj LFkkuksa dk mi ; ksx dhft , A t c r d funsZ ' k u feysbl i q fLr dk dkser [ kksfy, A i q fLr dk [ kksy usdkfunsZ ' kfeyusi j i q fLr dkdsck, afdukj si j yxsgq , eq M+ s gq , r kj fudkyusdki z;kl u dj sa Ai sa fl y dsfi NysHkkx dhenn l snkfguhr j Q yxsLVhdj dksQkM+ dj i q fLr dk dks[ kksy sa A iq fLr dk [ kksy r sght ka p yhft , fd l Hkhi `"B ft u i j i z'u 1 l s 100 gS a ] l ghi zd kj l sNi sgq , gS avkS j fQj i z'ukofy; ksadsmÙkj nsuk i zkj a Hkdhft , A; fn i q fLr dknks"ki w . kZgksr ksbl sml hi z'ukoyhi zk: i Øeka d okyhnw l j hi z'ui q fLr dkl scnyokyhft , A
2.
3.
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5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
This Booklet contains five tests as follows : Test I - English Language Q.Nos. 1–30 Test II - Quantitative Aptitude Q.Nos. 31–65 Test III - Reasoning Q.Nos. 66–100 You will be given an aggregate time of 1:00 hours to answer all the three tests. The tests are not separately timed. You may distribute the time as you please but remember that to qualify in the written test as a whole you have to qualify on each of the three tests separately. Tests of Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude are printed in both Hindi and English. The Hindi version is printed on the left hand side page and the English version on the right hand side page. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by you, one-fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. Rough work, if you want to do any, is to be done in this booklet itself and not on the answersheet. For this purpose use the empty space in the margin or anywhere else you find in this booklet. Do not use any other paper. Indicate your answers on the separate answersheet (given at the end of the booklet), using HB Pencil. Follow the instructions given on the answersheet for indicating your answers. Your answersheet contains answer-spaces for answering 100 questions. Use 100 answer spaces for answering the 100 questions given in this booklet. Do not open the booklet Until you are told to do so. When the instruction for opening the booklet is given, do not try to remove the wire staples at the left. Insert the blunt end of your pencil under the sticker and tear it to open the booklet. Immediately after opening the booklet, verify that all the pages containing questions from 1 to 100 are properly printed in your booklet and then begin answering the test. In case the booklet is defective get it replaced by another test booklet.
BSC Academy Test I English Language
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Direction (Q. 1–5) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error' the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any) To cope with the spectre of drought 1)/ we should devise 2)/ both short-term 3)/ and long–term policy. 4 )/ No error 5) Wealth may give us joy 1)/ for a while 2)/ and fame may provide us 3)/ with fleet excitement. 4 ) /No error 5) After a while 1)/ keeping the ever 2)/ larger organisation under control 3)/ becomes the primary challenge. 4 )/ No error 5) Inwardly focused employees 1)/ can have difficulty 2)/ seeing very forces3) /present threats and opportunities. 4 )/ No error 5) Practically all the states 1)/ of India 2)/ have its 3)/ tribal population. 4 )/ No error 5) Directions (Q. 6 –15) : In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete. Investors have 6 out of love with emerging markets. Since the start of last year emerging-market stocks have 7 their richworld peers. Currencies are falling. Worst-hit is the Russian rouble, which has fallen by 30% against the dollar this year. The currencies of other 8 emerging markets, such as Brazil, Turkey and South Africa, have also weakened. For such economies growth is harder to 9 by. The IMF recently cut its forecasts for emerging markets by more than for rich countries. But India is a 10 exception to the general pessimism. Its stock market has touched new highs. The rupee is stable. And the IMF 11 up its 2014 growth forecast for India to 5.8%. That figure is still quite low: growth rates of 8-9% have been more typical. But in comparison with others it is 12 a boom. Why is India doing better than most emerging markets? In part optimism about India 13 to its newish government. In May Narendra Modi’s Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) won a 14 victory in elections on a pro-growth platform. Since then the BJP has strengthened its position in some key states. So far reform has been piecemeal. Procedures for government approvals have been streamlined. The powers of labour inspectors have been curbed. Civil servants now work harder. That has been enough to sustain hopes of further and bigger reforms. Yet 15 of the continued enthusiasm about India is down to luck.
6.
1) fallen
2) lauded
3) honoured
4) seen
5) come
7.
1) ditched
2) carried
3) ignored
4) completed
5) trailed
8.
1) ample
2) biggish
3) hefty
4) gross
5) pondered
9.
1) gone
2) had
3) like
4) come
5) behave
10. 1) preamble
2) comparable
3) notable
4) covered
5) considerable
11. 1) nudged
2) shown
3) build
4) filled
5) push
12. 1) almost
2) about
3) looking
4) to
5) with
13. 1) work
2) touch
3) trigger
4) cross
5) owes
14. 1) failing
2) thumping
3) running
4) amusing
5) tiring
15. 1) some
2) working
3) refreshing
4) much
5) working
Directions (Q. 16–20) :Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each pair of blanks that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 16. In a ____ to make a complete _____ of the school education in Delhi, the AAP government is working towards setting up a state education board.
2
SBIPO-PT-002
BSC Academy 1) bid, overhaul 2) view, look 3) edge, overlook 4) lieu, sense 17. We will _____ that not more than 60 students are ______ in one classroom. 1) sure, adjusted 2) like, believe 3) do, sit 5) ensure, accommodated 18. An order was ____ by the court to make a law to ____ this in 2015. 1) passed, replacing 2) come, exchange 4) issued, regulate 5) insisted, improve
5) clink, planning 4) confirm, coming
3) enforced, act
19. The bill was ____ by the International Labour Organization (ILO) and _____ to the government a few months ago. 1) drafted, submitted 2) prepared, deposited 3) brought, pass 4) written, shown 5) passed , list 20. We are working ____ with India to find ways to promote the ____ to a low carbon, clean energy future. 1) earlier, product 2) along, transaction 3) hardly, transfer 4) closely, transition 5) always, repair Directions (Q. 21–25) : Rearrange the following five sentence (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below. A) If you are a long–term smoker, on average, your life expectancy is about 10 years less than a non–smoker. B) It is never too late to stop smoking to benefit your health. C) Stopping smoking can make a big difference to your health. D) For example, if you stop smoking in middle age, before having cancer or some other serious disease, you avoid most of the increased risk of death due to smoking. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
E) About half of all smokers die from smoking–related diseases. Which of the following would be the 'SECOND' sentence after rearrangement? 1) A 2) C 3) E 4) B Which of the following would be the 'THIRD' sentence after rearrangement? 1) D 2) B 3) E 4) A Which of the following would be the 'LAST' sentence after rearrangement? 1) E 2) D 3) A 4) C Which of the following would be the 'FIRST' sentence after rearrangement? 1) B 2) D 3) E 4) C Which of the following would be the 'FOURTH' sentence after rearrangement? 1) C 2) A 3) B 4) D
5) D 5) C 5) B 5) A 5) E
Directions (Q. 26–30) : Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Since smoking is often underestimated for younger people, when smokers tend to hide their habits from the older family members, we focus on individuals who are 30 and above. In this age group, nearly 36 per cent men in the IHDS sample smoke; 29 per cent smoke daily. Among women, only 2.5 per cent smoke. Although men from all walks of life smoke, smoking is disproportionately concentrated among Dalit, Adivasi and Muslim men. Among this group, about 45 per cent men smoke; 37 per cent smoke daily. Lack of education also plays a role. About 46 per cent of illiterate men smoke, while only 16 per cent of the college graduates smoke. Moreover, smoking is concentrated among the lowest income group. Nearly 46 per cent of the men in bottom fifth smoke compared to only 20 per cent in the upper fifth. Death rates are higher for daily smokers than for non-smokers or occasional smokers. About 11.3 per cent of men aged 30 and above and who smoke daily died in the seven years following our initial survey; only 10.2 per cent of the non-smokers and occasional smokers died. However, as we noted above, smokers come from lower socio-economic strata. Hence, it is difficult to know if these characteristics, rather than smoking, may be the cause of higher death rates
SBIPO-PT-002
3
BSC Academy among smokers. So we compare like with like and control for education, marital status, age, caste/religious background, urban/rural residence, state of residence and whether the individual was employed at the first interview. We also control for household wealth. This does not change the relationship observed above. 26. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage? 1) Delaying anti–smoking campaigns will take a heavy toll on the Indian population. 2) Smoking is harmful only for women. 3) Smokers have higher health rate than non–smokers. 4) All of the above 5) None of these 27. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning of the word 'Employed' as used in the passage? 1) Engaged 2) Unoccupied 3) Slight 4) Idle 5) Reactive 28. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word 'Underestimated' as used in the passage? 1) Compress
2) Deprecate
3) Ignore
4) Exaggerate
29. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage? 1) Smoking in our country 2) Categorizing smokers 4) Consequences of smoking 5) Major causes of smoking
5) Abridge 3) Level of smoking
30. What does the author mean by 'Although men from all walks of life smoke'? 1) Smoking kills all in every aspect of their life. 2) Smoking increases health risks in all stages. 3) Men are addicted to smoking 4) Both 2 and 3 5) None of these
4
SBIPO-PT-002
BSC Academy Test II Quantitative Aptitude Directions (Q. 31–33): What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 31. 112 ×
4
4096 – 268 = ? × 9 + 241
1) 51 32.
3) 55
4) 42
5) 60
2) 145
3) 158
4) 160
5) 165
3) 155
4) 169
5) 164
812 – 492 = ? × 26 1) 150
33.
2) 45
4 1382 3007 513 114 of 7 + 161 = ? 1) 165 2) 160
Directions (Q. 34-36): In the following number series one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number. 34.
15, 69, 235, 939, 3755 1) 69
35.
3) 3755
4) 15
5) 235
2) 23
3) 31
4) 121
5) 58
3) 120
4) 380
5) 1400
22, 23, 31, 58, 121 1) 22
36.
2) 939
120, 220, 380, 740, 1400 1) 740
2) 220
Directions (Q. 37-40): In each of these questions, two equations numbered I and II with variables x and y are given. You have to solve both the equations to find the value of x and y. Give answer 1) if x > y
2) if x y
4) if x y
5) if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be determined.
37. I. 18x2 – 9x + 1 = 0
II. 48y2 – 58y + 15 = 0
38. I. x2 – 5x – 36 = 0
II. y2 – 17y + 72 = 0
39. I. 169x2 = 49
II. 13y =
40. I. x2 – 21x + 104 = 0
II. y2 – 29y + 210 = 0
3) if x < y
81 – 4
Directions (Q. 41–43): What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 41.
50.008% of 679. 998 + ? % of 559.94 = 480 1) 20
42.
3) 45
4) 30
5) 25
3) 335
4) 305
5) 300
3) 1080
4) 1100
5) 1050
1000.12 ÷ 24.998 = ? – 275.05 1) 315
43.
2) 34
2) 325
98.99 × 9.956 + 12.09 = ? 1) 900
2) 1002
SBIPO-PT-002
7
BSC Academy Directions (Q. 44–46): Each question below is followed by two statements A and B. You have to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of mathematics to choose between the possible answers. Give answer: 1) if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement B alone is not sufficient. 2) if the statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement A alone is not sufficient. 3) if the both statement A and B together are needed to answer the question. 4) if either the statement A alone or B alone is sufficient to answer the question. 5) if you cannot get the answer from the statements A and B together, but needed even more data. 44.
What is the number? A. The sum of the two digits is 10. The ratio of the two digits is 4:1. B. The product of two digits of a number is 16. The quotient of two digits is 4.
45.
` 4800 is divided amongst P, Q and R. Find the share of P. A. P gets one–third of what Q and R together get. B. Q get half as much as P and R together get.
46.
What is the total number of votes polled? A. The looser get 18% of the votes polled. B. The winner get 82% of the votes and is elected by a majority of 1488 votes.
47.
The ratio of present age of Manav to Wasim is 7 : 13. Wasim is 16 years younger than Rahul. Rahul's age after 8 years will be 76 years. What is the present age of Manav's father, which is 27 years older than Manav? 1) 50 years
48.
2) 54 years
3) 58 years
4) 55 years
5) 60 years
A train moving at the speed of 90km/h crosses a bridge in 30 seconds. Another train 60 m shorter moving at the speed of 54 km/hr crosses the same bridge. Find the time taken by second train to cross the bridge. 1) 46 seconds
49.
2) 42 seconds
3) 44 seconds
4) 40 seconds
5) 48 seconds
Find the number of ways of arranging the host and 7 guests at a circular table so that the host always sits in a particular seat? 1) 13!
50.
2) 6!
3) 8!
4) 12!
5) 7!
Find the number of ways of selecting 5 letters from the 'EQUALITY' so that three vowels are included? 1) 20
2) 24
SBIPO-PT-002
3) 28
4) 26
5) 30
9
BSC Academy (Q.51–53): A bouquet consists of 5 red roses, 6 white roses and 4 yellow roses. 51.
If three roses are drawn at random, what is the probability that all are red roses? 1) 6/91
52.
2) 2/91
2) 58/65
5) 5/91
3) 54/65
4) 53/65
5) 52/65
If three roses are picked at random, what is the probability that either all are yellow or all are red roses? 1) 2/65
54.
4) 4/91
If three roses are drawn at random, what is the probability that at least one is white rose? 1) 51/65
53.
3) 3/91
2) 1/65
3) 3/65
4) 4/65
5) 7/65
14 men went to a cafeteria. 13 of them spent ` 60 each and the 14th person spent ` 130 more than the average
expenditure of all. Find the total money spent by them. 1) ` 940 55.
2) ` 920
3) ` 980
4) ` 910
5) ` 960
Anshul borrowed ` 24800 from Deepak at 8% p.a. simple interest for 4 years. He then added some more money to the borrowed sum and lent it to Rajeev for the same period at 10% p.a. If Anshul gains ` 5184 in the whole transaction, how much money did he add from his side? 1) ` 8000
2) ` 8500
3) ` 7500
4) ` 9000
5) ` 7000
56. If the cost price of 15 articles be equal to the selling price of 12 articles, then find the profit percent in the transaction? 1) 21% 57.
2) 25%
3) 29%
4) 24%
5) 27%
Divya decided to donate 9% of her salary to an orphanage. On the day of donation, she changed her mind and donated ` 12960, which was 90% of what she had decided earlier. How much is Divya's salary? 1) ` 1,60,000
58.
2) ` 1,60,500
3) ` 1,65,500
4) ` 1,50,000
5) ` 1,48,500
620 litres of a mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 5: 3. How much water is to be added to get a new mixture containing milk and water in the ratio 5 : 4? 1) 74.5 ltr
2) 76.5 ltr
3) 76 ltr
4) 77.5 ltr
59. A, B and C contract a work for ` 6600. Together A and B supposed to do 1) ` 2200 60.
2) ` 1000
3) ` 800
5) 74 ltr
9 of the work, how much does C get? 11
4) ` 1200
5) ` 1100
The ratio of two numbers is 5 : 6. If each number be increased by 16, the ratio becomes 9 : 10. Find the numbers. 1) 25, 30
2) 15, 18
SBIPO-PT-002
3) 30, 36
4) 20, 24
5) 30, 35
11
BSC Academy Directions (Q. 61–65) : Read the pie–chart carefully and answer the questions. The following table shows the FDI in Indian states during the year 2013–2014. States:
Tamil Nadu
FDI (in ` crore)
680
Telangana
Maharashtra
650
750
Kerala 620
Delhi
UP
580
520
The following pie–chart shows the investment in different sectors
Others, 11% Insurance, 18% Entertainment, 19%
Shipping, 26%
61.
4) 60% more
5) 66 % more
2) 65%
3) 70%
4) 74%
5) 62%
2) 674
3) 686
4) 688
5) 680
What is the ratio of the investment in Banking sector in Tamil Nadu to the Entertainment sector in UP? 1) 201: 247
65.
3) 60% less
The total investment in Insurance sector by these states is (in ` crore). 1) 684
64.
2) 65% less
FDI in Maharashtra in Transport sector is approximately what per cent of that in Delhi in Shipping sector? 1) 72%
63.
Banking, 12%
FDI in Entertainment sector in Kerela is approximately what percent more/less than that in Telangana in other sectors? 1) 65% more
62.
Transport, 14%
2) 203 : 247
3) 202 : 247
4) 202 : 245
5) 204 : 247
In which of the following pairs of states the ratio of investment in Transport sector is 13 : 15? 1) Telangana and Maharashtra 4) Tamil Nadu and Maharashra
SBIPO-PT-002
2) UP and Kerela
3) Delhi and Tamil Nadu 5) UP and Telengana
13
BSC Academy Test III Reasoning Ability 66.
In a certain code 'mystery of better life' is written as '53 97 79 21', ' life is a mystery' is written as '24 27 79 53'
and 'she is playing better' is written as '24 21 12 22'. How is 'life' written in that code language? 1) 97
2) 21
3) 22
4) 52
5) Data Inadequate
67.
If '÷' means '+'; '–' means '×'; '×' means '÷' and '+' means '–'; then
68.
111 – 21 ÷ 7 × 2 + 4 – 127 = ? 3652 3653 3316 1) 3651 2) 3215 3) 4) 5) 5 9 2 2 2 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 'BODYGUARD', each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English Alphabet? 1) Two
69.
2) Three
3) Four
4) One
5) Five
Each of the questions below consists a question and two statements numbered I and II are given. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statement and given answer. 1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question. While the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. 2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. 3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. 4) If the data in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. 5) If the data in both the statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question. Six person Adil, Berth, Chandani, Donna, Erik and Frank were playing a game of cards. Who won the game? I. Adil's mother, father and aunt were in a group in which there were two male. Berth, the father of Adil, got more points than his wife. Donna got more points than Erik but less than Frank. Mother of Adil got more points than Frank but could not win the game. II. Nephew of Erik got the lowest points.
70.
Which of the following expression will be true if the expression A < B C D = E > T is definitely true? 1. B E
2. C > A
3. C T
4. B T
5. Other than given options
Directions ( Q.71–75) :Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions: Seven participants Amit, Arjun, Deepak, Hari, Gaurav, Nilesh and Pawan from seven different countries, viz. Algeria, Australia, Belize, Brazil, Bulgaria, Cuba and Fiji, but not necessary in the same order, participate in a dance competition. All of them perform seven different dance style, viz Chhau, Bush, Brukdown, Samba, Horo, Rumba and Gavotte.
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15
BSC Academy The one who perform Brukdown does not belong to Bulgaria. Arjun is from Belize and does not perform Samba. The one who is from Brazil performs Chhau. The one who is from Australia performs neither Samba nor Horo. Amit is from Fiji. Gaurav is from Algeria and perform Rumba dance. Deepak performs Gavotte but he is neither from Cuba nor from Bulgaria. Hari perform Bush and Pawan performs Brukdown. 71.
Who performs Samba? 1) Nilesh
72.
2) Pawan
3) Gaurav
4)Amit
1.Algeria – Bush
2. Bulgaria – Horo
3. Cuba – Brukdown
4. Cuba – Rumba
5. Other than given options
5) Deepak
Which of the following combination is true?
73. Arjun performs which of the following dance? 1) Samba 74.
3) Horo
4) Rumba
5) Gavotte
3) Amit
4) Pawan
5) Hari
Who is from Australia? 1) Nilesh
75.
2) Chhau
2) Deepak
Nilesh is from which country? 1) Algeria
2) Belize
4) Brazil
5) Cannot be determined
3) Fiji
Direction (Q. 76–81) : In each questions given below two/three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seen to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and decide which logically follows from the two/ three given statement disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer 1) If only conclusion I follows. 2) If only conclusion II follows. 3) If either conclusion I or II follows. 4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. 5) If both conclusions I and II follow. 76.
Statements: Some boys are girls.
All desks are girls.
Conclusions: I. All boys being desks is a possibility.
II. No desk is a boy.
(77–78): Statements: Some questions are answers. 77.
Conclusions: I. Some puzzles are answers.
SBIPO-PT-002
All questions are puzzles.
No puzzle is a problem. II. No question is a problem.
17
BSC Academy 78.
Conclusions: I. All problems being answer is a possibility. II. That some answers are not problem is a possibility.
(79–80): Statements: No second is an hour.
Some minutes are time.
All hours are minute.
79.
Conclusions: I. All hours are time.
II. Some minutes being second is a possibility.
80.
Conclusions: I. All seconds being minute is a possibility.
II. All minutes being second is a possibility.
81.
Statements: Some sweets are drinks.
Some drinks are not solids.
Conclusions: I. Some sweets are not solid.
All liquid are sweets.
II. All liquids are drinks.
Directions (Q. 82-86): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. When a word and number arrangement is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digit numbers.) Input : 43 nobody chase 32 45 desk top feast 67 82 97 guess oracle 29 Step I: 43 nobody chase 32 45 desk feast 67 82 97 guess oracle top 29 Step II: 43 nobody chase 45 desk feast 67 82 97 guess top 29 oracle 32 Step III: chase 45 desk feast 67 82 97 guess top 29 oracle 32 nobody 43 Step IV: chase desk feast 67 82 97 top 29 oracle 32 nobody 43 guess 45 Step V: chase desk 82 97 top 29 oracle 32 nobody 43 guess 45 feast 67 Step VI: chase 97 top 29 oracle 37 nobody 43 guess 45 feast 67 desk 82 Step VII: top 29 oracle 37 nobody 43 guess 45 feast 67 desk 82 chase 97 And step VII is the last step of the above arrangement. As per the rules followed in the step, find out the appropriate step for the given input. Input: 35 quant hear cute 50 65 98 silent giant 71 82 19 oliver melody 82. How many steps will be required to complete the given input? 1) Five
2) Six
3) Seven
4) Eight
5) Four
83. Which of the following is the first element from the left end of step VI? 1) 19 84.
2) silent
3) melody
4) cute
5) oliver
What is the position of 'melody' in the last step but one? 1) Seventh from right 2) Second from left
3) Sixth from right
4) Fourth from right
5) Other than given options 85. Which element is fourth to the right of 'silent' in step V? 1) 35
2) cute
SBIPO-PT-002
3) 98
4) quant
5) oliver
19
BSC Academy 86.
Which of the following is step IV of the given input? 1) hear cute 65 98 giant 71 82 melody silent 19 quant 35 oliver 50. 2) hear cute 98 65 giant 71 82 silent 19 quant 35 oliver 50 melody . 3) hear cute quant 82 50 giant 35 19 65 98 silent 71 oliver melody. 4) hear cute 98 giant 71 82 silent 19 quant 35 oliver 50 melody 65 5) Other than given options. Directions (Q.87–91): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow. Abhishek, Deepak, Dipika and Vipin are four students of different coaching centres i.e. Lucknow, Delhi, Patna and Cuttack of ABC, and each student belongs to a different state i.e. UP, Uttrakhand, Bihar and Odisha but not necessarily in the same order. ABC arranged Mock–Test series in four test centre, i.e. Banglore, Kolkata, Dehradun and Chennai. All four students appeared for the test series. When the results were declared got first to fourth position in All–India ranking. l The one who appeared at the Banglore test centre got the 4th position in All–India ranking. But he is not Deepak.
The one who appeared at Chennai for the test got the First position. The one who belong to Uttrakhand got the third position, while the one who studied at the Lucknow centre got the second position. l Abhishek and Deepak studied neither at the Lucknow centre nor at Delhi. They appeared for test neither at Kolkata
nor at Dehradun centre. They belong neither to Odisha nor to Uttrakhand. l The one who studied at the Patna centre does not belong to Bihar. The one who belongs to Uttrakhand is not Vipin.
The one who studied in Delhi did not appear for the test at Kolkata centre. The one who belongs to UP did not appear at Banglore centre. 87.
In which of the following Test centre did Dipika appear for the test? 1) Banglore
2) Dehradun
3) Chennai
4) Kolkata
5) Either Chennai or Kolkata 88.
Which of the following combinations is definitely true in respect of the given information? 1) Deepak–2
2) Dipika–4
3) Vipin–3
4) Abhishek–1
5) None is true
4) Can't say
5) Other than given options
4) Vipin
5) Can't say
89. Deepak belongs to which of the following states? 1) UP
2) Bihar
3) Odisha
90. Who got the first positions in All–India ranking? 1) Abhishek 91.
2) Deepak
3) Dipika
Which of the following person belongs to Odisha? 1) Abhishek
2) Deepak
3) Dipika
4) Vipin
5) Either 'Abhishek' or 'Dipika'
SBIPO-PT-002
21
BSC Academy Directions (Q. 92–93): Study the following information carefully and answer the following questions given below: A × B means A is sister of B. A + B means A is mother of B. A – B means A is father of B A ÷ B means A is brother of B. 92.
If W + T ÷ V × S – C, then how is W related to C? 1) Daughter
93.
2) Son
3) Grandmother
4) Grandchild
5) Other than given options
Y is daughter of Z. Y and U are siblings. U is father of A. B is father of C. B and Y are couples. What is the relation between C and U? 1) Niece
2) Nephew
4) Other than given options
5) Can't be determined
3) Daughter
94. There are chances of hike in the crude–oil tariff soon. This proposal will bring about a sharp increase for the industrial consumers and marginal increase for the domestic consumers. What is the conclusion of the given paragraph? 1) At present, there is a disparity in the petrol/diesel tariff between domestic and industrial consumers. 2) Industrial consumers consume more oil in comparison with individual/ domestic consumers. 3) After this hike, petroleum companies will start to get increase in profit. 4) If this proposal is accepted, then industrial output will get positively affected. 5) Other than given options 95.
"ASSOCHAM establishes GLOBAL INVESTORS' INDIA FORUM"—An advertisement launched by Indian government. Which of the following can be an assumption of the advertisement? 1) Other countries will also organise this kind of forum. 2) These seminars are just gimmick by the advertiser to attract globally investment interesting countries. 3) There will be countries who will respond to this kind of forums. 4) The advertisement many a time turns out to be exaggerated. 5) None of these Directions (Q. 96–100) : Following are the criteria for selection of an officer in ITC. The candidate must: (i) have passed HSC examination in first class with at least 60% marks. (ii) have passed graduation degree in any discipline with at least 55% marks. (iii) have completed a certificate/diploma/degree course in Computer Science. (iv) be not less than 21 years or more than 30 years of age as on 01.07.2014
SBIPO-PT-002
23
BSC Academy If a candidate satisfies all the above mentioned criteria except– (a) at (ii) above but is a postgraduate, the case may be referred to the Executive Director (ED). (b) at (iii) above but studied Computer Science as one of subjects of curriculum, the case may be referred to the Vice President (VP). In each of the following question below, information of one candidate is given. You have to take one of the following five decisions based on the information provided and the criteria and conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.07.2014. You have to indicate your decision by making to each question as follows: Give answer 1) if the case is to be referred to ED. 2) if the case is to be referred to VP. 3) if the candidate is to be selected. 4) if the candidate is not selected. 5) if the information is inadequate to take a decision. 96.
Ruhi is B.Com graduate passed in second class with 56% marks. She had passed HSC in second class with 59% marks. She has also completed a Computer diploma with 56% marks. Her date of birth is 11.05.1988.
97.
Rohit is Bsc with Computer science passed in second class with 58% marks. He had passed HSC examination in first class with 76% marks. He completed 25 years of age in December 2013.
98.
Joseph has passed BMS degree examination in second class with 58% marks and HSC in first class with 65% marks. He has completed a diploma in Computer Science. He completed 25 years of age in November 2013.
99.
Karthik is a BA passed with 63% marks. He had passed HSC examination with 69% marks. He has also completed a certificate course in Computer Science with 'A' grade. Her date of birth is 23.09.1990.
100. Osheen is a science graduate passed in 2012 with 47% at the age of 22 years. She has scored 64% marks in HSC. She has also passed MSC with 58% marks. She has done a certificate course in Computers.
SBIPO-PT-002
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BSC Academy (BANKING SERVICES CHRONICLE)
SBIPO-PT-003 (Based on SBI PO (PRE) latest pattern for COMMON WRITTEN EXAM) No. of Questions : 100
Time : 1 hr
Name of Student : ____________________________
Father’s Name: ______________________________
Centre : _____________________________________
Batch No.: ___________________________________
Read the directions (given below) carefully. 1. 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6. 7.
8.
9.
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2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
This Booklet contains five tests as follows : Test I - English Language Q.Nos. 1–30 Test II - Quantitative Aptitude Q.Nos. 31–65 Test III - Reasoning Q.Nos. 66–100 You will be given an aggregate time of 1:00 hours to answer all the three tests. The tests are not separately timed. You may distribute the time as you please but remember that to qualify in the written test as a whole you have to qualify on each of the three tests separately. Tests of Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude are printed in both Hindi and English. The Hindi version is printed on the left hand side page and the English version on the right hand side page. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by you, one-fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. Rough work, if you want to do any, is to be done in this booklet itself and not on the answersheet. For this purpose use the empty space in the margin or anywhere else you find in this booklet. Do not use any other paper. Indicate your answers on the separate answersheet (given at the end of the booklet), using HB Pencil. Follow the instructions given on the answersheet for indicating your answers. Your answersheet contains answer-spaces for answering 100 questions. Use 100 answer spaces for answering the 100 questions given in this booklet. Do not open the booklet Until you are told to do so. When the instruction for opening the booklet is given, do not try to remove the wire staples at the left. Insert the blunt end of your pencil under the sticker and tear it to open the booklet. Immediately after opening the booklet, verify that all the pages containing questions from 1 to 100 are properly printed in your booklet and then begin answering the test. In case the booklet is defective get it replaced by another test booklet.
BSC Academy Test I English Language
1) amazing
2) plausible
3) tenable
4) persuasive
5) rational
2.
1) around
2) in
3) of
4) throughout
5) with
3.
1) explicit
2) distinct
3) obscure
4) profound
5) incisive
4.
1) excavated
2) indented
3) deep
4) root
5) carved
5.
1) niche
2) grave
3) chase
4) model
5) profound
6.
1) especial
2) tremendous
3) pleasant
4) tarnish
5) varied
7.
1) being
2) taking
3) having
4) liking
5) using
8.
1) use
2) fetus
3) combination
4) introduction
5) collection
9.
1) sample
2) composite
3) sound
4) cipher
5) ceramic
2) realm
3) need
4) liking
5) fondness
Ac
ad
1.
em y
Directions (Q. 1–10) : In the following passage some of the words have been left out each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraphs meaningfully complete. The culture of India is one of the oldest and unique. In India is 1 cultural diversity 2 the country. The South, North, and Northeast have own 3 cultures and almost every state has 4 out its own cultural 5. There is hardly any cultural in the world that is as 6 and unique as India. India is a vast country, 7 variety of geographical features and climatic conditions. India is home to some of the most ancient civilzations, including four major world religions, Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and Sikhism. A 8 of these factors has resulted into exclusive culture-Indian culture. India culture is a 9 mixture of varying styles and influences. In the matter of cuisine. For instance, the North and the South are totally different. Festivals in India are characterized by colour, gaiety, enthusiasm, prayers and rituals. In the 10 of music, there are varieties of folk, popular, pop and classical music. The classical tradition of music in India includes the Carnatic and the Hindustani music.
10. 1) sense
Direction (Q. 11–15) : Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below. (A) However, many of these organisations may be oblivious to the absence of attitudinal change. (B) Teams may be unwilling to unlearn old attitudes, which can make them unequal to the new challenge. (C) In terms of technology and strategy, most organisations rise to this challenging situation and adapt to it.
C
(D) In the life of an organisation, an inflexion point arrives from time to time. (E) They may be carrying over the same attitude to the new situation to the detriment of the organisation and their personal growth. (F) Hardly pushed before, the employees may be in denial. 11. Which of the following would be the 'Fourth' sentence after rearrangement? 2) A
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1) B
3) C
4) E
5) D
12. Which of the following would be the 'Second' sentence after rearrangement? 1) E
2) B
3) C
4) A
5) D
13. Which of the following would be the 'Last' sentence after rearrangement? 1) C
2) E
3) D
4) B
5) A
14. Which of the following would be the 'First' sentence after rearrangement? 1) A
2
2) C
3) B
4) E
5) D
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BSC Academy 15. Which of the following would be the 'Third' sentence after rearrangement? 1) D
2) B
3) E
4) A
5) C
16. Suraj can play fastly and loose with anyone.
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Directions (Q. 16 –20): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and 'No correction is required' mark 5) as the answer.
1) fast and loose
2) lose and fast
4) fairly and highly
5) No correction required
17. From the eye this is an illegal project. 1) on the eyes
2) in the eyes of law
4) from the eyes of law
5) No correction required
18. You are aware of a tiny fraction with the thinking. 2) by the thinking
4) to thinking
5) No correction required
19. We'll keep it safe for you.
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1) to the thoughts
1) safe to you
2) safing for you
4) safe for the sake of you
5) No correction required
1) return home 4) return back in home
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20. You can take it back after you return back home.
2) return back to home 5) No correction required
3) fastly and lovingly
3) on the eyes of law
3) of the thinking
3) save to you
3) returning back in home
Directions (Q. 21–25) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error' the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
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C
21. The detail proposal will be presented 1) / to the Finance Ministry, 2)/ on the utilisation 3)/ of the fund shortly. 4)/ No error 5) 22. The study has developed a framework 1)/ for assessing energy consumed 2)/ during production of building materials, 3)/ in an attempt to quantifying energy expenditures. 4)/ No error 5) 23. The award is given to national recognised 1)/ selected industrial units which have made systematic and serious attempts 2)/for efficient utilisation 3)/ and conservation of energy. 4)/ No error 5) 24. Buying a smart device 1)/ sometimes comes with a guilt factor 2)/attached the more you charge 3)/the battery, the guiltier you feel. 4)/ No error 5) 25. National Innovation Foundation provide1)/ institutional support to grassroots innovators 2)/ and outstanding traditional knowledge holders3)/ from the unorganized sector of the society. 4)/ No error 5) Directions (Q. 26 -30) : Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. With launch of the ‘Make in India’ initiative, the Prime Minister of India, aims to give global recognition to the Indian economy and also place India on the world map as a manufacturing hub. India has also set for itself an ambitious target of increasing the contribution of manufacturing output to 25 per cent of gross domestic product (GDP) by 2025, from 16 per cent currently. India’s economy is expected to grow at 7.4 per cent in 2014-15 as per a Government forecast. According to a new formula which uses 2011-12 as the new ‘base year’, the revised statistics showed inflation-adjusted economic growth rate for October-December 2014 at 7.5 per cent, making India the fastest growing major economy in the world. In a bid to push the
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3
BSC Academy
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‘Make in India’ initiative to the global level, Prime Minister of India, plans to pitch India as a manufacturing destination at the World International Fair in Germany’s Hanover. PM is likely to showcase India as a business friendly destination to attract foreign businesses to invest and manufacture in the country. The Government of India has an ambitious plan to locally manufacture as many as 181 products. The move could help infrastructure sectors such as power, oil and gas, and automobile manufacturing that require large capital expenditure and revive the Rs 1.85 trillion Indian capital goods business. India is an attractive hub for foreign investments in manufacturing sector. Several mobile phone, luxury and automobile brands, among others, have set up or are looking to establish their manufacturing bases in the country. With impetus on developing industrial corridors and smart cities, the government aims to ensure holistic development of the nation. The corridors would further assist in integrating, monitoring and developing a conducive environment for the industrial development and will promote advance practices in manufacturing.
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26. According to the passage, which of the following is a reason for introducing India as a business friendly destination? 1) The government has based its approach on transforming manufacturing under its "Make in India" initiative. 2) The current establishment will try to strengthen import activities. 3) An ease in the process will attract 100% FDI. 4) Both 2 and 3 5) Other than given options.
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27. The author's main objective in writing the passage is– 1) To throw light on the changes the government has made in FDI limits in other sectors. 2) "Make in India" campaign rolling out a red carpet to attract industrialists to make India a global manufacturing hub. 3) To convince more people for "Make in India" project. 4) To increase only awareness. 5) Other than given options. 28. According to the author, which of the following is NOT TRUE about 'Make in India' project? 1) Government intended to boost the domestic manufacturing industry. 2) Government wants to attract foreign investors to invest into the Indian economy. 3) The Prime Minister promised that his administration would aid the investors by making India a pleasant experience. 4) All of the above 5) Other than given options.
PITCH 1) Erect
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29. Which of the following is most SIMILAR in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage? 2) Even
3) Level
4) Steep
5) Judge
30. Which of the following is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage? 2) Incitation
3) Urge
4) Push
5) Discouragement
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IMPETUS 1) Impulse
4
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BSC Academy Test II Quantitative Aptitude
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Directions (Q. 31–34): In each of these questions, two equations numbered I and II with variables x and y are given. You have to solve both the equations to find the value of x and y. Give answer 1) if x >y
2) if x > y
4) if x
5) if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be determined.
31. I. x2 + x – 20 = 0 II. y2 + 13y + 40 = 0 32. I. x2 – 11x + 30 = 0 II. y2 – 13y + 40 = 0 33. I. x2 + 10x + 25 = 0
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II. 5y2 – 2 15 y + 9 = 0
3) if x
34. I. 10x2 – 29x – 21 = 0 II. y2 + 13y – 68 = 0
Directions (Q. 35–37): What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following number series? 362, 452, 550, 656, ? 1) 770 36.
2) 772
25, 28, 26, ?, 27, 30 1) 28
37.
2) 32
9, 12, 30, 99, ? 1) 406
2) 418
3) 670
4) 870
5) 790
3) 34
4) 29
5) 36
3) 408
4) 416
5) 424
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35.
Directions (Q. 38–40): What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 168.781 – 112.412 – 8.409 – 1.150 = ? 1) 44.81 39.
27 3
1) 1431
2) 46.81
3) 40.81
4) 47.81
5) 46.61
3) 1421
4) 1441
5) 1231
3) 13.45
4) 9.45
5) 10.45
27 27 27 26 27 – 159 27 = ?
2) 1331
8.5% of 160 – 0.42% of 750 = ?
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40.
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38.
1) 11.45
2) 12.45
Directions (Q. 41–42): What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 41.
4201 ÷ 59.998 × 29.88 = ? × 21.145 1) 90
42.
2) 80
3) 85
4) 100
5) 95
3) 31200
4) 21200
5) 30600
959.98 × 780.01 ÷ 23.99 = ? 1) 30200
2) 30800
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BSC Academy 43.
A man bought a mobile and a laptop for ` 78000. He sold the mobile at a gain of 25% and the laptop at a loss of 15%, thereby gaining 5% on the whole. Find the cost price of mobile.
44.
2) ` 34000
3) ` 30000
4) ` 38000
5) ` 32000
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1) ` 39000
In a regular week, there are 6 working days and for each day the working hours are 8. A man gets ` 40 per hour for regular work and ` 45 per hour for overtime. If he earns ` 10,500 in 5 weeks, then how many hours does he work for? 1) 220
45.
2) 240
3) 260
4) 210
5) 280
A class has an equal number of boys and girls. Ten girls left the class to practice for music, leaving thrice as many boys as girls in the classroom. What was the total number of girls and boys present initially in the classroom? 1) 50
46.
2) 40
3) 35
4) 30
5) 38
Surbhi's science test consist of 85 questions from three sections- i.e. A, B and C. 10 questions from section A, 30
questions from section B and 45 question from section C. Although, she answered 70% of section A, 50% of section B
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and 60% of section C correctly. She did not pass the test because she got less than 60% of the total marks. How many more questions she would have to answer correctly to earn 60% of the marks which is passing grade? 1) 4 47.
2) 2
3) 5
4) 6
5) 8
A house owner wants to get his house painted. He is told that this would require 45 kg of paint. Allowing for 6.25% wastage and assuming that the paint is available in 4 kg tins, the number of tins required for painting the house? 2) 11
3) 14
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1) 18
4) 13
5) 12
48. One litre of water is evaporated from 8 litre solution containing 5% sugar. The percentage of sugar in the remaining solution is: 1) 5.71% 49.
2) 6.12%
3) 5%
4) 7.17%
5) 6%
Two men together start a journey in the same direction. They travel 12 and 20 km/day respectively. After travelling for 8 days the man travelling at 12 km/day doubles his speed and both of them finish the distance in the same time. Find the number of days taken by them to reach the destination. 1) 28 days
3) 24 days
4) 30 days
5) 22 days
Divide ` 12615 between P and Q so that P's share at the end of 6 years may equal to Q's share at the end of 8 years,
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50.
2) 26 days
compound interest being 5%. 1) ` 6015, ` 6600 51.
2) ` 6615, ` 6000
3) ` 7615, ` 5000
4) ` 6215, ` 6400
5) ` 6415, ` 6200
Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 24 min and 27 min respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously, after
BS
how much time should B be closed so that the tank is full in 16 minutes? 1) 8 min
52.
2) 10 min
3) 12 min
4) 9 min
5) 14 min
A man can row at a speed of 8 km/hr in still water to a certain upstream point and back to the starting point in a river which flows at 4 km/hr. Find average speed for total journey. 1) 5 km/hr
53.
2) 6.5 km/hr
3) 4.5 km/hr
4) 7 km/hr
5) 6 km/hr
In how many ways 3 teacher and 3 students seated in a row so that they sits alternatively? 1) 36
2) 65
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3) 75
4) 48
5) 72
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BSC Academy (54-55) : From a pack of 52 cards, 3 cards are drawn at random. What is the probability that it has honour cards of red suit? 1) 55.
14 5525
2)
14 5515
3)
13 5525
12 5515
5)
12 5525
11 1105
5)
18 1105
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54.
4)
What is the probability that it has a card having the number a multiple of 3? 1)
14 1005
2)
11 1005
3)
14 1105
4)
56.
How many words can be formed with the letters of the word 'COMPONENTS' without changing the relative order of the vowels and consonants? 1) 2420 2) 7540 3) 2520 4) 7560 5) 7240
57.
A bag contains 4 black balls, 5 red balls and 6 blue balls. 2 balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that both the balls drawn are of same colour? 31 105
2)
32 105
3)
31 107
4)
38 107
5)
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1)
34 105
Directions (Q. 58–62): Study the following pie-charts carefully and answer the questions given below: Number of students studying in different colleges in the year 2013 and 2014 from state 'A' Total students = 25,000 2013
C6 15%
C1 17%
C5 12%
C2 20%
C4 10%
59.
C5 15% C4 8%
C1 16% C2 22%
C3 20%
In which of the following colleges was the per cent increase in the number of students the minimum in 2014 from 2013? 2) C6
3) C4
4) C7
5) C1
In which college there was decrease in the number of students from 2013 to 2014? 1) C6
61.
C6 13%
What was the percentage increase in the number of students in college C5 in the year 2014 as compared to the year 2013? 1) 45% 2) 40% 3) 48% 4) 50% 5) 42% 1) C2
60.
C7 6%
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C3 21%
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58.
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C7 5%
Total students = 30,000 2014
2) C1
3) C4
4) C2
5) C3
In the year 2013, the number of students studying in college C1 and C2 together is approximately what percent of the number of students studying in these colleges together in 2014? 1) 78%
2) 75%
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3) 72%
4) 81%
5) 88%
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BSC Academy 62.
What was the ratio of the number of students studying in college C6 in year 2013 to that in 2014 in the same college? 1) 25 : 26
2) 25 : 27
3) 23 : 26
4) 22 : 27
5) 23 : 25
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Directions (Q. 63–65): Each question below is followed by two statements A and B. You have to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of mathematics to choose between the possible answers. Give answer: 1) if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement B alone is not sufficient. 2) if the statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement A alone is not sufficient. 3) if the both statement A and B together are needed to answer the question.
4) if either the statement A alone or B alone is sufficient to answer the question.
5) if you cannot get the answer from the statements A and B together, but needed even more data. 63.
What is the perimeter of a semicircle?
B. Area of rectangle is 234 cm2. 64.
What is the ratio of two number N1 and N2? A. 30% of N1 is 40% of 90. B. 20% of N2 is 36% of 50. What are the marks scored by Atul in Science?
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65.
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A. The radius of the semi-circle is half of the length of the rectangle.
A. Marks scored by Atul in Science is 40% of the marks obtained by him in Maths i.e 80.
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C
B. Marks scored by Atul in Science and English is 180.
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BSC Academy Test III Reasoning Ability In a certain code language 'min fin bin gin' means 'trains are always late' ; 'gin din cin hin' means 'drivers were always
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66.
punished', 'bin cin vin rin' means 'drivers stopped all trains' and 'din kin fin vin' means 'all passengers were late'. Then, how 'drivers were late' can be written in that code language? 1) min cin din
2) fin din gin
3) fin cin din
4) gin hin min
(67-68): In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, $, % and
are used with the meaning as indicating below..
'P © Q' means P is not smaller than Q. 'P @ Q' means P is neither greater nor smaller than Q. 'P
5) Other than given options
Q' means P is not greater than Q.
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'P $ Q' means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q. 'P % Q' means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.
68.
Statements: V @ W,
W % X,
X
Conclusions: I. Z $ X
II. Y ©V
III. W % Y
Y$ Z
IV. Y @ W
1) Only I and II are true.
2) Only II is true.
4) None is true.
5) Only III and IV are true.
Statements: K © L,
L % O,
O @ M,
M
Conclusions: I. N © O
II. M $ L
III. K N
IV. L @ N
1) Only II is true.
3) Only III is true.
N
2) Only I and II are true.
4) Either I or II is true. 69.
Y,,
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67.
3) Only I is true.
5) Other than given options.
Starting from a point 'S' Brajesh walked 25m towards South. He turned to his left and walked 50m. He then again turned to his left and walked 25 m. He again turned to his left and walked 60 m and reached point 'T'. How far Brajesh is from point 'S' and in which direction?
70.
2) 15 m, North
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1) 25 m, South
3) 20 m, East
4) 15 m, West
5) 10 m, West
Four of the following five alternatives are same in a certain way and so form a group. Find the odd one that does not belong to the group. 1) MrW
2) ChN
3) KpU
4) BgL
5) InS
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Directions (Q. 71–75): In each question given below two/three statements are followed by two/three conclusions numbered I, II or/and III. You have to take the all given statements to be true even if they seen to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the statements and decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from the three given statement disregarding commonly known facts. 71. Statements: All rings are fingers.
Some ears are fingers.
All ears are necklaces.
Conclusions: I. Some necklaces are fingers. II. Some necklaces are rings. 1) None follows.
2) Only I follows.
4) Both I and II follow.
5) Neither I nor II follow.
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3) Only II follows.
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BSC Academy Statements: Some flowers are bins. Conclusions: I. Some sticks are bins. 1) Only II follows 4) Only I and III follows.
All bins are handles. II. Some handles are flowers. 2) Only III follows. 5) All I, II and III follows.
(73-74) :
74.
75.
Statements: Some dews are drops.
All drops are stones.
Conclusions: I. Atleast some dews are stones.
No lines is a square. II. No line is a circle. 3) Either I or II follows.
II. Some lines are circles. 3) Either I or II follows.
II. Some stones are drops.
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73.
Statements: Some squares are circles. No circle is a triangle. Conclusions: I. No triangle is a square. 1) Only I follows. 2) Only II follows. 4) Neither I nor II follows. 5) Both I and II follow. Conclusions: I. All squares can never be triangles. 1) Only I follows. 2) Only II follows. 4) Neither I nor II follows. 5) Both I and II follow.
All handles are stick. III. Some sticks are flowers. 3) Only I and II follows.
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72.
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1) Only I follows. 2) Only II follows. 3) Either I or II follows. 4) Neither I nor II follows. 5) Both I and II follow. Directions (Q. 76–80): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions. A word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and its rearrangement. (All the number is two digit numbers): Input: ray 74 took mean 97 84 65 72 ever date 67
Step I: date ray 74 took mean 84 65 72 ever 67 97
Step II: date ever ray 74 took mean 65 72 67 97 84
Step III: date ever mean ray took 65 72 67 97 84 74 Step IV: date ever mean ray took 65 67 97 84 74 72 Step V: date ever mean ray took 65 97 84 74 72 67
Step VI: date ever mean ray took 97 84 74 72 67 65
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And step VI is the last step of the above arrangement. As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input. Input: app is ox 32 87 ever shoe 72 69 96 66 76.
Which of the following would be the last but one step?
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1) is ox 32 app 87 ever shoe 72 69 96 66 2) app ever is ox shoe 32 96 72 87 69 66 3) app ever is ox shoe 32 66 96 87 72 69 4) app is ox shoe 32 ever 66 96 87 69 72 5) Other than given options
77. 78.
Which word/number would be at the seventh position from the left in step IV? 1) ever 2) app 3) 66 4) is
5) ox
Which word/number would be in the middle in step II of the above input? 1) app 2) 96 3) ox 4) 69
5) 32
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BSC Academy
80.
Which of the following words/numbers would be third to the left of '32' in step V? 1) is 2) ever 3) ox 4) shoe
5) 32
How many steps will be required to complete the above input? 1) Four 2) Five 3) Six
5) Eight
4) Seven
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79.
Directions (Q. 81-85): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and X are eight friends sitting around a circular table facing the centre. P sits second to the left of S, who is third to the left of T. R sits third to the right of V, who is not immediate neighbour of T. X sits third to the right of Q, who sits second to the right of V. 81. Who sits between R and S? 1) Only Q
2) Only V
3) Only V and T
82. Who sits second to the right of T? 1) Q 4) R
2) U
4) Only R and P
5) Only T 3) V
5) Other than given options
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83. What is the position of P with respect to X? 1) Third to the left 2) Second to the left 4) Second to the right 5) Fourth to the right
3) Third to the right
84. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and based upon their sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1) SQ 2) TX 3) SP 4) QT 5)VQ 85. Which of the following pairs has the second person sitting to the immediate right of the first person? 2) TX 5) Other than given options
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1) SQ 4) VS
3) UP
Directions (Q. 86–89): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statement and give answer. 1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. 2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. 3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
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4) if the data in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. 5) if the data in both the statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 86. What is the value of a13? I. a is a prime number.
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II. a is an even number.
87. What is the value of z? 3x I. =2 II. x = 6 – 4z 9 – 6z
88. In which direction is Rahul facing? I. If Karan who is currently facing East, turns 90° towards his right, he would face a direction exactly opposite to the direction which Rahul is facing. II. If Priya, who is currently facing South, turns left and walks 1m and turns left again, she would face the same direction of Rahul.
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BSC Academy 89. How is Y related to N? I. Y is mother of F. J is married to T. Z is daughter of J. T is brother of F.
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II. Y is married to U. U is father of F. F is married to L. F is uncle of N. 90. If B > X and A > D are definitely true, what will come in the place of blank spaces in the given expression? W = X __ Y < A __ B __ C > D 1) < , = , > 2) > , = , > 3) < , = , > 4) > , = , > 5) Other than given options Directions (Q. 91–95): Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follow.
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Seven friends, namely P, Q, R, S, T, V and X, like different movies, namely Avengers, Swat, Troy, Rush, Heat, Constantine, and Congo, but not necessarily in the same order. Each friend also has a presentation on topics of different subject, namely Psychology, Spanish, Geology, Topology, Statistics, Computer and Polity but not necessarily in the same order. V has a presentation on Psychology and likes neither Troy nor Rush. The one who likes Avengers has a presentation on Spanish. P likes Swat and has a presentation neither on Topology nor on statistics. The one who likes Congo has a presentation on Polity. Q has presentation on Computer and does not like Rush. The one who like Rush does not have a presentation on Statistics. S likes Heat. X does not have a presentation on Spanish and does not like Rush. T does not like Rush. 91. On which of the following subject does T have a presentation? 1) Statistics 4) Spanish
4) Q – Troy 93.
5) T – Swat
Which of the following combination is definitely true? 1) R – Statistics 2) X – Spanish 4) T – Spanish
94.
3) P – Topology
5) All the given combinations are definitely correct
Which of the following combination of movie and subject is definitely correct with respect to R? 1) Rush - Statistics 2) Constantine - Topology 3) Rush - Topology
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4) Avengers - Spanish 95.
3) Polity
Four of the following five form a group as per the given arrangement. Which of the following does not belong to that group? 1) X – Congo 2) V – Constantine 3) R – Rush
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92.
2) Geology 5) Topology
5) Other than given options
Which of the following movies does V like? 1) Constantine 4) Swat
2) Congo
3) Heat
5) Rush
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Directions (Q. 96–97): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumption numbered I and II. (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted). You have to consider the statement and the following assumption and decide which of the assumption is implicit in the statement. Give answer 1. If only assumption I is implicit.
2. If only assumption II is implicit. 3. If either assumption I or assumption II is implicit. 4. If neither assumption I nor assumption II is implicit. 5. If both assumption I and II are implicit.
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21
BSC Academy Statement : A very large number of people stood in the queue for buying tickets for the rock concert to be made in the city next day. Assumption: I. No other rock concert is going to happen in next six months.
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96.
II. Majority of those who stood in the queue may be able to get ticket for the rock concert. 97.
Statement : The highway police authority put up large board at regular interval prohibiting people to drink and drive. Assumptions: I. Most of the motorists may drive vehicles within the law and prohibit from mixing drinking and driving together. II. Majority generally ignore such cautions.
Directions (Q. 98–100): Following question are based on the five 3-digit number given below:
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519 328 746 495 837 98.
If half of the second largest number is subtracted from the third largest number, what will be the value? 1) 156 2) 146 3) 213 4) 314 5) 246
99.
If the position of first and the third digits in each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the second digit of the lowest number? 1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 9 5) 3
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100. If the position of all the digits in each of the numbers are interchanged i.e. first becomes second, second become third and third becomes first, which of the number becomes the highest number? 1) 378 2) 495 3) 837 4) 746 5) 519
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23
BSC Academy (BANKING SERVICES CHRONICLE)
SBIPO-PT-004 (Based on SBI PO (PRE) latest pattern for COMMON WRITTEN EXAM) No. of Questions : 100
Time : 1 hr
Name of Student : ____________________________
Father’s Name: ______________________________
Centre : _____________________________________
Batch No.: ___________________________________
Read the directions (given below) carefully. 1. 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6. 7.
8.
9.
bl i q fLr dkesafuEufyf[ kr i ka p i z'ukofy; kagS a% i z'ukoyhI - va xzst hHkk"kk i z-Ø1–30 i z'ukoyhII - l a [ ; kRed vfHk; ksX; r k i z-Ø31–65 i z'ukoyhIII - r dZ ' kfDr i z-Ø- 66–100 bu pkj i z'ukofy; ksadsmÙkj nsusdsfy, vki dksdq y 1:00 ?ka Vsdk l e; fn; kt k, xkAi z'ukofy; ksadsfy, vyx&vyx l e; ughagS A vki vi uhbPNkdsvuq l kj l e; dkl a foHkkt u dj l dr sgS a ] i ja rq vki dksLej .k j [ kuk pkfg, fd bl i j h{kk esal Qy gksusdsfy, vki dksr huksi z'ukofy; ksaesavyx&vyx l Qy gksukvko' ; d gS A r dZ ' kfDr vkS j la [ ; kRed vfHk; ksX; r k dh i z'ukofy; kafgUnh vkS j va xzst hnksuksaHkk"kkvksaesaNi hgq bZgS AfgUnh: i kUrj ck, ar j Q dsi Uus a i j vkS j va xzst hnkfgusr j Q dsi Uusi j Ni sgq , gS a A vxj vki xyr mÙkj nsa xsr ksna MLo: i vki dsva d ksaesadVkS r hdh t k, xhA , sl sfdl hHkhi z'u dsfu/kkZ fj r va d ksaesal s]ft l dk vki us xyr mÙkj fn; k gS ] na M ds: i esa, d&pkS FkkbZ; k 0.25 va d dkV fy, t k, a xsA j Q dke] ; fn vki dj ukpkgsa ] r ksbl i q fLr dkesaghdj ukpkfg, u fd mÙkj i =ki j Abl gsrqgkf' k, dhvFkokvU; =kmi yC/k[ kkyh t xg dkmi ; ksx dhft , vU; fdl hdkxt dkmi ; ksx u dhft , A vi usmÙkj vyx mÙkj i =ki j , p-ch- i sfUl y dki z;ksx dj n' kkZ b, A mÙkj n' kkZ usdsfy, mÙkj i =kesafn, x, vuq ns'kksadki kyu dhft , A vki dsmÙkj i =k esamÙkj n' kkZ usdsfy, 100 mÙkj LFkku gS a A bl iq fLr dkesafn, gq , 100 i z'uksadsmÙkj nsusdsfy, 100 mÙkj LFkkuksa dk mi ; ksx dhft , A t c r d funsZ ' k u feysbl i q fLr dk dkser [ kksfy, A i q fLr dk [ kksy usdkfunsZ ' kfeyusi j i q fLr dkdsck, afdukj si j yxsgq , eq M+ s gq , r kj fudkyusdki z;kl u dj sa Ai sa fl y dsfi NysHkkx dhenn l snkfguhr j Q yxsLVhdj dksQkM+ dj i q fLr dk dks[ kksy sa A iq fLr dk [ kksy r sght ka p yhft , fd l Hkhi `"B ft u i j i z'u 1 l s 100 gS a ] l ghi zd kj l sNi sgq , gS avkS j fQj i z'ukofy; ksadsmÙkj nsuk i zkj a Hkdhft , A; fn i q fLr dknks"ki w . kZgksr ksbl sml hi z'ukoyhi zk: i Øeka d okyhnw l j hi z'ui q fLr dkl scnyokyhft , A
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
This Booklet contains five tests as follows : Test I - English Language Q.Nos. 1–30 Test II - Quantitative Aptitude Q.Nos. 31–65 Test III - Reasoning Q.Nos. 66–100 You will be given an aggregate time of 1:00 hours to answer all the three tests. The tests are not separately timed. You may distribute the time as you please but remember that to qualify in the written test as a whole you have to qualify on each of the three tests separately. Tests of Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude are printed in both Hindi and English. The Hindi version is printed on the left hand side page and the English version on the right hand side page. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by you, one-fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. Rough work, if you want to do any, is to be done in this booklet itself and not on the answersheet. For this purpose use the empty space in the margin or anywhere else you find in this booklet. Do not use any other paper. Indicate your answers on the separate answersheet (given at the end of the booklet), using HB Pencil. Follow the instructions given on the answersheet for indicating your answers. Your answersheet contains answer-spaces for answering 100 questions. Use 100 answer spaces for answering the 100 questions given in this booklet. Do not open the booklet Until you are told to do so. When the instruction for opening the booklet is given, do not try to remove the wire staples at the left. Insert the blunt end of your pencil under the sticker and tear it to open the booklet. Immediately after opening the booklet, verify that all the pages containing questions from 1 to 100 are properly printed in your booklet and then begin answering the test. In case the booklet is defective get it replaced by another test booklet.
BSC Academy Test I English Language
1.
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Directions (Q. 1–5): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Sting operations are a decade-and-a-half old in India. In 2000, sting pioneer Tehelka did one on cricketers to throw light on how matches were fixed. In 2001, their ‘Operation West End’ was on middlemen in defence deals and bribes taken by political leaders. And in 2007, ‘Operation Duryodhan’ caught 11 MPs taking bribes to put dictated questions in Parliament. Many more followed. It is said that the expression ‘sting operation’ seemed to have emerged from the name of a popular 1973 American movie ‘The Sting’, which was based on a complicated plot hatched by two persons to trick a third person into committing a crime. A sting operation raises certain moral and ethical questions. The victim, who is otherwise innocent, is lured into committing a crime on the assurance of absolute secrecy and confidentiality of the circumstances, raising the potential question as to how such a victim can be held responsible for the crime which he would not have committed but for the enticement. Though sting operations have been around, it was Aam Aadmi Party and its chief Arvind Kejriwal who sharpened it as a weapon in the mobile phone-wielding hands of the public to catch the corrupt. AAP and Kejriwal relentlessly exhorted people to sting officials who demanded illegal gratification. The stings streamed in, catching both the big and the small. The latest one doing the rounds is the one on Kejriwal himself. A private conversation secretly recorded has become the hot topic of public debate. According to the author, what is the main cause of sting operations? 1. Sting operations are for the betterment of society and public good.
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2. Sting operations are about organised people in law enforcement. 3. Because all such operations are paid. 4. It is a source of employment. 5. Other than given options. 2.
Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?
1. Despite pronouncements, conflict between sting operations and privacy will continue to remain a contentious point in future.
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2. Sanctity attached to personal privacy of a person was expanded by the SC in two subsequent judgements. 3. Indeed, nothing is more deleterious to a man's physical happiness. 4. All of the above
5. Other than given options
Which of the following is an advantage of sting operation? 1) It can check the crimes up to great extent. 2) It is an effective tool to reduce corruption. 3) Media can easily violate a person's right to privacy. 4) Both 1 and 2 5) Other than given options 4. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word 'Pioneer' as used in the passage? 1. Speculator 2. Trailblazer 3. Settler 4. Follower 5. Immigrant 5. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word 'Hatched' as used in the passage? 1. Conspired 2. Produced 3. Devised 4. Managed 5. Unplanned
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3.
2
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BSC Academy Directions (Q. 6–10) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error' the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any) Yet for historical reasons, 1)/ many organisation today 2)/ don't have 3)/ much leadership. 4)/ No error 5)
7.
There is a sense of 1)/ joy in doing 2)/ one's work 3)/ honestly and efficiently. 4) /No error 5)
8.
Any attempt to abolish 1)/ child labour 2)/ through legal recourse would, 3)/ in the circumstances, not be practical. 4)/ No error 5)
9.
Kashmir had been 1)/ the bone of 2)/ contention from 3) /a very long time. 4)/ No error 5)
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6.
10. A moment's reflection 1)/ would show that 2)/ there can be 3)/ another reason. 4)/ No error 5)
Directions (Q. 11–15) : In this question four words are given of which two are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are either most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate your answer by marking the option which represents the correct letter combination. (B) Chronological
1) A–D
(C) Sequential
2) B–C
12. (A) Proscribe
3) B–A
(B) Compliment
1) B–C
(C) Perspire
2) C–D
(C) Apprise
2) A–B
14. (A) Ambivalent 1) D–B
(B) Beautiful 2) B–A
15. (A) Martial
(B) Reconcile
1) B–C
2) D–B
4) A–B
5) C–A
(D) Neglect
3) D–A
4) C–D
(C) Conflicting
(D) Envelop
3) A–D
4) C–A
(C) Prescribe
5) C–A
(D) Decide
3) A–D
(B) Embargo
1) B–C
4) D–C
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13. (A) Canvass
(D) Breathtaking
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11. (A) Earlier
5) B–D
5) D–C
(D) Incite
3) A–B
4) C–A
5) A–D
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Directions (Q. 16–20): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a
meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below. A) Of the various selection criteria, cost is perhaps the most important. B) An optimal mix of these strategies would no doubt offer an innovative means of expansion in the unbanked market.
BS
C) This certainly does not mean buying the cheapest package, but rather choosing that solution which by sealing transactions to huge volumes reduces per unit operating cost.
D) The choice of technology is therefore a crucial decision, which could make or mar the agenda. E) Technology is the most important element of financial inclusion strategy and an enabler of all others.
16. Which of the following would be the 'FIRST' sentence after rearrangement? 1) E
2) D
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3) A
4) C
5) B
3
BSC Academy 17. Which of the following would be the 'FOURTH' sentence after rearrangement? 1) A
2) C
3) D
4) E
5) B
1) A
2) E
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18. Which of the following would be the 'SECOND' sentence after rearrangement? 3) D
4) C
5) B
19. Which of the following would be the 'LAST' (FIFTH) sentence after rearrangement? 1) C
2) D
3) E
4) A
5) B
20. Which of the following would be the 'THIRD' sentence after rearrangement? 1) B
2) E
3) D
4) A
5) C
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Directions (Q. 21 –30) : In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete. Up until 2000, India did not have SEZs and (21) had a number of export processing zones (EPZs), which, (22) similar in structure to the modern SEZ, (23) to attract many firms to India. The government accordingly introduced the SEZ in April 2000. Structured (24) on the already successful model of China, they are (25) to help (26) both foreign and domestic investment, boost India’s exports, and create new employment opportunities. India’s SEZ Act 2005 further amended the country’s foreign investment policy and converted its EPZs to SEZs, with (27) zones including Noida, Chennai, Cochin, and Falta. Since the act’s promulgation, the Indian government has also been
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accepting (28) for additional, far smaller SEZs, which must be proposed by developers to the Indian Board of Approval. (29) August 2014, almost 200 SEZs are in operation and a massive 565 have already been (30) approved for operation. 2) similarly
3) likely
4) homely
5) instead
22. 1) although
2) preferably
3) on behalf of
4) exactly
5) or
23. 1) miss
2) failed
3) down
4) found
5) aborted
24. 1) madly
2) sharply
3) closely
4) minutely
5) jointly
25. 1) accomplished
2) produced
3) traced
4) designed
5) delineated
26. 1) deter
2) dissuade
4) halt
5) delay
2) obscure
3) typical
4) trivial
5) usual
2) proposals
3) pitch
4) way
5) method
3) stimulate
29. 1) Though
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21. 1) frantic
2) Albeit
3) As of
4) Even if
5) Admitting
30. 1) casually
2) orderly
3) regularly
4) formally
5) suitably
27. 1) notable
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28. 1) refusal
4
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BSC Academy Test II Quantitative Aptitude
31.
32. 33.
5 2 5 2
1 2 1 2
5 2 5 2
?
1) 30 2) 5 ? % of 824 + 244 = 1480 1) 140 2) 150 24.5 × 8.4 × 16 = ? 1) 3292.8 2) 3492.8
3) 2 3) 100 3) 3294.8
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Directions (Q. 31-33): What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
4) 25
5) 20
4) 180
5) 120
4) 3192.8
5) 3094.8
Directions (Q. 34–37): In each of these questions, two equations numbered I and II with variables x and y are
34.
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given. You have to solve both the equations to find the value of x and y. Give answer: 1) if x > y
2) if x y
4) if x y
5) if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be determined.
2
I. 2x + 13x + 20 = 0 II. 2y2 – 3y – 35 = 0 I. 12x2 – 41x + 35 = 0
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35.
II. 4y2 – 17y +15 = 0 36.
I. 4x2 – 4 = 60 II. 3y2 + 3 = 51
37.
3) if x < y
I. 28x2 – 9x – 9 = 0 II. 7y2 + 24y + 9 = 0
Directions (Q. 38 –41): In the following number series one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number. 16, 40, 100, 250, 630
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38.
1) 630 39.
2) 100
2) 21
BS 2) 264
3) 969
4) 48
5) 162
3) 96
4) 68
5) 239
3) 320
4) 1120
5) 180190
128, 320, 1120, 5040, 27720, 180190 1) 27720
42.
5) 16
118, 239, 96, 264, 68, 293 1) 293
41.
4) 40
21, 48, 162, 969, 7748 1) 7748
40.
3) 250
2) 5040
A dishonest shopkeeper announces to sell rice at the cost price, but he uses a false weight of 920 gm instead of a kilogram. What is the gain percentage earned by the shopkeeper? 1) 8.69%
2) 7.12%
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3) 6.25%
4) 4.62%
5) 9.14%
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BSC Academy 43.
A man was engaged on a job for 40 days on the condition that he will get a wage of ` 180 for the day he works, but he will have to pay a fine of ` 20 for each day of his absence. If he gets ` 520 at the end of the month, then, he was absent
1) 12 days 44.
3) 6 days
2) 4193
3) 4196
1) 20 min
2) 25 min
3) 30 min
4) 18 min
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1) 42 years
5) 4207
5) 32 min
2) 54 years
3) 63 years
4) 36 years
5) 48 years
How many kg of pure salt must be added to 40 kg of 4% solution of salt and water to increase it to 12% solution? 1) 2.04 kg
2) 2.64 kg
3) 3.14 kg
4) 3.64 kg
5) 5.64 kg
The average of the test scores of a class of 'x' students is 80 and that of 'y' student is 94. When the scores of both the
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48.
4) 4183
At present Manorama is six times older than her son's age. Seven years hence, the ratio of their ages will be 11:3. What is Manorama's present age?
47.
5) 14 days
Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 kmph and including stoppages, it is 36 kmph. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour?
46.
4) 8 days
Find the least number which when divided by 25, 30, 35 and 40 leaves the remainder 18, 23, 28 and 33 respectively. 1) 4186
45.
2) 10 days
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for how many days?
classes are combined, the average becomes 86. What is the ratio of x to y? 1) 6 : 5 49.
2) 5 : 4
3) 4 : 3
4) 7 : 6
5) 3 : 2
In a triangle, two sides of 4 cm and 3 cm are at right angle. If the triangle is revolved along the 4 cm side, the curved surface area of the cone so formed will be 1) 62.8 cm2
50.
2) 52.6 cm2
3) 64. 8 cm2
4) 67.6 cm2
5) 66.6 cm2
If 35% of a number is subtracted from the second number the second number reduces to its four–fifths. What is the ratio
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the first number to the second number? 1) 4 : 7 51.
2) 4 : 9
3) 5 : 9
4) 5 : 7
5) 6 : 7
The ages of Anshu, Bharti and Charita together are 57 years. Bharti is thrice as old as Anshu and Charita is 12 years
BS
older than Anshu. Then, the respective age of Anshu, Bharti and Charita is: 1) 8, 26, 23 (years) 2) 9, 27, 21 (years)
52.
4) 9, 26, 22 (years)
5) 9, 28, 20 (years)
In how many ways can 7 boys and 7 girls be seated along a circle so that they are alternate? 1) 9 × (6!)2
53.
3) 8, 25, 24 (years)
2) 8 × (6!)2
3) 7 × (6!)2
4) 6 × (7!)2
5) 8 × (7!)2
9 persons are seated around a round table. What is the probability that two particular persons sit together? 2 1 2 1 3 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 5 3 3 4 4
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9
BSC Academy 54.
A bag contains 8 yellow and 3 green balls. Two balls are drawn in succession at random. What is the probability that one of them is yellow and the other is green?
55.
2)
23 55
3)
21 53
20 53
4)
5)
24 55
There are 7 boys and 6 girls. They sit in a row randomly. What is the chance that all boys sit together? 1)
56.
21 55
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1)
8 1717
2)
7 1716
3)
7 1516
4)
9 1716
5)
6 1715
Find the number of quadrilateral that can be formed by joining, the vertices of a polygon of 12 sides. 1) 500
2) 485
3) 495
4) 475
5) 490
Directions (Q. 57–60): Each question below is followed by two statements A and B. You have to determine whether the
data given in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of
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mathematics to choose from the possible answers. Give answer:
1) if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement B alone is not sufficient. 2) if the statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement A alone is not sufficient. 3) if both statement A and B together are needed to answer the question.
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4) if either statement A alone or B alone is sufficient to answer the question.
5) if you cannot get the answer from the statements A and B together, but needed even more data. 57.
What is the rate of interest p.a?
A. The difference between the CI and SI on an amount is ` 1000 at the end of 2 years. B. An amount doubles itself in 4 years with SI. What is the area of the square?
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58.
A. The measure of the diagonal of a square is 16 cm. B. The perimeter of the square is 64 cm.
What is the cost of three apples and two oranges?
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59.
A. The cost of 4 apples is twice the cost of 3 oranges. B. The cost of 2 apples is ` 90.
60.
What is the age of a teacher?
A. The average age of the teachers and the students is 5 year more than that of students. B. The average age of the teacher and students is 28 years.
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11
BSC Academy Directions (Q. 61-65) : Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. Details of the strength of 6 banking institutes and the number of students getting selected for job over the years. J
K
L
M
Year
N
S
N
S
N
S
2009
1460
750
1505
870
1330
2010
1520
780
1560
890
2011
1560
800
1680
2012
1660
820
2013
1630
2014
1700
N
O
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Institute
N
S
700
1540
900
1410
760
1610
1000
1380
770
1650
990
1420
850
1740
1080
880
1760
1180
N
S
N
S
1360 720
1380
700
950
1460
840
1430
780
1560
940
1420
820
1460
820
800
1520
910
1500
890
1500
880
1500
880
1580
930
1480
870
1530
900
1480
870
1510
940
1520 900
1550
950
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N = Total no. of students
S = Number of selected students 61.
What is the ratio of the average no. of students of Institute N to that of Institute M? 1) 417 : 466
62.
2) 437 : 467
3) 435 : 466
2) 6%
4) 4.5%
5) 7.5%
The percentage of students getting selected was the highest for which of the following institutes in the year 2013? 1) J
2) K
3) L
4) O
5) N
Approximately, what is the overall percentage of students getting selected from all the institutes together in the year 2011? 1) 51%
2) 50%
3) 57%
4) 72%
5) 69%
During which year the percentage of students getting selected from Institute K was the highest? 2) 2011
3) 2013
4) 2010
5) 2012
BS
1) 2014
C
65.
3) 5%
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1) 6.5%
64.
5) 437 : 465
What is the approximate percentage increase in the percentage of students getting selected from Institute 'O' from 2009 to 2010?
63.
4) 437 : 466
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13
BSC Academy Test III Reasoning Ability
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Directions (Q. 66–70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table for playing a game. Four of them A, B, E and F are not facing the centre. D is third to the left of H, who is fourth to the right of E. A is third to the right of B, who is third to the left of D. F is second to the left of C. How many persons sit between A and B (if the counting start from B in CW direction)? 1) None
Who among the following sits third to the left of E? 1) G
68.
69.
2) A
3) H
What is the position of G with respect to F?
4) Three
5) Other than given options
4) D
5) B
1) Third to the right
2) Third to the left
4) Cannot be determined
5) Other than given options
3) Second to the right
Who among the following is the neighbour of F and C? 1) E
70.
3) Two
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67.
2) One
2) H
3) A
4) B
5) Other than given options
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Find the one that does not belong to that group. 1) EC
2) AG
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66.
3) DE
4) HA
5) FB
Directions (Q. 71–75): In each questions given below two/three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to takes all the given statements to be true even if they seen to be at variance with the commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and decide which conclusion logically follows from all the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer: 1) if only conclusion I follows.
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2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
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5) if both conclusion I and II follow. 71.
Statements: All fruits are vegetables.
All leaves are fruits.
Conclusions: I. All leaves are vegetables.
II. Some vegetables are not fruits.
(72–73): Statements: Some branches are plants. No plant is a tree.
All leaves are trees.
72.
Conclusions: I. Some trees are not branches.
II. All plants being leaves is a possibility.
73.
Conclusions: I. Some trees are not plants.
II. Some leaves are not plants.
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15
BSC Academy No bread is rice.
Some pulses are fruits.
74.
Conclusions: I. No bread is pulse.
II. Some breads are pulses.
75.
Conclusion: I. No rice is bread.
II. Some fruits are not rice.
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(74–75): Statements: No rice is pulse.
Directions (Q. 76 – 80): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below: A5 6 76.
C@ 7 P L E T Q S B 4 $ 3 Z Y H 2 8 C 1 M U I %
How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonants and immediately followed by a vowel? 1) None
5) More than three
3) 8
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2) 4
4) @
5) Other than given options
How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant? 1) One
79.
4) Three
Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the tenth from the right end of the above arrangement? 1) Q
78.
3) Two
2) Two
3) Three
4) Four
5) Other than given options
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a
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77.
2) One
group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1) $ Y 2 80.
2) A
@
3) C U %
4) T B Q
5) 4 Z H
If all the symbols and numbers from the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be tenth from the left end of the above arrangement? 2) T
3) Z
4) L
5) Other than given options
C
1) Y
Directions (Q. 81-85): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer 1) if only conclusion I is true.
BS
2) if only conclusion II is true.
3) if either conclusion I or II is true.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true. 5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
81.
Statements: M > T,
T R,
Conclusions: I. M > R
II. K R
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K> M
17
BSC Academy
83.
84.
85.
Statements: W < F,
N > H,
FN
Conclusions: I. H < W
II. F > H
Statements: H = D,
H T,
Conclusions: I. T D
II. P H
Statements: K R ,
M < W,
Conclusions: I. K > D
II. M < K
Statements: J N,
N D,
Conclusions: I. J = D
II. M > N
PN>D
R > M =D
M> D
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82.
86.
In a certain code 'NIGHT' is coded as 'PKIJV'. How is 'FAITH' written in that code language?
87.
1) HYKRJ 2) HCVKJ What will come next in the given series? VTS
4) HKCVJ
5) Other than given options
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WUT
3) HCKVJ
USR
TRQ
?
1) TSQ 2) SQP 3) TVW 4) QON 5) STU 88. City D is towards north of city A and city C is towards west of city D. City B is towards west of city A. In which direction is city B from city C?
Ac
1) East 2) West 3) Southwest 4) South 5) Other than given options Directions (Q. 89–90): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: In an examination A, B, C, D and E each scored different marks. B scored the second highest marks and more than C and D. No one scored less than A. C scored 64% marks. 89. 90.
Who among the following scored the highest marks? 1) B 2) D 3) E
4) C
Who among the following can score 70% marks? 1) Only E 2) Either D or B or E 4) Either D or B
5) Other than given options 3) Only B and E
5) Other than given options
C
Directions (Q. 91–95): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
BS
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are ten friends sitting in two rows I and II containing five friends each. The friends of both the row are facing each other. The friends of row I are facing south. C is not an immediate neighbour of F but sits second to the left of D, who is third to the right of A. G sits opposite D. B sits on the immediate right of G and is facing south. H is third to the right of B and is exactly opposite F. I sits opposite C. E is not the neighbour of H. 91. 92.
93.
Who among the following does not sit the same row? 1) J 2) H 3) B
4) C
5) Other than given options
Who among the following sits exactly opposite A? 1) I 2) J 3) E
4) D
5) Other than given options
F is related to H in a certain way, E is related to B in the same way. Who among the following is related to J following the same pattern? 1) A 2) D 3) I 4) F 5) Other than given options
SBIPO-PT-004
19
BSC Academy
95.
Who among the following is fourth to the right of G? 1) F 2) H 3) I
4) A
5) Other than given options
Which of the following statements is true? 1) E is in the extreme right end of the row 2) I sits in the second to the right of H 3) C sits in the middle of the second row
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94.
4) H sits on the immediate right of A
5) None is true
96.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1) GD 2) HD 3) FG 4) HF 5) JF
97.
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 'PROVIDED' each of which has as many letters between them as in the English alphabet? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) Other than given options
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Directions (Q. 98–100): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer 1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. 2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
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3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. 4) if the data in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. 5) if the data in both the statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 98.
Four friends W, X, Y and Z are sitting in a straight line facing north. Who is second to the right of W? I. None of them sits on the right of X and on the left of W. Only one person sits between Y and X. II. Z does not sit in the left end of the row and W does not sit next to Z. What is the code for 'pen' in a code language? I. In the code language 'write with pen' is written as 'na pa sa'.
C
99.
II. In the code language 'this pen is black' is written as 'ra sa ka ta'. 100. How is Q related to H? I. Q has only two children.
BS
II. M is mother of H and D and wife of Q's brother.
SBIPO-PT-004
21
BSC Academy (BANKING SERVICES CHRONICLE)
SBIPO-PT-005 (Based on SBI PO (PRE) latest pattern for COMMON WRITTEN EXAM) No. of Questions : 100
Time : 1 hr
Name of Student : ____________________________
Father’s Name: ______________________________
Centre : _____________________________________
Batch No.: ___________________________________
Read the directions (given below) carefully. 1. 1.
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5.
6. 7.
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9.
bl i q fLr dkesafuEufyf[ kr i ka p i z'ukofy; kagS a% i z'ukoyhI - va xzst hHkk"kk i z-Ø1–30 i z'ukoyhII - l a [ ; kRed vfHk; ksX; r k i z-Ø31–65 i z'ukoyhIII - r dZ ' kfDr i z-Ø- 66–100 bu pkj i z'ukofy; ksadsmÙkj nsusdsfy, vki dksdq y 1:00 ?ka Vsdk l e; fn; kt k, xkAi z'ukofy; ksadsfy, vyx&vyx l e; ughagS A vki vi uhbPNkdsvuq l kj l e; dkl a foHkkt u dj l dr sgS a ] i ja rq vki dksLej .k j [ kuk pkfg, fd bl i j h{kk esal Qy gksusdsfy, vki dksr huksi z'ukofy; ksaesavyx&vyx l Qy gksukvko' ; d gS A r dZ ' kfDr vkS j la [ ; kRed vfHk; ksX; r k dh i z'ukofy; kafgUnh vkS j va xzst hnksuksaHkk"kkvksaesaNi hgq bZgS AfgUnh: i kUrj ck, ar j Q dsi Uus a i j vkS j va xzst hnkfgusr j Q dsi Uusi j Ni sgq , gS a A vxj vki xyr mÙkj nsa xsr ksna MLo: i vki dsva d ksaesadVkS r hdh t k, xhA , sl sfdl hHkhi z'u dsfu/kkZ fj r va d ksaesal s]ft l dk vki us xyr mÙkj fn; k gS ] na M ds: i esa, d&pkS FkkbZ; k 0.25 va d dkV fy, t k, a xsA j Q dke] ; fn vki dj ukpkgsa ] r ksbl i q fLr dkesaghdj ukpkfg, u fd mÙkj i =ki j Abl gsrqgkf' k, dhvFkokvU; =kmi yC/k[ kkyh t xg dkmi ; ksx dhft , vU; fdl hdkxt dkmi ; ksx u dhft , A vi usmÙkj vyx mÙkj i =ki j , p-ch- i sfUl y dki z;ksx dj n' kkZ b, A mÙkj n' kkZ usdsfy, mÙkj i =kesafn, x, vuq ns'kksadki kyu dhft , A vki dsmÙkj i =k esamÙkj n' kkZ usdsfy, 100 mÙkj LFkku gS a A bl iq fLr dkesafn, gq , 100 i z'uksadsmÙkj nsusdsfy, 100 mÙkj LFkkuksa dk mi ; ksx dhft , A t c r d funsZ ' k u feysbl i q fLr dk dkser [ kksfy, A i q fLr dk [ kksy usdkfunsZ ' kfeyusi j i q fLr dkdsck, afdukj si j yxsgq , eq M+ s gq , r kj fudkyusdki z;kl u dj sa Ai sa fl y dsfi NysHkkx dhenn l snkfguhr j Q yxsLVhdj dksQkM+ dj i q fLr dk dks[ kksy sa A iq fLr dk [ kksy r sght ka p yhft , fd l Hkhi `"B ft u i j i z'u 1 l s 100 gS a ] l ghi zd kj l sNi sgq , gS avkS j fQj i z'ukofy; ksadsmÙkj nsuk i zkj a Hkdhft , A; fn i q fLr dknks"ki w . kZgksr ksbl sml hi z'ukoyhi zk: i Øeka d okyhnw l j hi z'ui q fLr dkl scnyokyhft , A
2.
3.
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9.
This Booklet contains five tests as follows : Test I - English Language Q.Nos. 1–30 Test II - Quantitative Aptitude Q.Nos. 31–65 Test III - Reasoning Q.Nos. 66–100 You will be given an aggregate time of 1:00 hours to answer all the three tests. The tests are not separately timed. You may distribute the time as you please but remember that to qualify in the written test as a whole you have to qualify on each of the three tests separately. Tests of Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude are printed in both Hindi and English. The Hindi version is printed on the left hand side page and the English version on the right hand side page. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by you, one-fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. Rough work, if you want to do any, is to be done in this booklet itself and not on the answersheet. For this purpose use the empty space in the margin or anywhere else you find in this booklet. Do not use any other paper. Indicate your answers on the separate answersheet (given at the end of the booklet), using HB Pencil. Follow the instructions given on the answersheet for indicating your answers. Your answersheet contains answer-spaces for answering 100 questions. Use 100 answer spaces for answering the 100 questions given in this booklet. Do not open the booklet Until you are told to do so. When the instruction for opening the booklet is given, do not try to remove the wire staples at the left. Insert the blunt end of your pencil under the sticker and tear it to open the booklet. Immediately after opening the booklet, verify that all the pages containing questions from 1 to 100 are properly printed in your booklet and then begin answering the test. In case the booklet is defective get it replaced by another test booklet.
BSC Academy Test I English Language
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
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Directions (Q. 1-5): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error' the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any) The question shocked Vibhu 1) / so much that 2)/he can not 3)/say anything. 4)/ No error 5) If you will come directly to me, 1)/ I would have helped 2)/ you identify all the students 3)/ without putting you in danger. 4) / No error 5) He put his hand inside 1)/and caught half to 2)/a hard metal only 3)/to discover it was a gold coin. 4)/ No error 5) Impatiently, 1)/ I waited 2)/ for school to be 3)/ over that day. 4)/ No error 5) Neha picked her up carefully, 1)/ raised her lovingly 2)/ like she was 3)/ her daughter. 4)/ No error 5)
7.
8.
The families did not speak to each other due to property. 1) because of property
2) by the property
4) due to the property
5) No correction required
1) should have adverse
2) can have adverse
4) could have adverse
5) No correction required
All the presents had been sent off. 1) sent off
2) sent in
4) sent on 9.
3) for the property
The increase in premature deaths have adverse social and economic consequences.
Ac
6.
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Directions (Q. 6-10): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and 'No correction is required' mark 5) as the answer.
3) will have adverse
3) sent at
5) No correction required
The dance master grew old and don't see to well. 1) don't look to well 4) didn't look too well
2) doesn't seem to will
3) didn't seem to well
5) No correction required
1) since using
C
10. The land lord being using the table for his own work. 2) had been using
BS
3) being used 4) only using 5) No correction required Directions (Q. 11-20): In the following passage some of the words have been left out each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraphs meaningfully complete. It’s true that across media houses each medium is approached differently but editorial values and ethics remain the same. There are still limits to what can be published online and what cannot. By merely (11) aside the problem by stating that “the online world… is chaotic and (12) — and sensational headlines are far from uncommon,” you’re being unapologetic about your mistakes. ‘Yes, perhaps this may not be right but that’s how things are, so you must get used to it’ is the (13) of your message. Indeed the online world is chaotic and cluttered but that should give you and every other media house more of a reason to be careful about the content being posted. Rather you shamelessly (14) that you’re choosing to (15) a woman and be sensational.
2
SBIPO-PT-005
BSC Academy
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It makes it worse that you are doing this — and being (16) about it — at a time when one of the biggest problems that (17) this country is its treatment of women. Sexist attitudes (18) themselves in different forms — leering, passing offensive remarks, gawking are all at one end of the continuum, crimes against women like rape are on the other end. You cannot cry yourself (19) about the extreme form while believing it perfectly alright to engage in the more (20) ones. 2) brushing
3) arguing
4) frantic
5) alarming
12. 1) cluttered
2) ordered
3) organised
4) safe
5) fade
13. 1) trivia
2) exteriority
3) crux
4) glimpse
5) stare
14. 1) repel
2) abstain
3) suffer
4) shelter
5) admit
15. 1) objectify
2) reserve
3) hide
4) remain
5) cover
16. 1) submissive
2) gentle
3) amenable
4) susceptible
5) unrepentant
17. 1) advantage
2) boon
3) edge
4) plagues
5) reverence
18. 1) vague
2) obscure
3) manifest
4) told
5) apart
19. 1) evinced
2) point
3) limit
4) end
5) hoarse
20. 1) stash
2) sense
3) subtle
4) protect
5) sound
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11. 1) stunning
Directions (Q. 21–25): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below. (A) The report pointed to speeding, drunk driving and low use of helmets, seat belts and child restraints in vehicles as the main contributing factors.
Ac
(B) According to the WHO, this is the second most important cause of death for 5 to 29 year olds. (C) This has been revealed by the World Health Organization (WHO) in its first ever Global Status Report on Road Safety. (D) Every hour, 40 people under the age 25 die in road accidents around the globe. (E) Road accidents have earned India a dubious distinction.
(F) With over 130,000 deaths annually, the country has overtaken China and now has the worst road traffic accident rate worldwide. 21. Which of the following would be the 'SECOND' sentence after rearrangement? 2) A
3) C
C
1) F
4) E
5) D
22. Which of the following would be the 'LAST' sentence after rearrangement? 1) D
2) A
3) C
4) F
5) B
BS
23. Which of the following would be the 'FOURTH' sentence after rearrangement? 1) B
2) C
3) A
4) D
5) F
24. Which of the following would be the 'FIRST' sentence after rearrangement? 1) F
2) A
3) D
4) E
5) C
25. Which of the following would be the 'THIRD' sentence after rearrangement? 1) A
2) C
SBIPO-PT-005
3) D
4) E
5) F
3
BSC Academy
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Directions (Q. 26 -30) : Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. India’s Special Economic Zones (SEZs) have been shrouded by various controversies. SEZs have highlighted existing ambiguity in the laws on the process for formative compensations. In more recent months, financial viabilities of SEZs have been under the scanner with certain zone developers contemplating exits due to poor economic prospects. As the Prime Minister of India, Dr. Manmohan Singh, said: “SEZs are here to stay”. The Indian government and the state governments are now finding that it is not enough to promulgate modern laws luring foreign direct investment into India, but that they also have to provide for the concerns and the livelihoods of those affected by the establishment of SEZs. The SEZ policy is also inviting criticism for having a myopic vision on urban management and constitutional identities of the zones. The paper examines the performance of SEZs in Haryana. Also, it studies the growth of SEZs and operational SEZs in Haryana and various projects/proposals initiated for the development of SEZs. It concentrates on the export performance of SEZs and Haryana’s struggle against SEZs.
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26. Which of the following is an advantage of Special Economic Zones (SEZs) ? 1) SEZs provides tax rebate up to fifty lakh. 2) Under SEZ Act, land acquisition is possible. 3) SEZs are designed for all purposes i.e. Residential and Commercial use. 4) All of the above. 5) Other than given options.
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27. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) taken by the Government of India to encourage SEZ in Haryana state? 1) 100% income tax exemption on export income for first five years. 2) The government has planned to introduce new SEZ in next five years. 3) Permission to manufacture products directly. 4) All of the above 5) Other than given options. 28. Which of the following is statements is not true in the context of the given passage? 1) The political economy of the state may also have a prominent role in the success of SEZ. 2) SEZ failed to attract many firms to India. 3) India's special economic zones are certain localities. 4) Both 1 and 2 5) Both 2 and 3
C
29. Which of the following is most 'SIMILAR' in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage? CONTEMPLATING 1) Considering
2) Neglecting
3) Slightly
4) Discarding
5) Scoring
30. Which of the following is most 'OPPOSITE' in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage?
BS
PROMULGATE 1) Decree
4
2) Proclaim
3) Issue
4) Conceal
5) Known
SBIPO-PT-005
BSC Academy Test II Quantitative Aptitude 31. 30000, 6000, 1200, 240, ?, 9.6 1) 46
2) 42
3) 40
32. 120, 143, 168, 195, 224,? 1) 240
2) 248
3) 242
2) 32
3) 34
2) 148
3) 159
33. 7, 10, 14, 19, 25,? 1) 38 34. 9, 23, 44, 72, 107,?
4) 44
5) 48
4) 255
5) 252
4) 40
5) 36
4) 168
5) 139
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1) 149
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Directions (Q. 31–34): What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
Directions (Q. 35–38): In each of these questions, two equations numbered I and II with variables x and y are given. You have to solve both the equations to find the value of x and y. Give answer 1) if x >y
2) if x > y
4) if x < y
5) if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be determined.
II. 7x – 6y = 50 36. I. 6x2 + 13x – 28 = 0 II. 6y2 – 7y – 20 = 0 37. I. 7x2 + 2 56 x + 8 = 0 II. y2 – 20y + 100 = 0 38. I. x2 + x – 6 = 0
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35. I. 5x + 4y = 73
3) if x
C
II. 2y2 – 19y + 42 = 0
Directions (Q. 39–40): What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 39.
2128 ÷ 28 × 2408 ÷ 32 =?
2) 5619
BS
1) 5719 40.
3) 5819
4) 5789
5) 5729
3) 2032.8
4) 2332.08
5) 2122.08
15.8 4.5 16.4 =? 0.5
1) 2432.8
2) 2132.08
Directions (Q. 41-42): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
41.
59999 + 2999 ÷ 4999 × 6001 = ? 1) 60500
2) 69500
SBIPO-PT-005
3) 68500
4) 74500
5) 64500
7
BSC Academy 42.
251% of 740 + 219.8% of 599.9 = ? 1) 3470
2) 3870
3) 3170
4) 4260
5) 4170
A man sells an article at a profit of 36%. Had he bought it at 24% less and sold it for ` 258 less, he would have gained 45%. Find the cost price of the article. 1) ` 1600 2) ` 1000 3) ` 1200 4) ` 1400 5) ` 1800
44.
The ratio of three numbers is 4 : 5 : 6 and the sum of their squares is 2772. The sum of the numbers is: 1) 90
45.
2) 85
3) 82
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43.
4) 92
5) 86
Two trains of the length 125m and 200 m respectively at different speeds pass a pole in 4.5 sec and 8 sec respectively. In what time will they cross each other when they are moving in the same direction? 1) 112 sec
2) 108 sec
3) 106 sec
4) 117 sec
5) 102 sec
In the new budget, the price of mustard oil increased by 28%. By how much per cent must a person reduce his consumption so that his expenditure on it does not increase? 1) 20.625% 2) 26.625% 3) 24.875% 4) 15.145% 5) 21.875%
47.
A can complete a work in 10 days and B can complete it in 15 days. A worked alone for 2 days and then B completed the remaining work along with C in 8 days. In how many days can C alone complete the work? 1) 20 days 2) 25 days 3) 30 days 4) 18 days 5) 24 days
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46.
48. A sum of ` 1200 amounts to ` 2400 in four years at simple interest. If the rate of interest is increased by 8% then the amount will increase to– 1) ` 2480 2) ` 2496 3) ` 2896 4) ` 3296 5) ` 3480 In a mixture of 84 litres the ratio of milk and water is 5 :2. If this ratio is to be 4 : 3, then the quantity of water (in litres) needed to be further added is: 1) 21 litres 2) 20 litres 3) 18 litres 4) 24 litres 5) 16 litres
50.
A group of girls contributed eight times as many rupees each for their trip as they were in the number. The total collection came to ` 6272. How many girls were there in the group? 1) 18 2) 24 3) 20 4) 28 5) 22
51.
Three years ago, the average age of P, Q and R is 28 years, and that of Q and R six years ago was 20 years. What is the present age of P? 1) 42 years 2) 38 years 3) 40 years 4) 41 years 5) 36 years
52.
A man spends an average of ` 38000 per month for first five months and ` 12000 per month for the next seven months. What is his monthly salary if he saves ` 10000 during the whole years? 1) ` 1,84,000 2) ` 2,48,000 3) ` 3,48,000 4) ` 2,84,000 5) ` 2,96,000
53.
In how many different ways can the letters of the word MODERN be arranged so that the vowels occupy only the odd positions?
C
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49.
BS
1) 50 2) 60 3) 40 4) 80 5) 72 In how many different ways can 5 engineers, 4 doctors and 3 teachers be seated in a row so that all persons of the same profession sit together? 1) 103680 2) 102680 3) 104660 4) 101680 5) 102780
54.
55. 56.
Find the number of diagonals of a pentagon. 1) 5 2) 4 3) 10 4) 15 5) 8 An unbiased coin is tossed 4 times, find the chance that the tail will appear exactly 3 times. 1)
3 4
2)
1 3
SBIPO-PT-005
3)
1 4
4)
2 3
5)
2 5
9
BSC Academy 57.
From a pack of 52 cards, 4 cards are drawn. What is the probability that it has no queen? 63 83
2)
38296 54145
3)
1 4
4)
38916 54145
5)
63 73
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1)
Directions (Q. 58–60): Each question below is followed by two statements A and B. You have to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of mathematics to choose from the possible answers. Give answer 1) if the data in statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the data in statement B alone is not sufficient. 2) if the data in statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the data in statement A alone is not sufficient. 3) if the data in both statement A and B together are needed to answer the question. 4) if the data either in statement A alone or B alone is sufficient to answer the question. 5) if you cannot get the answer from the data in statements A and B together, but needed even more data. 58. What is the average speed of a bus? A. The average speed of the bus is three times the average speed of the car. The car covers 120 km in 3 hours.
59.
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B. The average speed of the car is half the average speed of a train whereas the average speed of a train is 80 km/hr. What is Sahil's monthly income?
A. Reena's monthly income is `4500 more than Sahil's monthly salary.
B. Sahil's monthly income is `9000 more than Saurabh's monthly income. What is the area of a circle? A. The radius of the circle is equal to side of the square.
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60.
B. The area of the square is 196 cm2.
Directions (Q. 61-65): Study the graph carefully and answer the questions given below. Profit per cent earned by selling wheat and rice over the years. Profit = Income through sales – Expenditure of productions Profit Profit% = Expenditure × 100
C
50
35 30
32
25 20
24 20
BS
Profit %
45 40
15 10
45 36 30
38
Rice Wheat
36
28 20
18 15
5 0
2009
SBIPO-PT-005
2010
2011
2012
2013
2014
Years
11
BSC Academy If the expenditure on production of rice and wheat in 2012 was equal, what was the ratio of incomes through sales of these products? 1) 19 : 18 2) 16 : 15 3) 18 : 17 4) 17 : 16 5) 17 : 15
62.
Income through sales of wheat in 2014 was `24.5 lakh. What was expenditure on production? (in `lakh) 1) 16.01
63.
2) 16.08
2) 5.4
5) 19.05
3) 6.5
4) 8.5
5) 7.5
If the total income of wheat and rice in 2009 was `60 lakh, what was the total expenditure on these two products? 1) `35 lakh
65.
4) 18.08
If the total expenditure on production of wheat in 2011 was `18 lakh, what was the amount of profit earned? (in `lakh) 1) 9.4
64.
3) 18.01
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61.
2) `45 lakh
3) `40 lakh
4) `30 lakh
5) Data inadequate
The ratio of amount of profit earned through sale of rice in 2010 to that in 2011 was 10 : 9. What was the ratio of their expenditures? 2) 7 : 8
3) 5 : 6
4) 4 : 7
5) 5 : 7
BS
C
Ac
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1) 5 : 8
SBIPO-PT-005
13
BSC Academy Test III Reasoning Ability
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Direction (Q. 66–70): In each question given below three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take all the given statements to be true even if they seen to be at variance with the commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and decide which conclusion logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer 1) if either conclusion I or II follows. 2) if only conclusion I follows. 3) if neither conclusion I nor II follows. 4) if both conclusions I and II follow.
66.
Statements: All writers are honest.
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5) if only conclusion II follows.
No honest is an engineer.
Conclusions: I. Some artists are honest. 67. Statements: Some plants are trees.
II. All engineer being artist is a possibility.
All trees are woods.
II. Some trees are shrubs.
Statements: All workers are honest.
No poor is rich.
Some honest are poor.
Conclusions: I. Some rich are not honest 69.
Statements: Some doors are windows.
No window is a wall.
Conclusions: I. All windows being buildings is a possibility. 70.
All woods are shrubs.
Conclusions: I. All woods being plants is a possibility.
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68.
No artist is a writer.
Statements: some computers are tablets.
II. All honest if they are workers are also rich. All walls are buildings. II. Some doors being not a wall is a possibility.
All laptops are computers.
Conclusions: I. No laptop is a tablet.
No phone is a laptop.
II. All computers being tablets is a possibility.
C
Directions (Q. 71–75): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions. There are seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and H sitting around a circular table. Three of them facing outside while rest are facing inside. They work in different companies viz — Airtel, HCL, Wipro, Intel, Microsoft, GAIL, and BHEL but not necessarily in the same order.
D is between C and a person who is facing outside and he is to the right of the later one. H, who works in company GAIL
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sits second to the left of E, who works with Airtel. A is fourth to the right of B and both are facing the same direction. The one who works with Intel is the neighbour of both E and H. D does not work with BHEL. The person who is facing inside is on the immediate right of that person who is facing outside. F and B are facing outside. The person who works with HCL sits on the immediate right of the one who works with Airtel. The person who works with Wipro sit on the immediate left of H. The person who works with Microsoft sits second to the right of F, who is an immediate neighbour of H. 71.
Who among the following is facing outside ?
1) D
2) C
SBIPO-PT-005
3) A
4) E
5) H
15
BSC Academy Who among the following is on the immediate right of B ? 1) F 2) The one who works with Microsoft 4) C 5) Other than given options.
3) H
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72.
73.
If B and E interchange their positions, who among the following is on the immediate left of E ? 1) F 2) D 3) A 4) C 5) Other than given options
74.
Who among the following is facing inside ? 1) D
75.
2) E
3) B
Which of the following pair of combinations is correct ? 1) F- Intel 2) A- GAIL 3) B- BHEL
4) H
5) Only 1,2 and 4
4) E- HCL
5) H- Wipro
Directions (Q. 76–80): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
In a code language, 'no risk of damage' is coded as 'do me ra su', 'improve policy risk of insurance holders' is coded as 'ti la ra su ju ve','no risk policy' is coded as 'su me la' and 'damage of insurance holders' is coded as' do ti ve ra'. How is 'improve' coded in the given code language?
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76.
1) su 4) la
2) ju 5) Other than given options
77. What does the code 'me' stand for in the given code language? 1) no 2) risk 4) damage 5) Other than given options 78.
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2) Either 've' or 'ra'
3) Either 've' or 'ti'
4) Either 've' or 'la'
How will 'improve policy services' be coded in the given code language? 1) do ra ju
80.
3) policy
How is 'holders' coded in the given code language? 1) Either 'do' or 'ti' 5) Either 'yo' or 'ti'
79.
3) ti
2) me do ra
3) ve do ra
4) ra su ja
5) ju ho la
Which of the following will be coded as 'me su ko' in the given code language? 1) no risk of
2) no damage of
3) no damage improve
4) of no insurance
5) no risk cover
C
Directions (Q. 81-85): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer: 1) If only conclusion I is true.
2) If only conclusion II is true.
3) If either conclusion I or II is true.
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4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true. 81.
5) If both conclusions I and II are true. Statements: D = E F, Conclusions: I.F H
82.
83.
II. G > D
Statements: M N
G H> E
P>N >Q
II. P > M
Statements: J < K Q = L> M Conclusions: I. J < L
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II. K > M
17
BSC Academy
85.
Statements: P = Q < L M,
Q > I,
Conclusions: I. P > H
II. M > I
Statements: A B C >D > E, Conclusions: I. A > N
L>H C F = G,
D> MN
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84.
II. B G
Directions (Q. 86–88): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: 'A # B' means A is father of B. 'A *B' means A is mother of B. 'A δ B' means A is sister of B. 'A θ B' means A is brother of B.
87.
Which of the following pairs of persons represent wife and husband of each other with regard to the relations given in the expression, if it is provided that 'T is nephew of N' , 'P θ Q δ R*S#T' and 'L θ M#N*O δ U'? 1) SN 2) RM 3) TO 4) RL 5) QL How is H related to D if it is provided that D is mother of E in the given expressions, 'A#B δ C*D' and 'E δ F#G θ H' ? 1) Grandson 2) Granddaughter 3) Grandfather
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86.
4) Grandmother 88.
5) Cannot be determined
What will come in place of question mark (?), if it is provided that 'L is father of P' in the expression 'L#M δ N?P#Q θ R'? 1) θ 2) δ 3) # 4) * 5) Either θ or δ
90.
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Directions (Q. 89–90): Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 89. 1) Dollar 2) Pound 3) Euro 4) Yen 5) Yuan 1) Caspian sea
2) Dead sea
3) Red sea
4) Lake Superior 5) Lake Sambhar
Directions (Q. 91–95): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are participants from four different teams viz, White, Blue, Green, Black. They participated in different categories viz. Singing, Dancing, Painting, Hockey, Tennis and Cooking on different days of a week from Monday to Saturday. There is no competition on Sunday. Two of them are the players of the team White and two of them are the players of team Black. I. E participated in Tennis but he is neither from team Blue nor from team White.
C
II. A is from team White but participated neither on Thursday nor on Wednesday. III. Neither F nor B participated either in Painting or in Hockey. IV. Dancing competition was held on Tuesday. V. The persons participated in Cooking and Painting are from team White and Green respectively.
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VI. C participated in Singing on Friday and he is from team Blue but F is not participating on Tuesday. 91.
92.
93.
Who among the following participated in painting ? 1) B 2) A 4) D 5) Other than given options Who participated in dancing ? 1) A 2) F
3) B
D is from team – 1) White 4) Green
2) Black 5) Other than given options
SBIPO-PT-005
3) F
4) D
5) Other than given options
3) Cannot be determined
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BSC Academy
95.
If 'E' participated on Saturday, A must participate on – 1) Monday
2) Tuesday
4) Thursday
5) Other than given options
'A' participated in
3)Cannot be determined
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94.
1) Singing
2) Hockey
4) Tennis
5) Cannot be determined
3) Cooking
Directions (Q. 96–99): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two / three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements . 96
Among P, Q, R, S and T, T is the second heaviest and S is the second lighter in the group. Who among them is in the middle when they stand in descending order of their weights ?
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I. Q is not the heaviest. II. R is heavier than S but lighter than T.
III. P ranks third in weight above S, when all are arranged according to weights. 2) Either only II or only I and III
4) Only II and III
5) Other than given options
3) Only II
What is Shivani's rank from bottom in a class of 55 students?
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97.
1) Only I and II
I. Shivani is ten rank below Sahil, who is 25th from the bottom.
II. Rahul is 40th from the top and Nisha is 14th from the bottom. III. Shivani is exactly in the middle of Rahul and Nisha. 1) Only II
2) Only I and II
4) Only III 98.
3) Either only I or only II and III
5) Other than given options
Tomb 'Y' is in which direction with respect to tomb 'X' ?
C
I. Z is to the south of R, who is to the east of X. II. Y is to the west of M.
III. Y is to the southwest of R.
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1) Only I and II
2) Only I and III
3) Any two of the three
4) All I, II and III together are not sufficient 5) Other than given options
99.
What is the code for 'favourite' in a code language? I. 'persons with favourite subject' is written as 'jo vo la ka'. II. 'favourite subject is sociology' is written as 'vo la ju co'. 1) Only I
2) Only II
4) Both I and II together are not sufficient
5) Other than given options
SBIPO-PT-005
3) Both I and III
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BSC Academy
II. The RBI wants to bring the transparency in the market. III. The RBI wants to make its presence felt. IV. The government of India pressurises the RBI to introduce it. 2) Only II
3) Both I and II
4) Both III and IV
5) All of these
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C
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1) Only I
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100. The Base Rate introduced by the RBI in 2014 under which no commercial banks are allowed to give the money to its any customers whether they are prime customers. Which of the following could be the reason for introducing the base rate by the RBI? I. The RBI wants to end the monopoly of the banks.
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BSC Academy (BANKING SERVICES CHRONICLE)
SBIPO-PT-006 (Based on SBI PO (PRE) latest pattern for COMMON WRITTEN EXAM) No. of Questions : 100
Time : 1 hr
Name of Student : ____________________________
Father’s Name: ______________________________
Centre : _____________________________________
Batch No.: ___________________________________
Read the directions (given below) carefully. 1. 1.
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6. 7.
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bl i q fLr dkesafuEufyf[ kr i ka p i z'ukofy; kagS a% i z'ukoyhI - va xzst hHkk"kk i z-Ø1–30 i z'ukoyhII - l a [ ; kRed vfHk; ksX; r k i z-Ø31–65 i z'ukoyhIII - r dZ ' kfDr i z-Ø- 66–100 bu pkj i z'ukofy; ksadsmÙkj nsusdsfy, vki dksdq y 1:00 ?ka Vsdk l e; fn; kt k, xkAi z'ukofy; ksadsfy, vyx&vyx l e; ughagS A vki vi uhbPNkdsvuq l kj l e; dkl a foHkkt u dj l dr sgS a ] i ja rq vki dksLej .k j [ kuk pkfg, fd bl i j h{kk esal Qy gksusdsfy, vki dksr huksi z'ukofy; ksaesavyx&vyx l Qy gksukvko' ; d gS A r dZ ' kfDr vkS j la [ ; kRed vfHk; ksX; r k dh i z'ukofy; kafgUnh vkS j va xzst hnksuksaHkk"kkvksaesaNi hgq bZgS AfgUnh: i kUrj ck, ar j Q dsi Uus a i j vkS j va xzst hnkfgusr j Q dsi Uusi j Ni sgq , gS a A vxj vki xyr mÙkj nsa xsr ksna MLo: i vki dsva d ksaesadVkS r hdh t k, xhA , sl sfdl hHkhi z'u dsfu/kkZ fj r va d ksaesal s]ft l dk vki us xyr mÙkj fn; k gS ] na M ds: i esa, d&pkS FkkbZ; k 0.25 va d dkV fy, t k, a xsA j Q dke] ; fn vki dj ukpkgsa ] r ksbl i q fLr dkesaghdj ukpkfg, u fd mÙkj i =ki j Abl gsrqgkf' k, dhvFkokvU; =kmi yC/k[ kkyh t xg dkmi ; ksx dhft , vU; fdl hdkxt dkmi ; ksx u dhft , A vi usmÙkj vyx mÙkj i =ki j , p-ch- i sfUl y dki z;ksx dj n' kkZ b, A mÙkj n' kkZ usdsfy, mÙkj i =kesafn, x, vuq ns'kksadki kyu dhft , A vki dsmÙkj i =k esamÙkj n' kkZ usdsfy, 100 mÙkj LFkku gS a A bl iq fLr dkesafn, gq , 100 i z'uksadsmÙkj nsusdsfy, 100 mÙkj LFkkuksa dk mi ; ksx dhft , A t c r d funsZ ' k u feysbl i q fLr dk dkser [ kksfy, A i q fLr dk [ kksy usdkfunsZ ' kfeyusi j i q fLr dkdsck, afdukj si j yxsgq , eq M+ s gq , r kj fudkyusdki z;kl u dj sa Ai sa fl y dsfi NysHkkx dhenn l snkfguhr j Q yxsLVhdj dksQkM+ dj i q fLr dk dks[ kksy sa A iq fLr dk [ kksy r sght ka p yhft , fd l Hkhi `"B ft u i j i z'u 1 l s 100 gS a ] l ghi zd kj l sNi sgq , gS avkS j fQj i z'ukofy; ksadsmÙkj nsuk i zkj a Hkdhft , A; fn i q fLr dknks"ki w . kZgksr ksbl sml hi z'ukoyhi zk: i Øeka d okyhnw l j hi z'ui q fLr dkl scnyokyhft , A
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
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This Booklet contains five tests as follows : Test I - English Language Q.Nos. 1–30 Test II - Quantitative Aptitude Q.Nos. 31–65 Test III - Reasoning Q.Nos. 66–100 You will be given an aggregate time of 1:00 hours to answer all the three tests. The tests are not separately timed. You may distribute the time as you please but remember that to qualify in the written test as a whole you have to qualify on each of the three tests separately. Tests of Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude are printed in both Hindi and English. The Hindi version is printed on the left hand side page and the English version on the right hand side page. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by you, one-fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. Rough work, if you want to do any, is to be done in this booklet itself and not on the answersheet. For this purpose use the empty space in the margin or anywhere else you find in this booklet. Do not use any other paper. Indicate your answers on the separate answersheet (given at the end of the booklet), using HB Pencil. Follow the instructions given on the answersheet for indicating your answers. Your answersheet contains answer-spaces for answering 100 questions. Use 100 answer spaces for answering the 100 questions given in this booklet. Do not open the booklet Until you are told to do so. When the instruction for opening the booklet is given, do not try to remove the wire staples at the left. Insert the blunt end of your pencil under the sticker and tear it to open the booklet. Immediately after opening the booklet, verify that all the pages containing questions from 1 to 100 are properly printed in your booklet and then begin answering the test. In case the booklet is defective get it replaced by another test booklet.
BSC Academy Test I English Language a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
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Directions (Q. 1–5) : Rearrange the following six sentence A), B), C), D), E) and F) in the proper sequence to form
A) While email remains a significant attack vector for cyber criminals, they continue to experiment with new methods across mobile devices and social networks to reach more people with less effort.
B) According to a report, India ranked second among nations that were most targeted for cyber crimes through the social media in 2014, after the U.S.
C) India's growing social media population proved to be a ready base for them.
D) Cyber criminals are now using social networking sites to target users in India.
content shared by friends.
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E) Over 80 per cent of these scams were shared manually as attackers took advantage of people's willingness to trust
F) India had the second highest number of social media scams globally and the highest in the Asia Pacific region. Which of the following would be the 'FIRST' sentence after rearrangement? 1) C 2.
5) E
2) C
3) D
4) F
5) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E
Which of the following would be the 'THIRD' sentence after rearrangement? 1) E
5.
4) F
Which of the following would be the 'FOURTH' sentence after rearrangement? 1) A
4.
3) B
Which of the following would be the 'LAST' (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement? 1) E
3.
2) D
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1.
2) C
3) F
4) D
5) A
Which of the following would be the 'SECOND' sentence after rearrangement? 2) A
3) C
4) B
5) E
C
1) D
Directions (Q. 6 – 15) : In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.
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Though India is one of the six countries where the Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza A(H5N1) is considered endemic in poultry and several places in Kerala are favourite destinations for migratory birds, the State (6) outbreak-free until recently. But on November 20, Kerala was (7) of that status when two outbreaks in ducks (8) in Alappuzha and Kottayam districts, with the virus killing over 20,000 birds. Incidentally, this is just the second instance of H5N1 outbreak in South India; the first outbreak occurred in October 2012 in the Central Poultry Development Organisation near Bengaluru. Most of the outbreaks since 2006 have been in West Bengal and the northeastern States, primarily due to cross-border (9) of infected birds from Bangladesh, a hot-spot for H5N1 outbreaks. The H5N1 virus has infected seven people and killed one in Bangladesh between 2003 and 2013. For now, (10) of nearly 260,000 birds in the villages where the outbreaks occurred, together with (11) surveillance in a 10-km radius (12) the epicentre of the outbreak have prevented the spread of the virus. But there is an (13)
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SBIPO-PT-006
BSC Academy need to continue the intensive surveillance as ducks have been infected. Domestic ducks, which have long been (14) as one of the primary (15) of the virus, are responsible for the spread and outbreaks of H5N1. 2) visited
3) halted
7.
1) held
2) lifted
3) robbed
8.
1) accentuate
2) occurred
3) preceded
9.
1) indifference
2) removal
3) dislike
10. 1) lush
2) entice
3) break
11. 1) superficial
2) intensive
3) exquisite
12. 1) around
2) unfriendly
3) having
13. 1) surroundings
2) adorable
3) overwhelming
14. 1) stunning
2) focused
3) recognised
15. 1) reservoirs
2) crush
3) breath
4) moved
5) departed
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1) remained
4) covered
5) kept
4) carried
5) convened
4) act
5) transport
4) culling
5) befall
4) repulsive
5) glean
4) tempting
5) of
4) savory
5) nasty
4) pegged
5) overlooked
4) clinch
5) astounding
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6.
Directions (Q. 16–20) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error' the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any) 16. Dealing with risk 1)/ and the need 2)/ for teamwork is 3)/ oftenly a part of the experience. 4)/ No error 5)
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17. In the most general sense, 1)/drought originates from a deficiency of precipitation 2)/ in an extended period of time– usually a season or more–resulting in a water shortage 3)/ for some activity, group or environmental sector. 4) /No error 5) 18. Light from many different sources 1)/ contains various colours 2)/ each with 3)/ its own brightness or intense.4)/No error 5) 19. When all the visible frequencies are present equally 1)/ the perceived colour 2)/ of the light is white 3) / and the spectrum is flat line. 4)/ No error 5) 20. Earthquake results 1)/ from the sudden release of energy 2)/ in the Earth's crust 3)/ that creates seismic wave. 4)/ No error 5)
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Directions (Q. 21–25) : Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given below each statement should replace the phrase which is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and 'No correction' is required mark 5) as answer. 21. The nature of art, and related concepts such as creativity and interpretation are explored in the line of philosophy known as aesthetics.
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1) explored in a branch of 2) explored in the fields of 3) explore in the branches of 4) explored in the aspect of 5) No correction required 22. The aim of emotional abuse is to chip in your feelings of self–worth and independence. 1) is to chips at 2) was to chip in 3) is to chip away at 4) is to chipping on 5) No correction required 23. Very a few nomadic people have retained this form of lifestyle in modern times. 1) All few 2) Only a few 4) Some of 5) No correction required
SBIPO-PT-006
3) One of the few
3
BSC Academy 24. The longer you stay in an abusive relationship, the more the physical and emotional toll. 1) greater the physical 2) and more the physical 3) the more physical 4) the greater the physical 5) No correction required
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25. Philosophy of the mind is one of main branch of philosophy which deals with the concept of intuition. 1) one of the main branches 2) one of the branch 3) all among 4) one of the main in 5) No correction required
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Directions (Q. 26–30): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. How often have we heard our grandparents reminisce about the good old days when things were so much cheaper? Everything seems to have been available at a fraction of what it costs today, be it rice, potatoes, mangoes, petrol or utensils. A kilo of sugar that could have been bought for `2 in the 1970’s currently costs `40, while a dozen bananas that you could have bought for just `10 about 20 years ago, will now cost you `35. The quantity of a commodity that a rupee used to buy years ago has contracted. In other words, the rupee has lost its purchasing power. The reason for this loss is largely macro-economic and linked to aggregate demand and supply dynamics, government borrowings, exchange rate and interest rates. Typically, the rupee loses its purchasing power when there is a general increase in the economy’s price level, technically termed as inflation. Inflation is not only a cause of concern for the RBI and the government, it also severely impacts the value of the investment portfolios and can upset any deferred purchase plans. For example, in 2010, painting your house cost `40,000. You deferred the plan for a year and kept the amount in your savings account. In 2010-11, inflation went up by 9.6% (on an average). So, the expense of the paint job increased to `43,825, but you only have `41,400 in your bank account. Due to the fall in the value of money, you will now need to cough up an extra `2,425 for the same work. Let us look at how you can estimate the purchasing power of money. This concept rests on the theory of discounting, which is the reverse of the compounding theory. In discounting, the amount receivable at some future date is worked back to the current time period. The future amount is discounted to the current period using a rate known as the discounted yield. Say, someone promises to pay you `1,000 a year from now. The interest rate offered by your bank is 9%. Using the bank’s interest rate as the discounted yield, you can work out the current or present value of `1,000, which comes out to be `917.43. If, instead, you receive `1,000 now, you could invest it at 9% and after one year, you will receive `1,090. The concept has varied applications in investment and financial planning. It is used by banks for determining the home loan EMIs and is also used by financial planners for estimating the returns from money back insurance policies, mutual fund SIPs and bond yields. Looking at the value of the rupee, the rate of inflation prevailing in the economy is used as the discounted yield for determining its purchasing power. 26. Which of the following statement is true about the Good old days?
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1) Things were simpler, better, 100 % pure lives. 2) After all the tax people could enjoy their life. 3) The past really was cheap for many items. 4) All the above
5) Other than given options.
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27. Which of the following can be the best summary tag? 1) Employment, social protection and welfare–related spending and reforms are on the rise. 2) Inflation in India generally occurs as a consequence of global traded commodities and the several efforts made by the Reserve Bank of India, to weaken rupee against dollar. 3) The major determinant of the inflation is the purchasing power of money. 4) The supply is the sole key ingredient for the rising inflation in India. 5) Other than given options
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28. Which of the following statements is false in the context of the given passage? 1) Structural reforms and oil prices are responsible for increase in inflation. 2) Inflation in India was on top in 2015. 3) The growth in the Asia–Pacific region will be driven by improved growth in a range of developing economies. 4) Both 1) and 2) 5) Other than given options 29. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word 'Cough up' as used in the passage? 1) Dole out 2) Disperse 3) Join 4) Defray 5) Save 30. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word 'Reminisce' as used in the passage? 2) Repress
3) Bethink
4) Forethought
5) Prospect
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C
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1) Prophesy
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5
BSC Academy Test II Quantitative Aptitude 31. (72)2 + (8)3 – (9)2 = ?
32.
1) 5815 2) 5425 3) 5615 7 of 6231 + 14.5% of 740 = 30% of 900 + ? 31 1) 1044.4 2) 1028.5 3) 1245.8
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Directions (Q. 31-32): What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
4) 5695
5) 5605
4) 1244.3
5) 1298.6
Directions (Q. 33–35): What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions? (24.26)3 ÷ (8.2)3 = 5 + ? 1) 15 34.
2) 36
3) 32
2799 ÷ 27.86 × 6.15 – 125.98 – 245.27 = ? 1) 219
2) 242
3) 229 1
36.
17, 21, 37, 73, ? 1) 96
37.
2) 94
4) 137
5) 99
3) 571.5
4) 561.5
5) 525.5
2) 594
3) 548
4) 547
5) 584
2) 5175
3) 5075
4) 5285
5) 5365
3) 119
4) 121
5) 124
2) 517.5
9, 43, 212, 1056, ?
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1) 5275
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474, 486, 510, 546,? 1) 574
39.
40.
5) 248
3) 90
11, 18.5, 44.5, 141, ? 1) 501.5
38.
4) 234
5) 22
3 52441.10 2 44943.99 132651.01 (?) 1018 53.10 1 1 1 1 1 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 9 25 3 16 4 Directions (Q. 36 –40): What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
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35.
1
4) 29
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33.
73, 77, 85, 99, ?
1) 123
2) 120
Directions (Q. 41–45): In each of these questions, two equations numbered I and II with variables x and y are
given. You have to solve both the equations to find the value of x and y. Give answer: 1) if x > y
2) if x y
4) if x y
5) if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be determined.
SBIPO-PT-006
3) if x < y
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BSC Academy I. 20x2 + 73x + 63 = 0
II. 16y2 + 16y + 3 = 0
42.
I. x2 – 26x + 165 = 0
II. y2 – 36y + 315 = 0
43.
I. 3x2 – 32 x + 77 = 0
II. 2y2 + 23y + 56 = 0
44.
I. 63x2 + 71x + 20 = 0
II. 45y2 + 52y + 15 = 0
45.
I. x2 + 16x + 63 = 0
II. 6y2 – 37y + 52 = 0
46.
A fruit seller had some pineapples. He sells 30% of pineapples and still has 350 pineapples. Originally he had how many pineapples? 1) 480
4) 460
5) 450
P, Q and R hire a penthouse for ` 2250. If they used it for 8 hr, 10 hr and 12 hr respectively, the rent paid by R will be: 1) ` 800
48.
3) 400
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47.
2) 500
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41.
2) ` 950
3) ` 900
4) ` 850
5) ` 1000
Two pipes can fill a tank in 20 hrs and 24 hrs respectively. A third pipe can empty the tank in 40 hours. If all the three pipes
1) 10 hrs 49.
2) 20
4) 12 hrs
5) 18hrs
3) 24
4) 18
5) 28
A train covers 450 km in 6 hours. The speed of bike is half of the speed of train. How much time will the bike take to cover
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the distance of 300km? 1) 6 hr 51.
3) 16 hrs
15 times A is equal to 10 times B. If 10 is subtracted from B it is 22 less than 3 times of A. What is the sum of A and B? 1) 10
50.
2) 15 hrs
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are opened and function simultaneously. Then, in how much time the tank will be full?
2) 7.5 hr
3) 7 hr
4) 10 hr
5) 8 hr
Sonali scored 35 marks in English, 39 marks in Science, 40 marks in Maths, 37 marks in Hindi and 32 marks in Social studies.
BS
The maximum marks a student can score in each subject is 60. How much per cent score did Sonali get in this exam? 1) 61%
52.
2) 58%
3) 63%
4) 59%
5) 65%
Rakesh invested an amount of ` 50000 to start a business. After six months, Kunal joined him with an amount of ` 80,000. After one year, from the commencement of the business, Rakesh put in an additional amount of ` 20000. At the end of three years, they earned a profit of ` 7,02,000. What is Rakesh's share in profit? 1) ` 3,12,000
2) ` 3,32,000
SBIPO-PT-006
3) ` 3,28,000
4) ` 3,42,000
5) ` 3,22,000
9
BSC Academy 53.
A man purchased two different kinds of alcohol. In the first mixture, the ratio of alcohol to water is 4 : 5 and in second mixture it is 6 : 7. If he mixes the two given mixtures and makes a third mixture of 22 litres in which the ratio of alcohol to
1) 8 litres 54.
3) 6 litres
4) 9 litres
5) 7 litres
If (68)2 is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer is 7697. What is the number? 1) 112
55.
2) 4 litres
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water is 5 : 6, the quantity of first mixture that is required to make 22 litres of the third kind of mixture is.
2) 111
3) 115
4) 121
5) 131
The average age of a man and his son is 48 years. The ratio of their ages 13 years ago was 11 : 3. What is the present age of son? 1) 26 years
2) 29 years
3) 30 years
4) 24 years
5) 28 years
Directions (Q. 56–58): Each question below is followed by two statements A and B. You have to determine whether the to choose between the possible answers. Give answer:
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data given in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of mathematics
1) if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement B alone is not sufficient. 2) if the statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement A alone is not sufficient. 3) if the both statement A and B together are needed to answer the question.
Ac
4) if either the statement A alone or B alone is sufficient to answer the question.
5) if you cannot get the answer from the statements A and B together, but needed even more data. 56.
A and B are positive integers. Is A an odd number?
A. An odd number is obtained when A is divided by 3. B. (A + B) is an odd number. 57.
What is the ratio of the total number of males to the females student in a college?
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A. There are 4200 students in the college out of which 38% are female. B. There are 4200 students in the college out of which 62% are male. 58.
Nayan is 80 km away from his office. How long will he take to reach his office? A. Nayan travelled at a uniform rate of 25 km/hr.
BS
B. If Nayan travelled 5 km/hr faster then, it would have taken him 30 min less to reach his office. Directions (59–60): A bag contains 3 purple and 5 green balls.
59.
Find the odd against getting a purple ball. 1) 5 : 3
60.
2) 4 : 3
3) 3 : 4
4) 3 : 5
5) 4 : 5
4) 5 : 4
5) 5 : 3
Find the odds in favour of getting a green ball. 1) 3 : 5
2) 4 : 5
SBIPO-PT-006
3) 3 : 4
11
BSC Academy
61.
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Directions (Q. 61-65) : Study the graph carefully and answer the questions given below.
The average production for five years was maximum for which company? 1) Samsung
2) Micromax
3) Nokia
What is the approximately percentage increase in the production of Nokia from 2010 to 2013? 1) 68%
63.
2) 52%
1) 2011 64.
2) 2012
4) 56%
5) 62%
3) 2014
4) 2013
5) Both 2012 and 2014
In which year was the percentage of production of mobile by Micromax to the production of mobile by Samsung the maximum? 1) 2013
65.
3) 57%
For which of the following years, the percentage rise/fall in the production from the previous year is the maximum for Samsung?
2) 2012
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62.
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5) Both Micromax and Nokia
4) Both Samsung and Micromax
3) 2014
4) 2011
5) 2010
What is the ratio of the average production of Nokia in the period 2012 to 2014 to the average production of Samsung in the same period? 2) 11 : 12
3) 14 : 15
4) 13 : 14
5) 12 : 13
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1) 14 : 13
SBIPO-PT-006
13
BSC Academy Test III Reasoning Ability
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Directions (Q. 66–70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: A group of seven teachers A, B, C, D, E, F and G teaches seven different subjects–Maths, Economics, English, Hindi
Sanskrit, History and Computer in seven different periods I, II, III, IV, V, VI and VII, but not necessarily in the same order. C teaches in period III but neither teaches Computer nor Sanskrit. E teaches English in period VI. A teaches History but not in period I or V. The one who teaches Maths teaches in period II. The one who teaches in period I teaches Hindi. F teaches in Period V. G teaches Computer in period IV. D does not teach Maths. Who among the following teaches Maths? 1) B 67.
2) D
3) C
C teaches which of the following subject? 1) Hindi
2) Economics
3) Sanskrit
5) Other than give options 68.
D teaches in which of the following periods? 1) V
2) III
3) I
5) Other than given options
2) Maths
4) Sanskrit
2) C – Maths – II
4) None is true
5) Other than given options
3) F – English – VI
5) Other than given options
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group, which is the one that does not belong to the group? 1) Calm
2) Acute
3) Keen
4) Subtle
5) Intense
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EFFICIENCY each of which has as many letters between them in
C
72.
3) Economics
Which of the following combination is true? 1) D – Hindi – I
71.
4) Cannot be determined
The person who teaches in period V teaches, which of the following subject? 1) Hindi
70.
5) Other than given options
4) Cannot be determined
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69.
4) F
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66.
the word as there are between them in the English alphabet? 1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) Four
5) More than four
Directions (Q. 73-77): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The state-
BS
ments are followed by two conclusions. Give answer: 1) if only conclusion I is true.
2) if only conclusion II is true.
3) if either conclusion I or II is true.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true. 5) if both conclusion I and II is true.
SBIPO-PT-006
15
BSC Academy Statements: L Q > P,
R< C > N = L
73.
Conclusions: I. C >Q
II. R P
74.
Conclusions: I. N P
II. L < R
75.
Statements: T > E C = H, R M > H Conclusions: I. R > C
II. T > H
(76–77): Statements: Z > N,
K N,
76.
Conclusions: I. Z > M
II. N D
77.
Conclusions: I. N M
II. K D
K= MD
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(73–74):
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Directions (Q. 78–81): In each question given below three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take all the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and decide which logically follows from all the given statement disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer: 1) if only conclusion I follows. 2) if only conclusion II follows. 3) if either conclusion I or II follows. 4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(78–79):
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5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
Statements: Some cameras are phone
No phone is a mobile
All calculators are mobiles
78.
Conclusions: I. At least some cameras are not mobiles.
II. All mobiles are not phones.
79.
Conclusions: I. Some calculators are not phones.
II. Some cameras are not calculators.
(80–81): Statements: All stars are planets
No planet is asteroid
Conclusions: I. All stars being asteroids is a possibility.
81.
Conclusion: I. No asteroid is planet.
C
80.
II. No star is moon.
2) 14
3) 15
No asteroid is moon
II. Some planets are moon.
Directions (Q. 82 – 85): Following questions are based on the five three–digit numbers given below: 812 956 782 359 516
Which of the following is the sum of the first and the second digits of the highest number?
BS
82.
1) 10
83.
4) 12
5) Other than given options
If the position of the second and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the last digit of the lowest number? 1) 5
2) 6
SBIPO-PT-006
3) 1
4) 8
5) Other than given options
17
BSC Academy If the position of the first and the last digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the second digit of the second highest number? 1) 9 85.
2) 1
3) 2
4) 5
5) Other than given options
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84.
Which of the following is the third digit of the second highest number? 1) 9
2) 7
3) 2
4) 5
5) Other than given options
Directions (Q. 86 – 89): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. When a word and number arrangement is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digit numbers.) Input : 56 won 25 your still 36 64 how Step I: 64 56 won 25 your still 36 how Step II: 64 how 56 won 25 your still 36
Step IV: 64 how 56 still 36 won 25 your
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Step III: 64 how 56 still won 25 your 36
And step IV is the last step of the above arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the above step, find out the appropriate step for the given input. Input: 36 eager power 16 24 farm 46 sky ball 59
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement? 1) Four 2) Five 3) Six
87.
Which of the following steps will be step V? 1) 59 ball 46 36 eager power 16 24 farm sky. 2) ball 46 eager power 16 24 farm 46 sky 59 3) 59 ball 46 eager 36 farm power 16 24 sky 4) There will be no such step. 5) Other than given options
88.
What is the position of '46' in step III?
5) More than seven
2) Third form the left end 4) Sixth from the left end
C
1) Second from the right end 3) Seven from the right end 5) Other than given options 89.
4) Seven
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86.
Step III of an input is : 91 car 86 15 31 few name home
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Which of the following is definitely the input? 1) 86 15 91 car 31 few name home 2) car 86 15 91 few 31 name home 3) few 15 86 car 91 name 31 home 4) Cannot be determined
5) Other than given options
Directions (Q. 90–92): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
G is son of D, who is grandfather of C. B is mother of F, who is the sister of G. A is mother of C and sister–in–law of E. D has only two children. 90.
How is B related to C? 1) Mother 4) Cannot be determined
SBIPO-PT-006
2) Grandmother 5) Other than given options
3) Sister
19
BSC Academy
92.
What is the relation between E and F? 1) E is husband of F
2) F is sister of E
4) Cannot be determined
5) Other than given options
How is C related to F? 1) Nephew
2) Niece
4) Mother
5) Cannot be determined
3) E is wife of F
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91.
3) Sister
Directions (Q. 93–97): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A group of eight members A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre, but not necessarily in the same order. A is third to the left of C, who is not an immediate neighbour of F. H is second to the right of F. G is not an immediate neighbour of either H or C. D is immediate neighbour of C and B. 93.
Which of the following combinations represents the first and the second to the left of B respectively? 1) EH 2) DG 3) CE 4) DC 5) Other than given options
94.
Who is third to the left of D? 1) E 2) H
4) F
5) Other than given options
4) C
5) Other than given options
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95.
3) A
Who among the following is second to the right of G? 1) A 2) F 3) D
96.
Which of the following pairs represents the first person is immediate right of second person ? 1) BG 2) FH 3) HE 4) AE 5) CE
97.
How many persons are there between E and G? 1) Two 2)Three 3) Four
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4) None
5) Other than given options
Directions (Q. 98–100): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statement and give answer. 1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. 2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
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3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. 4) If the data in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. 5) If the data in both the statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 98.
Among J,K,L,M,N and P who is second to the right of L ? All are sitting in a circle facing the centre. I. L sits opposite to M, who sits between K and P.
BS
II. J sits between P and L and opposite to K .
99.
Point Z is towards which direction from point Y? I. Nisha walks 4 m towards the north from point Z and takes a right turn and walk 4 m to reach at point W, which is 6 m away from point Y. II. Point X is 3 m towards the east of point Z and 5 m towards the west of point Y.
100. Among U, V, W, X, Y and Z each having different age. Who is the youngest among them? I. X is younger than Y but older than W. II. U is older than V but younger than Z, who is the oldest.
SBIPO-PT-006
21
BSC Academy (BANKING SERVICES CHRONICLE)
SBIPO-PT-007 (Based on SBI PO (PRE) latest pattern for COMMON WRITTEN EXAM) No. of Questions : 100
Time : 1 hr
Name of Student : ____________________________
Father’s Name: ______________________________
Centre : _____________________________________
Batch No.: ___________________________________
Read the directions (given below) carefully. 1. 1.
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5.
6. 7.
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2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
This Booklet contains five tests as follows : Test I - English Language Q.Nos. 1–30 Test II - Quantitative Aptitude Q.Nos. 31–65 Test III - Reasoning Q.Nos. 66–100 You will be given an aggregate time of 1:00 hours to answer all the three tests. The tests are not separately timed. You may distribute the time as you please but remember that to qualify in the written test as a whole you have to qualify on each of the three tests separately. Tests of Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude are printed in both Hindi and English. The Hindi version is printed on the left hand side page and the English version on the right hand side page. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by you, one-fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. Rough work, if you want to do any, is to be done in this booklet itself and not on the answersheet. For this purpose use the empty space in the margin or anywhere else you find in this booklet. Do not use any other paper. Indicate your answers on the separate answersheet (given at the end of the booklet), using HB Pencil. Follow the instructions given on the answersheet for indicating your answers. Your answersheet contains answer-spaces for answering 100 questions. Use 100 answer spaces for answering the 100 questions given in this booklet. Do not open the booklet Until you are told to do so. When the instruction for opening the booklet is given, do not try to remove the wire staples at the left. Insert the blunt end of your pencil under the sticker and tear it to open the booklet. Immediately after opening the booklet, verify that all the pages containing questions from 1 to 100 are properly printed in your booklet and then begin answering the test. In case the booklet is defective get it replaced by another test booklet.
BSC Academy Test I English Language meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
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Directions (Q. 1–5) : Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a
A) As they look to become leaders in one of the most competitive consumer markets globally.
B) Some, India's largest e–commerce companies has also announced a marketing partnership that allows potential customers to sell their used products on the latter while buying new ones.
C) These companies have joined hands to assist each other to leverage their strengths and attract more consumers to their platforms.
D) In the battle for supremacy, internet companies in India are turning the most unlikely of allies each other. E) Flipkart, Uber, redBus and OLX are just some of the top internet companies.
1) B 2.
5) A
2) A
3) B
4) E
5) C
2) D
3) A
4) E
5) B
Which of the following would be the 'FIRST' sentence after rearrangement? 1) A
5.
4) E
Which of the following would be the 'SECOND' sentence after rearrangement? 1) C
4.
3) D
Which of the following would be the 'FOURTH' sentence after rearrangement? 1) D
3.
2) C
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Which of the following would be the 'LAST' (FIFTH) sentence after rearrangement?
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1.
2) D
3) C
4) E
5) B
Which of the following would be the 'THIRD' sentence after rearrangement? 1) B
2) E
3) C
4) D
5) A
Directions (Q. 6 – 15) : In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a
C
number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.
BS
Only a short time ago, the world’s emerging markets, especially the BRICs — Brazil, Russia, India and China — were supposed to be the (6) of the global economy. As the West sank into a recession in the (7) of the 2008 financial crisis, China, India and many other developing economies (8) to (9) strong growth, helping to prevent the world economy from (10) into an even deeper and more painful (11). As the US and Europe struggled to recover, talk that the (12) of the developing world were (13) to take their place at the top of global economic and political affairs accelerated. Now, however many emerging markets look like they’re the ones that need saving. Investors are (14) markets from Latin America to Asia, tanking currencies, stocks and sentiment. The good money is now (15) on the once battered advanced nations. While stock markets in the U.S. and Japan have soared, those in the developing world have slipped. 6. 7.
2
1) saviours
2) demon
3) lucifer
4) antichrist
5) devil
1) mid
2) acknowledge
3) intense
4) fierce
5) wake
SBIPO-PT-007
BSC Academy 1) rarely
2) continued
3) hardly
4) suddenly
5) extreme
9.
1) ardent
2) paid
3) post
4) vivid
5) deal
10. 1) withhold
2) concealing
3) suppress
4) tumbling
5) contradict
11. 1) downturn
2) betterment
3) rise
4) impairment
5) destruction
12. 1) midget
2) giants
3) bulk
4) bigness
5) part
13. 1) ready
2) unsettled
3) destined
4) distant
5) close
14. 1) facing
2) arriving
3) coming
4) fleeing
5) meeting
15. 1) displacing
2) removing
3) placing
4) liking
5) betting
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8.
Directions (Q. 16–20): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Ac
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Global warming is the term used to describe a gradual increase in the average temperature of the Earth’s atmosphere and its oceans, a change that is believed to be permanently changing the Earth’s climate. There is great debate among many people, and sometimes in the news, on whether global warming is real (some call it a hoax). But climate scientists looking at the data and facts agree the planet is warming. While many view the effects of global warming to be more substantial and more rapidly occurring than others do, the scientific consensus on climatic changes related to global warming is that the average temperature of the Earth has risen between 0.4 and 0.8 °C over the past 100 years. The increased volumes of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases released by the burning of fossil fuels, land clearing, agriculture, and other human activities, are believed to be the primary sources of the global warming that has occurred over the past 50 years. Scientists from the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate carrying out global warming research have recently predicted that average global temperatures could increase between 1.4 and 5.8 °C by the year 2100. Changes resulting from global warming may include rising sea levels due to the melting of the polar ice caps, as well as an increase in occurrence and severity of storms and other severe weather events.
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16. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word 'Substantial' as used in the passage? 1. Hefty 2. Sturdy 3. Massive 4. Consequential 5. Slight 17. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word 'Predicted' as used in the passage? 1. Anticipated 2. Amazed 3. Counted 4. Calculated 5. Called 18. Which of the following may best express the term "Global warming"? 1. Global warming is the increase of Earth's average surface temperature due to effect of greenhouse gases.
BS
2. A sudden increase in the level of temperature. 3. Emission of gases is known as Global Warming. 4. All of the above
5. Other than given options
19. Which of the following is true according to the passage? 1. If we don't address climate change, this is just a taste of what we could expect in the years ahead. 2. Climate change will have a significant impact on the sustainability of water level of the sea in the coming decades.
SBIPO-PT007
3
BSC Academy 3. Solving global warming will improve our lives by cleaning up air pollution. 4. Both 2 and 3
20. Which of the following steps can be taken to reduce global warming? 1) Expand the use of renewable energy 2) Increase vehicle fuel efficiency 3) Use energy efficient appliances 4) All of the above 5) Other than given options
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5. All 1, 2 and 3
Directions (Q. 21–25) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error' the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any) 21. You can plant 1)/ as more 2)/ trees as 3)/ you want. 4)/ No error 5)
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22. I spent 1)/ all my time 2)/ try to learn 3)/ more about this project. 4)/ No error 5)
23. If they were1)/ told me this earlier, 2)/ I would 3)/ have warned them. 4)/No error 5)
24. He asked 1)/ his soldiers 2)/ to bring the arrogant merchant 3)/ to his court. 4)/ No error 5)
25. It is important 1)/ to stress that 2)/ growth and equity 3)/ should be pursued simultaneously. 4)/ No error 5)
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Directions (Q. 26–30) : Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given below each statement should replace the phrase which is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and No correction is required, mark 5) as the answer. 26. The support systems has to turn to improve productivity and incomes of farmers.
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1) have to be tuned to 2) have to tune to 4) has turned to 5) No correction required 27. There was a lady who sang beautiful at the temple. 1) who sings beautifully 2) who sings beautiful 4) who sung beautiful 5) No correction required 28. We shall not be apart from you. 1) different from you 2) apart to you 4) apart with you 5) No correction required 29. The two began to sing to harmony. 1) began to sing in 2) begun to sung to 4) begin to sing with 5) No correction required
3) have turned to
3) who sang beautifully
3) being apart you
3) begin to sung in
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30. There wasn't a single tear in his eye but he thought of the manager and his heart was heavy. 1) tear in his both the eye 2) tears in his eye 3) tears in his eye 4) tear in his eyes
4
5) No correction required
SBIPO-PT-007
BSC Academy Test II Quantitative Aptitude 31. 54 ÷ 58 × (25)3 × 18.4 + 75% of 140 = ? 1) 556
1 4 4769 8253 300% of 1100 ? 2985 19 21
1) 2038 33.
3) 560
2) 2138
3) 2948
1 1 1 1 4 4 2 – 0.75 3 – = ? 5 5 3 6 9
1) –
504 11
2) –
405 11
3)
441 11
4) 585
5) 565
4) 2438
5) 2118
4)
504 19
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32.
2) 575
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Directions (Q. 31-33): What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
5) –
131 11
Directions (Q. 34 –37): In the following number series one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number. 129, 67, 25, 14.5, 6.5 1) 67 35.
2) 14.5
2) 18
24, 208, 1675, 11593, 69553 1) 208
37.
4) 129
5) 6.5
4) 59
5) 68
3) 69553
4) 1675
5) 24
3) 45
4) 478
5) 21
–18, 18, 44, 59, 68, 72 1) 44
36.
3) 25
2) 11593
21, 27, 45, 123, 478, 2367 1) 27
2) 123
3) 72
Ac
34.
Directions (Q. 38–41): In each of these questions, two equations numbered I and II with variables x and y are given. You have to solve both the equations to find the value of x and y. Give answer:
4) if x y
2) if x y
C
1) if x > y
5) if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be determined.
I. 30x2 – 71x + 42 = 0
II. 12y2 – 37y + 21 = 0
39.
I. x2 – 15x + 54 = 0
II. y2 – 21y + 110 = 0
40.
I. 2x2 + 2 14 x + 7 = 0
II. 3y2 – 2 24 y + 8 = 0
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38.
41.
I. 20 x2 + 44x + 21 = 0
3) if x < y
II. 72y2 + 85y + 25 = 0
Directions (Q. 42–43): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
42.
3898 75.11 46.01 ? 10.01 130
1) 218
2) 388
SBIPO-PT007
3) 248
4) 148
5) 348
7
BSC Academy 43.
119.98% of 850 + 274.98% of 399.98 = ? 1) 2120
2) 1820
3) 1620
4) 2820
5) 2520
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Directions (Q. 44–46): Each question below is followed by two statements A and B. You have to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of mathematics to choose between the possible answers. Give answer 1) if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement B alone is not sufficient. 2) if the statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement A alone is not sufficient. 3) if the both statement A and B together are needed to answer the question.
4) if either the statement A alone or B alone is sufficient to answer the question.
5) if you cannot get the answer from the statements A and B together, but needed even more data. What is the area of the isosceles triangle? A. The perimeter of the isosceles triangle is 24 m. B. The height of the triangle is 6 m. 45.
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44.
After how many months did Charu join the business?
A. Anamika and Divya started the business together by investing in the ratio of 8 : 7. After a few months, Charu joined them. The ratio of investment of Divya to Charu was 14 : 13.
46.
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B. The annual profit earned by Anamika, Divya and Charu from the business was ` 85,000. The sum of Anamika's share of annual profit and Divya's share of annual profit was ` 72,000. What is the length of a running train?
A. The train crosses a man in 8 seconds.
B. The train crosses a 180-metre-long platform in 12 seconds.
In a simultaneous throw of two dice, what is the probability of getting a total of 9 or 10? 1)
48.
7 36
2)
11 36
C
47.
32 105
37 105
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2)
4)
5 36
5)
15 36
3)
39 105
4)
34 105
5)
31 105
How many words can be formed by using all the letters of the word 'PROVIDER'? 1) 21160
50.
13 36
A box contains 15 chocolates, in which 5 are Dairy Milk, 6 are Munch and 4 are Perk. The probability of drawing two chocolates of the same types is 1)
49.
3)
2) 21800
3) 22600
4) 20160
5) 20260
In how many ways can a team of 6 members be formed made out of 6 men and 4 women, such that at least one men
should be there? 1) 225
2) 220
SBIPO-PT007
3) 205
4) 215
5) 210
9
BSC Academy 51.
Total wages of 5 men, 4 women and 6 children is ` 28900. If the wages of 3 men is equal to that of 2 women and the wages of 2 women is equal to that of 3 children. Find the total wages of 6 men, 5 women and 2 children.
52.
2) ` 24350
3) ` 26350
4) ` 27450
5) ` 20850
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1) ` 26450
A thief is spotted by a policeman from a distance of 400 m. When the policeman starts chasing, the thief also starts
running. If the speed of the thief is 15 km/h and that of the policeman is 33 km/h, how far will the thief have run before he is overtaken by the policeman? 1) 333 m 53.
2) 343 m
3) 444 m
4) 353 m
5) 453 m
A watch is listed at ` 2400 and two successive discounts of 15% and 15% are given on it. How much would the shopkeeper gain or loss percent if he gives a single discount of 30% instead of two discounts? 1) 3 % gain
54.
2) 7% loss
3) 8% gain
5) 8% loss
A rectangular piece of paper is 88 cm long and 20 cm broad. It is folded such that its length becomes the circumference
1) 12420 cm3
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of the base of a cylinder. Find the volume of the cylinder.
55.
4) 3% loss
2) 12320 cm3
3) 14140 cm3
4) 12620 cm3
5) 14320 cm3
The expenses on medicine, fruits and milk of a family are in the ratio 14 :17 : 5. The prices of these articles are increased by 25%, 30% and 60% respectively. Then, the total expenses of the family on these articles are increased by. 1) 34.28%
3) 38%
4) 30%
5) 36%
Two vessels A and B contain oil and water in the ratio of 5 : 3 and 7 : 6 respectively. Find the ratio in which these mixtures
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56.
2) 32.22%
are to be mixed to get a new mixture containing oil and water in the ratio of 9 : 7. 1) 5 : 11 57.
2) 7 : 13
3) 9 : 11
4) 5 : 9
5) 5 : 13
My brother counted the guavas of 324 guava trees of his garden. The average number of guavas was 2130. If the counting of guavas of one tree was written as 2880 instead of 2008. Then, find the correct average number of guavas. 1) 2027.3
58.
2) 2427.5
3) 2127.3
4) 2117.3
5) 2685.5
Rajeev invested certain sum in three different schemes A, B and C with the rate of interest 8% pa, 10% pa and 12%
C
pa respectively. If the total interest accrued in 1 year was ` 2156 and the amount invested in scheme C was 125% of the amount invested in scheme A and 180% of the amount invested in scheme B, then what was the amount invested in scheme B?
2) ` 4500
3) ` 4000 4) ` 4200 5) ` 3500 7 Raman got married 8 years ago. His present age is times of his age at the time of his marriage. Raman's brother was 5 6 years younger to him at the time of his marriage. The present age of Raman's brother is:
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1) ` 5000 59.
1) 20 years
60.
2) 25 years
3) 26 years
4) 29 years
5) 22 years
In a recent survey, 45% houses consist of two or more people. Of those houses containing only one person, 30% were having only a male. What is the percentage of all houses, which contains exactly one female and no male? 1) 38.5%
2) 42.5%
SBIPO-PT007
3) 44.6%
4) 36.5%
5) 48.8%
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BSC Academy Directions (Q. 61-65) : Study the graph carefully and answer the questions given below.
70
Speed (in km/hr)
60
60
50 40 30
48 44
44
32
32
52
52
44
44
44
40
A C
24
20 10 0 D3
D4
D5
D6
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D2
60 56
56 52
B
24
D1
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Speed (in km/hr) of three buses on different routes on different days.
Days
What is the average speed of bus A in metre per second for all the days together? 1) 178.4
62.
2) 182.4
2) 6 : 7
2) 93%
3) 5 : 7
4) 6 : 5
5) 7 : 5
3) 86%
4) 87%
5) 91%
If the distance travelled by bus B on day D4 was 975 km, what was the time taken by it to travel that distance? 1) 18 hour 45 min
2) 17 hour 45 min
3) 18 hour
4) 19 hour
5) 17 hour
What is the approximate percent increase in the speed of bus C on day D3 from the previous day? 2) 72%
3) 74%
4) 83%
5) 85%
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1) 88%
C
65.
5) 184.6
Average speed of bus C is approximately what percent of the average speed of bus B over the days? 1) 89%
64.
4) 188.4
If the distance travelled by bus A and bus B on day D5 were the same, what was the ratio of the time taken by bus A to that time taken by bus B to travel that distance? 1) 5 : 6
63.
3) 180
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61.
SBIPO-PT007
13
BSC Academy Test III Reasoning Ability
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Directions (Q. 66–70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A group of seven players P,Q, R, S, T, U and V play different games viz ;– Hockey, Football, Tennis, Badminton, Cricket, Table Tennis and Golf. They are from seven different countries France, Germany, Canada, Australia, India, USA and Britain, but not necessarily in the same order. Q plays cricket but neither from India nor from Britain. R is from USA but doesn't play either Table Tennis or Golf. U plays Hockey and is from Britain. The one who plays Golf is from India. The one who is from France plays Badminton. P doesn't play Football. Tennis is neither played by V nor by P. V lives in Australia. T is neither from India nor from Britain but plays Badminton. Q and S are not from Germany. Who is from Germany? 1) S 67.
2) V
3) R
R plays which of the following game? 1) Golf 2) Tennis
3) Badminton
4) P
5) Other than given options
4) Hockey
5) Table Tennis
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66.
68.
Which of the following Combination is true? 1) V–Football–Britain 2) R–Tennis–not from USA 3) T–Badminton–France 4) U–Golf–India 5) All the above
69.
Who does play Golf ?
70.
2) R
3) V
4) P
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1) T
The person who plays football is from 1) Britain 2) India
3) Australia
4) Canada
5) S 5) Germany
Directions (Q. 71-75): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer: 1) If only conclusion II is true. 2) If only conclusion I is true.
3) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
C
4) If either conclusion I or II is true.
5) If both conclusion I and II is true. (71–72):
U > S< V = M
Conclusions: I. S > M
II. U < R
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71.
Statements: R < S T,
72.
Conclusions: I. R= T
II. R < M
(73–74):
Statements: A < H > Q = L , N < Q V < Z
73.
Conclusions: I. H > N
II. L = Q < Z
74.
Conclusions: I. L > A
II. H > L
SBIPO-PT007
15
BSC Academy 75.
Statements: R P ,
L< T,
Conclusions: I. R < T
II. P < L
R L
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Directions (Q. 76–80): In each question given below three or four statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take all the given statements to be true even if they seen to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and decide which logically follows from all the given statement disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer: 1) if only conclusion I follows. 2) if only conclusion II follows. 3) if either conclusion I or II follows. 4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows. 5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
Statements: Some books are copy.
All pens are pencils.
Conclusions: I. Some pencils are not copy.
77.
Conclusions: I. A copy can never be pen.
Statements : No page is paper.
No copy is a pen. II. A few copy is book. II. Some pens are not books.
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76.
(78–79):
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(76–77):
Some papers are prints.
All pages are pictures.
No print is picture.
78.
Conclusions: I. Some papers are not a picture is a possibility.
II. Some pictures are not pages.
79.
Conclusions: I. All picture being a page is a possibility.
II. All papers being prints is a possibility.
80.
Statements: All bottles are boxes.
No bag is a cup.
C
All boxes are cups.
Conclusions: I. Some bags are boxes is a possibility.
II. No bag is a bottle.
Directions (Q. 81 – 84): Following questions are based on the five three–digit numbers given below: 457
982
129
BS
789 81.
Which of the following is the sum of third and the first digits of the lowest number?
1) 6
82.
418
2) 8
3) 10
4) 13
5) Other than given options
If the position of the first and the second digits of each of the numbers are interchanged. Which of the following will be the second digit of the third highest number? 1) 8
2) 4
SBIPO-PT007
3) 2
4) 7
5) Other than given options
17
BSC Academy If the position of the first and third digits of each of the numbers is interchanged, which of the following will be the last digit of the second lowest number? 1) 4 84.
2) 9
3) 1
4) 2
5) 7
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83.
If the position of the second and third digits of each of the numbers is interchanged, which of the following will be the first digit of the third lowest number? 1) 2
2) 8
3) 4
4) 7
5) Other than given options
Directions (Q. 85 – 88): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. When a word and number arrangement is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Input : year 18 13 trophy 4 system need 25
Step II: trophy year 13 4 system need 25 18 Step III: trophy year system 13 4 need 25 18 Step IV: trophy year system 4 need 25 18 13 Step V: trophy year system need 4 25 18 13 Step VI: trophy year system need 25 18 13 4
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Step I: trophy year 18 13 4 system need 25
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And step VI is the last step of the above arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the above step, find out the appropriate step for the given input. Input: volume 20 resign 25 request betray 5 14. 85.
How many steps will be require to complete the rearrangement? 1) Five 2) Six 3) Seven Which of the following step will be last step but one? 1) betray request resign volume 25 20 5 14 2) betray request volume resign 25 20 14 5 3) request volume betray resign 25 20 5 14 4) There will be no such step. 5) Other than given options
87.
Step IV of an input is: ray quest some sign 25 20 5 14
5) Less than four
BS
C
86.
4) Four
Which of the following is definitely the input?
88.
1) ray 25 some sign 20 quest 5 14 3) Cannot be determined 5) Other than given options What is the position of 'resign' in third step? 1) Fifth from the right 2) Fourth from the right 4) Sixth from the left 5) Both 2 and 3
SBIPO-PT007
2) ray 20 some 5 14 sign 25 quest 4) ray 25 some sign 5 14 quest 20
3) Fifth from the left
19
BSC Academy Directions (Q. 89–93): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
89.
Who is third to the right of P? 1) S 2) R
3) Q
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A group of eight members P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre, but not necessarily in the same order. V is second to the right of U, who is at equal distance from T either from anticlockwise or from clockwise. W is not an immediate neighbour of S. W is third to the right of Q. R is not an immediate neighbour of either U or V. Q is an immediate neighbour of T and V. 4) V
5) Other than given options
90.
Which of the following pairs represents the first person is immediate left of second person? 1) QT 2) VS 3) PU 4) Both1 and 3 5) Other than given options
91.
Who among the following is second to the right of V? 1) U 2) S 3) T
92.
How many persons are between P and V, as we count from P in anticlockwise? 1) Three 2) Two 3) Other than given options
5) Other than given options 4) Five
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5) Four 93.
4) W
Which of the following combination represents the first and the third to the left of U respectively? 1) WR 2) RP 3) PR 4) WT 5) Other than given options
Directions (Q. 94–96): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
Ac
1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. 2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. 3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. 4) If the data in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. 5) If the data in both the statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 94.
Among M, N, O, P, Q and R each having different height. Who is the tallest one? I. N is taller than P but shorter than O and Q.
95.
C
II. R is only shorter than Q. Among A, B, C, D, E and F, who is third to the left of B? All are sitting in a circle facing away from the centre. I. A sits second to the right of B, who is second to the right of D. II. E sits between A and B and second to the left of C. Point X is towards which direction from point W? I. X is 5 m to the South of P, who is 6 m to the north of R, who is 2 m east from W.
BS
96.
II. W is 3 m to the north of Q, who is 5 m to the east of T and 4 m to the west of R. Directions (Q. 97–100): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
S is Grandmother of W, who is niece of Q, R is daughter–in–law of T, who is husband of S. U is the only daughter of T, whose only son Q is the father of P. 97.
How is S related to P? 1) Mother 2) Grandmother
SBIPO-PT007
3) Cannot be determined 4) Sister
5) Other than given options
21
BSC Academy
99.
What is relation between R and U? 1) U is Mother–in–Law of R 4) Cannot be determined
2) R is sister of U 3) U is sister–in–law of R 5) Other than given options
How is P related to W? 1) Brother 2) Sister
3) Cannot be determined 4) Cousin
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98.
5) Other than given options
100. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group, which is the one that does not belong to the group? 2) BG
3) DE
4) CD
5) CF
BS
C
Ac
ad
1) AZ
SBIPO-PT007
23
BSC Academy (BANKING SERVICES CHRONICLE)
SBIPO-PT-008 (Based on SBI PO (PRE) latest pattern for COMMON WRITTEN EXAM) No. of Questions : 100
Time : 1 hr
Name of Student : ____________________________
Father’s Name: ______________________________
Centre : _____________________________________
Batch No.: ___________________________________
Read the directions (given below) carefully. 1. 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6. 7.
8.
9.
bl i q fLr dkesafuEufyf[ kr i ka p i z'ukofy; kagS a% i z'ukoyhI - va xzst hHkk"kk i z-Ø1–30 i z'ukoyhII - l a [ ; kRed vfHk; ksX; r k i z-Ø31–65 i z'ukoyhIII - r dZ ' kfDr i z-Ø- 66–100 bu pkj i z'ukofy; ksadsmÙkj nsusdsfy, vki dksdq y 1:00 ?ka Vsdk l e; fn; kt k, xkAi z'ukofy; ksadsfy, vyx&vyx l e; ughagS A vki vi uhbPNkdsvuq l kj l e; dkl a foHkkt u dj l dr sgS a ] i ja rq vki dksLej .k j [ kuk pkfg, fd bl i j h{kk esal Qy gksusdsfy, vki dksr huksi z'ukofy; ksaesavyx&vyx l Qy gksukvko' ; d gS A r dZ ' kfDr vkS j la [ ; kRed vfHk; ksX; r k dh i z'ukofy; kafgUnh vkS j va xzst hnksuksaHkk"kkvksaesaNi hgq bZgS AfgUnh: i kUrj ck, ar j Q dsi Uus a i j vkS j va xzst hnkfgusr j Q dsi Uusi j Ni sgq , gS a A vxj vki xyr mÙkj nsa xsr ksna MLo: i vki dsva d ksaesadVkS r hdh t k, xhA , sl sfdl hHkhi z'u dsfu/kkZ fj r va d ksaesal s]ft l dk vki us xyr mÙkj fn; k gS ] na M ds: i esa, d&pkS FkkbZ; k 0.25 va d dkV fy, t k, a xsA j Q dke] ; fn vki dj ukpkgsa ] r ksbl i q fLr dkesaghdj ukpkfg, u fd mÙkj i =ki j Abl gsrqgkf' k, dhvFkokvU; =kmi yC/k[ kkyh t xg dkmi ; ksx dhft , vU; fdl hdkxt dkmi ; ksx u dhft , A vi usmÙkj vyx mÙkj i =ki j , p-ch- i sfUl y dki z;ksx dj n' kkZ b, A mÙkj n' kkZ usdsfy, mÙkj i =kesafn, x, vuq ns'kksadki kyu dhft , A vki dsmÙkj i =k esamÙkj n' kkZ usdsfy, 100 mÙkj LFkku gS a A bl iq fLr dkesafn, gq , 100 i z'uksadsmÙkj nsusdsfy, 100 mÙkj LFkkuksa dk mi ; ksx dhft , A t c r d funsZ ' k u feysbl i q fLr dk dkser [ kksfy, A i q fLr dk [ kksy usdkfunsZ ' kfeyusi j i q fLr dkdsck, afdukj si j yxsgq , eq M+ s gq , r kj fudkyusdki z;kl u dj sa Ai sa fl y dsfi NysHkkx dhenn l snkfguhr j Q yxsLVhdj dksQkM+ dj i q fLr dk dks[ kksy sa A iq fLr dk [ kksy r sght ka p yhft , fd l Hkhi `"B ft u i j i z'u 1 l s 100 gS a ] l ghi zd kj l sNi sgq , gS avkS j fQj i z'ukofy; ksadsmÙkj nsuk i zkj a Hkdhft , A; fn i q fLr dknks"ki w . kZgksr ksbl sml hi z'ukoyhi zk: i Øeka d okyhnw l j hi z'ui q fLr dkl scnyokyhft , A
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
This Booklet contains five tests as follows : Test I - English Language Q.Nos. 1–30 Test II - Quantitative Aptitude Q.Nos. 31–65 Test III - Reasoning Q.Nos. 66–100 You will be given an aggregate time of 1:00 hours to answer all the three tests. The tests are not separately timed. You may distribute the time as you please but remember that to qualify in the written test as a whole you have to qualify on each of the three tests separately. Tests of Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude are printed in both Hindi and English. The Hindi version is printed on the left hand side page and the English version on the right hand side page. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by you, one-fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. Rough work, if you want to do any, is to be done in this booklet itself and not on the answersheet. For this purpose use the empty space in the margin or anywhere else you find in this booklet. Do not use any other paper. Indicate your answers on the separate answersheet (given at the end of the booklet), using HB Pencil. Follow the instructions given on the answersheet for indicating your answers. Your answersheet contains answer-spaces for answering 100 questions. Use 100 answer spaces for answering the 100 questions given in this booklet. Do not open the booklet Until you are told to do so. When the instruction for opening the booklet is given, do not try to remove the wire staples at the left. Insert the blunt end of your pencil under the sticker and tear it to open the booklet. Immediately after opening the booklet, verify that all the pages containing questions from 1 to 100 are properly printed in your booklet and then begin answering the test. In case the booklet is defective get it replaced by another test booklet.
BSC Academy Test I English Language
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Directions (Q. 1 – 10) : In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete. Nelson Mandela is one of the world’s most (1) statesmen, who led the (2) to replace the (3) regime of South Africa with a multi-racial democracy. He was jailed for 27 years. He emerged in 1990 to become the country’s first black president four years later and to play a (4) role in the (5) for peace in other (6) of conflict. He won the Nobel Peace Prize in 1993. His charisma, self-deprecating sense of humour and lack of bitterness (7) his harsh treatment, as well as his (8) life story, (9) explain his extraordinary global (10). 1) despise
2) revered
3) notorious
4) disregarded
5) treasured
2.
1) struggle
2) exalt
3) adore
4) life
5) work
3.
1) unity
2) developed
3) apartheid
4) esteemed
5) venerated
4.
1) leading
2) team
3) auxiliary
4) inferior
5) ruling
5.
1) advance
2) need
3) stimulate
4) drive
5) patch
6.
1) spheres
2) reference
3) features
4) reasons
5) shine
7.
1) in
2) on
3) at
4) with
5) over
8.
1) particular
2) amazing
3) real
4) plausible
5) credible
9.
1) fictitious
2) legendary
3) partly
4) normally
5) usually
4) denial
5) retraction
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1.
10. 1) reply
2) appeal
3) revocation
Directions (Q. 11–15): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below. A) With desperate need for land for agricultural, industrial and most importantly urban needs to contain cities and their growing population, a direct action that we have come to recognize as “Deforestation” occurs. B) With the world growing at a pace hard to match, the increasing need for space is turning out to be an area of concern. C) It involves permanent end of forest cover to make that land available for residential, commercial or industrial purpose.
C
D) Deforestation in simple term means the felling and clearing of forest cover or tree plantations in order to accommodate agricultural, industrial or urban use. E) Over the last century the forest cover around the globe has been greatly compromised, leaving the green cover down to an all time low of about 30 per cent. 11. Which of the following would be the ‘THIRD’ sentence after rearrangement? 2) B
3) A
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1) D
4) C
5) E
12. Which of the following would be the ‘FIRST’ sentence after rearrangement? 1) A
2) B
3) E
4) C
5) D
13. Which of the following would be the ‘LAST’ (FIFTH) sentence after rearrangement? 1) E
2) C
3) A
4) D
5) B
14. Which of the following would be the ‘SECOND’ sentence after rearrangement? 1) D
2) B
3) A
4) C
5) E
15. Which of the following would be the ‘FOURTH’ sentence after rearrangement?
2
SBIPO-PT-008
BSC Academy 1) B
2) A
3) D
4) E
5) C
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Directions (Q. 16–20): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’ the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any) 16. The former president has made1)/ few public appearances 2)/ for retiring 3)/ from public life. 4)/ No error 5) 17. I have been treated1)/ at hospital 2)/ several times 3)/ in the past two years. 4) /No error 5)
18. In recent months 1)/ Shreya has been 2)/ troubled repeatedly 3)/ by a lung infection 4)/No error 5)
19. They were eventually arrested 1)/ and charged with sabotage 2)/ and attempting to violently 3)/ overthrow government. 4)/ No error 5)
20. Hundreds were killed 1)/ and thousands were injured 2)/ before the school children’s uprising 3)/were crushed. 4)/ No error 5)
Directions (Q. 21–25) : Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given below each statement should replace the phrase which is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and No correction is required, mark 5) as the answer.
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21. She had been convicted in charges of kidnapping and accessory to assault. 1) convicted at
2) convicted on
4) convicted to
5) No correction required
3) convicted of
22. He continued travelling the world, meeting leaders and attending conferences when step down as Prime Minister. 1) after stepping down
2) when stepped down
5) No correction required
3) when step in
4) when step on
1) in peak season
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23. The government has to intensify the information and education campaign much before peak season occur. 2) before peak season took place
3) before the peak season occurs 5) No correction required
4) before in the season is on peak
24. A panic–like situation should not occur. 1) As panic as
2) A panic some
4) Panic like
3) As panic like
5) No correction required
1) is comprising of 4) will comprise of
C
25. The committee is comprising the director of research and experts form Mumbai and Nagpur will decide on newer strategies to deal with this social problem. 2) comprising
3) will comprising of
5) No correction required
BS
Directions (Q. 26–30): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Yoga got a strong leg up on the world stage when Prime Minister called for observing an International Yoga Day, describing the ancient science as “India’s gift to the world. PM unexpected reference to yoga during his UN General Assembly speech came when he was talking about climate change and going back to basics. Yoga is not just about fitness or exercise, it is about changing one’s lifestyle, According to Prime Minister plugging for ancient practice that was introduced to the west by PM spiritual inspiration, Swami Vivekananda. Yoga is enjoying rising popularity in the United States and has now become a multi-billion dollar business, but its link to India is often understated. PM public reference on the world stage to India’s gift is possible meant to remind
SBIPO-PT-008
3
BSC Academy international audience of this link. Some organisations have been celebrating World Yoga Day since 2007, but it has no official sanction. 26. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning the word ‘leg up’ as used in the passage? 2. Impediment
3. Alleviation
27. What effect did yoga have on our life? 1. Yoga is one of the best ways to calm a disturbed mind. 2. It releases stress and improves immunity.
4. Benevolence
5. Endowment
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1. Salvation
3. Yoga and meditation have the power to improve you intuitive ability. 4. All 1, 2 and 3 5. Other than given options.
28. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word ‘plugging’ as used in the passage? 1. Handling
2. Transporting
3. Cultivating
5. Discouraging
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29. Which of the following is definitely ‘TRUE’ according to the passage?
4. Encouraging
1. The benefits of practising yoga are a healthy and balanced life.
2. Yoga can provide relief from the hustle and bustle of modern life. 3. Yoga is just an exercise. 4. The benefits of yoga are similar to Jim. 5. Other than given options
Ac
30. Which of the following best describes “India’s gift to the world”?
1) When all else fails to calm your mind, Yoga is guaranteed to fill you with peace and serenity. 2) The term yoga is derived from a Sanskrit word meaning ‘to join together', that is the heritage of India. 3) Indian culture imparts wisdom, creativity and peace to the world.
4) It would be a shame to bring back the phrase ‘India’s gift to the world’ now banished from polite conversation, with a new meaning.
BS
C
5) Other than given options
4
SBIPO-PT-008
BSC Academy Test II Quantitative Aptitude
31.
2820 4.98 11.02 48.65 ?– 1429 49.85
1) 1789
2) 2038
3) 1938
2
32.
34.962 18.04 36.01 120 ? 9.01 18.10 1) 735
33.
2) 675
3) 625
81.96% of 2400 + 45.08% of 280 = ? % of 1600 1) 111
2) 167
3) 158
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Directions (Q. 31–33): What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
4) 2239
5) 1864
4) 810
5) 575
4)175
5) 131
34.
5 13 26 24 % of 51200= ? 8 2 3 5 1) 45 2) 55
3) 50
4) 56
5) 58
3) 16431
4) 14651
5) 15381
3) 154
4) 110
5) 134
250
2780 ×
?
= 5000
1) 18341 36.
2) 19321
Ac
35.
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Directions (Q. 34-36): What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
1498 % of 12800 + ? % of 34900 = 242000 1) 105
2) 144
Directions (Q. 37 –40): In the following number series one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number. 37.
37, 65, 82, 101, 145, 196 1) 145
38.
2) 65
128, 131, 136, 143, 151, 163 1) 128 1) 859
40.
4) 196
5) 101
3) 143
4) 151
5) 131
3) 989
4) 1059
5) 1399
3) 49
4) 20.5
5) 108
1399, 1203, 1059, 989, 895, 859
C
39.
2) 163
3) 82
2) 895
904, 448, 220, 108, 49, 20.5 1) 904
2) 220
BS
Directions (Q. 41–44): In each of these questions, two equations numbered I and II with variables x and y are given. You have to solve both the equations to find the value of x and y. Give answer: 1) if x > y
2) if x y
4) if x y
5) if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be determined.
41.
I. 6x2 – 5x – 56 = 0
II. y2 + 11y + 28 = 0
42.
I. 44x2 + 37x + 3 = 0
II. y2 + 12y + 11 = 0
43.
I. 3x2 + 17x+ 20 = 0
II. 2y2 + 13y + 21 = 0
44.
I. x2 – 9x + 14 = 0
II. y2 – 2y – 35 = 0
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3) if x < y
7
BSC Academy Directions (Q. 45–47): Each question below is followed by two statements A and B. You have to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of mathematics to choose between the possible answers. Give answer:
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1) if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement B alone is not sufficient. 2) if the statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement A alone is not sufficient. 3) if the both statement A and B together are needed to answer the question.
4) if either the statement A alone or B alone is sufficient to answer the question.
5) if you cannot get the answer from the statements A and B together, but needed even more data. 45.
If Anu’s and Arjun’s annual salaries in 2013 were 15% higher than their respective annual salaries in 2012. What was Arjun’s salary in 2013? A. The sum of Anu’s and Arjun’s annual salaries in 2012 was ` 2,50,000.
B. The sum of Anu’s and Arjun’s annual salaries in 2013 was ` 2,87,500. 46.
What is the length of the diagonal of the rectangle?
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A. The perimeter of the rectangle is 48 m. B. Area of the rectangle is 140 m2. 47.
How much time will the leak take to empty the full cistern? A. The cistern is normally filled in 8 hours.
B. It takes two hour more than the usual time to fill the cistern because of a leak in the bottom.
1) 49.
1 6
2)
2 % 3
1 4
5)
1 5
2) 22.45%
3) 32.85%
4) 29.67%
5) 28.57%
1 2) 36 % 3
3) 36
2 % 3
4) 35
1 % 6
1 5) 39 % 3
BS
2) 376.5 km
3) 398.5 km
4) 354.17 km
5) 396.5 km
In 2013, ratio of the number of students taking admissions in three colleges x, y and z respectively are 4 : 5 : 7. Next year, the number of students is increased by 15%, 10% and 20% respectively. If the ratio of the number of students in college x to z is 23 : 42, then find the number of students who took admission in 2013. 1) 5000
53.
4)
An express train travelled at an average speed of 120 km/h, stopping for 4 min after every 80 km. A local train travelled at a speed of 50 km/h, stopping for 1 min after every 30 km. If the trains began travelling at the same time, how many kilometres did the local train travel if express train travels 800 km? 1) 386.5 km
52.
1 7
The marked price of bed sheet and pillow covers are in the ratio of 2 : 3. The shopkeeper gives 55% discount on bed sheet. If total discount on both is 40%, the discount offered on the pillow cover is: 1) 38
51.
3)
A can do a piece of work in 28 days and B can do the same piece of work in 36 days. If they work together, then, by what percent, the wages of A is more than that of B? 1) 26.57%
50.
1 3
Ac
A container is filled with liquid, 8 parts of which are wine and 12 parts are water. How much of the mixtures must be drawn off and replaced with wine so that the mixtures may be half water and half wine?
C
48.
2) 12000
3) 8000
4) 9000
5) Data insufficient
Ranveer lent out 30% of a certain sum at the annual rate of 12%, he lent 20% of the remaining at the annual rate of 15% and the rest amount was lent at 25% p.a. Find the annual rate on whole sum. 1) 18.7%
2) 19.7%
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3) 18.1%
4) 16.5%
5) 15.9%
9
BSC Academy Two pipes P1 and P2 can fill a tank in 24 min and 36 min respectively. An outlet pipe P3 can empty the full tank in 18 min. P1, P2 and P3 are opened alternatively each for 1 min. How long will the tank take to be filled? 1) 189 min 55.
2) 191 min
3) 203 min
4) 188 min
5) 192 min
Anuska walks a certain distance and ride back taking a total time of 86 min. She could walk both the ways in 124 min. How long would she take to ride both ways? 1) 50 min
2) 44 min
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54.
3) 43 min
4) 48 min
5) 52 min
(56–57): A basket contains 5 black, 6 yellow and 4 red balls. 4 balls are drawn at random.
58.
5)
1) 20/273
5) 31/273
2) 29/273
2) 19 : 20
3) 7 : 8
4) 11: 12
5) 8 : 9
Average marks obtained by Sachin in Maths, Science and English is 70 and his average marks in History and English is 60. What is his average marks obtained in Maths and Science? 1) 58
60.
4) 38/273
24 91
The number of students speaking English and Hindi are in the ratio of 4 : 5. If the number of students speaking English increased by 35% and Hindi increased by 20%, what would be the new respective ratio? 1) 9 : 10
59.
3) 28/273
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57.
What is the probability that the ball drawn contains no red balls? 18 20 22 16 1) 2) 3) 4) 91 91 91 91 What is the probability that the ball drawn contains exactly 3 black balls?
2) 54
3) 51
4) 52
5) Cannot be determined
In how many different ways can the letters of the word “DESIGN” be rearranged in such a way that none of the consonants are at either end? 1) 240
2) 72
3) 48
4) 36
Ac
56.
5) 120
Directions (Q. 61-65) : Study the graph carefully and answer the question given below. Production of wheat and rice (in tonnes) over the year.
80
Wheat Rice
70
70
60
60
60
C
Production
55 50 45
50
50 40
40 30
35 30
25
20
20 15
20 10
BS
10
10
0
2007
SBIPO-PT-008
2008
2009
2010
2011
2012
2013
2014
Year
11
BSC Academy In which of the following years the percentage increase in the production of wheat from the previous year is maximum? 1) 2009 62.
2) 2010 2) 34 tonnes
3) 36 tonnes
4) 39 tonnes
5) 35 tonnes
2) 102%
3) 107%
4) 101%
5) 105%
Production of wheat in the year 2011 is approximately what percent more than the production of rice in the same year? 1) 15%
65.
5) Both 2010 and 2011
The average production of rice in the given years in approximately what percent of the average production of wheat in the given years? 1) 95%
64.
4) 2011
What is the approximate average production of wheat in the given years? 1) 38 tonnes
63.
3) 2013
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61.
2) 13.42%
3) 17.76%
4) 14%
5) 16.67%
In how many years, the production of rice is more than the production of wheat? 2) Four
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than four
BS
C
Ac
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1) One
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13
BSC Academy Test III Reasoning Ability
66.
Statements: P Q = N > S R = T Conclusion: I. P T
II. N > T
1) Both conclusions I and II are true. 4) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
2) Only conclusion I is true. 3) Only conclusion II is true. 5) Either conclusion I or II is true.
67. Statements: P N = Q M R > S II. P = M
1) Only conclusion I is true.
2) Only conclusion II is true.
3) Both conclusions I and II are true.
4) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
Statements: K = L M,
N O P,
II. L O
1) Only conclusion II is true.
2) Either conclusion I or II is true.
3) Both conclusion I and II are true.
4) Only conclusion I is true.
Ac
Statements: N O < P = Q, Q > T = R Conclusion: I. O = R 1) Only conclusion I is true.
3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true. 5) Either conclusion I or II is true. 70.
MNQ
Conclusion: I. K Q
5) Neither conclusion I nor II is true. 69.
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Conclusion: I. P > R
5) Either conclusion I or II is true. 68.
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Directions (Q. 66-70): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusion based on the given statement and selects the appropriate answer.
II. P > R
2) Both conclusions I and II are true. 4) Only conclusion II is true.
Statements: Z X = Y W > V > U
C
Conclusion: I. Z > U
II. U < Y
1) Only conclusion I is true.
2) Both conclusions I and II are true.
3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
4) Only conclusion II is true.
5) Either conclusion I or II is true.
BS
Directions (Q. 71–73): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: In a certain code ‘good time for India’, is written as ‘mo jo ki la’, ‘time for money’ is written as 'ki la ha' , 'earn more money' is written as ‘ha re pa’ and ‘manage time more’ is written as ‘ki pa ru’. 71.
What is the code for ‘money’? 1) ha 2) ru 3) re 72. Which of the following may represent ‘India earn money’? 1) re ha mo 2) ru ha la 4) Cannot be determined 5) Either 1 or 3
SBIPO-PT-008
4) pa
5) la
3) re ha jo
15
BSC Academy What does ‘ru’ stands for? 1) money 74.
2) more
3) manage
In a certain code, ‘ROUTE’ is written as ‘6 that code? 1) 8 @ 6 5
2) 7
6 5
4) India
@ ©’ and POEM is written as ‘7 3) 8
6 5
5) good 5 8’. How is ‘MORE’ written in in
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73.
4) 8 © 6 5
5) 8 5 © 7
Directions (Q. 75 – 80): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
1) B
2) F
3) H
76. Which of the following statement is true? 1) A is going to Patna.
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Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table in such a way that some of them facing the centre while some them facing the outward but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them is going to a different city viz Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Jaipur, Goa, Bhopal, Patna and Lucknow but not necessarily in the same order. C is facing the centre and second to the left of A, who is going to Bhopal and facing outside. The one who is going to Patna neither E nor D but sits second to the right of A. The one who is facing outward is going to Jaipur and immediate right of D. F sits second to the right of C. The one who is going to Mumbai facing the G and is neither immediate neighbour of F nor E. B facing the same direction as facing G and second to the right of D, who is neither going to Goa nor Patna. The immediate neighbour of E facing inward and outward. G is third to the right of H, who is not going to Jaipur, Lucknow or Patna. The one who is going to Lucknow is an immediate neighbour of the person who is going to Patna and Bhopal. D is going to Delhi and facing outward. B is going to Chennai and is on immediate left of the person F who is going to Jaipur. Neither A nor F is an immediate neighbour of G. 75. Who is going to Jaipur? 4) A
5) G
3) G is going to Delhi. 4) F is going to Chennai. 5) Other than given options 77.
Which of the following combination is not true? 1) D – Delhi
78.
Ac
2) The person who is going to Lucknow is on immediate right of A.
2) E – Bhopal
Who sit third to the right of A?
3) F – Jaipur
4) H – Goa
5) B – Chennai
80.
C
1) B 2) G 3) D 4) C 5) F 79. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their sitting arrangement and so form a group, which is the one that does not belong to the group? 1) DG 2) EA 3) GC 4) DF 5) AH How many persons are facing outward? 1) Two
2) Three
3) Four
4) Five
5) Six
Directions (Q. 81 – 85): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
BS
When a word and number arrangement is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Input: power 82 95 asked more 72 strong fulfill 17 15 even Step I: asked power 82 95 more 72 strong fulfill 17 15 even Step II: asked 95 power 82 more 72 strong fulfill 17 15 even Step III: asked 95 even power 82 more 72 strong fulfill 17 15 Step IV: asked 95 even 82 power more 72 strong fulfill 17 15 Step V: asked 95 even 82 fulfill power more 72 strong 17 15
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17
BSC Academy Step VI: asked 95 even 82 fulfill 72 power more strong 17 15 Step VII: asked 95 even 82 fulfill 72 more power strong 17 15 Step IX: asked 95 even 82 fulfill 72 more 17 power 15 strong.
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Step VIII: asked 95 even 82 fulfill 72 more 17 power strong 15 And step IX is the last step of the above arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the above step, find out the appropriate step for the given input. Input: above rule 92 followed by 73 65 47 the employees 18 in 12 company 45 81.
How many steps will be require to complete the rearrangement? 1) Nine
82.
2) Eleven
3) Twelve
4) Ten
5) Eight
Which of the following would be the fourth position from the left in step III? 1) 73
2) rule
3) 92
4) by
5) in
83. In which step are the elements ‘above 92 rule’ found in the same order? 2) Fourth
3) The given order element is not found in any step 4) First
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1) Third
5) Second
84. What is the position of 18 from the right end in step IV? 1) Fifth
2) Fourth
3) Sixth
4) Third
5) Seventh
4) 65
5) company
85. Which element is eighth to the left of the ‘12’ in step VI? 2) by
3) 47
Ac
1) 73
Directions (Q. 86 – 90): In each questions given below two/three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take all the given statements to be true even if they seen to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and decide which logically follows from all the given statement disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer: 1). If only conclusion I follows. 2). If only conclusion II follows.
3). If either conclusion I or II follows.
4). If neither conclusion I nor II follows. 86.
C
5). If both conclusions I and II follow.
Statements: Some poems are novels.
All books are poems.
Conclusions: I. All poem being novel is a possibility. 87. Statements:
All germs are infections.
All infections are bad.
BS
Conclusions: I. All bad are germs.
88.
Statements: Some papers are metals. Statements: All windows are doors.
No metal is a wood.
Statements: All letters are words. Conclusion: I. No letter is a sentence.
SBIPO-PT-008
No germ is harmful. All woods are alloys. II. Some papers are not woods.
Some doors are locks.
Conclusions: I. All locks being windows is a possibility.
90.
II. Some books are good. II. No harmful is an infection.
Conclusions: I. All metals being alloy is a possibility.
89.
No poem is good.
II. All doors being locks is a possibility.
No word is a sentence. II. Some sentences are letters.
19
BSC Academy
92.
In a certain code language ‘do re me’ means ‘he is going’, ‘la me pa’ means ‘she is singing’, and ‘ta do ka’ means ‘he plays cricket’. What is the code for ‘going’? 1) me
2) ka
3) re
4) la
5) Other than given options
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91.
How many pairs of letters are there in the word PHOTOGRAPH each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? 1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) Other than given options
93. In a certain code FOREST is written as UUHVTL. How is TYPES written in that code? 1) TGSCY
2) TSGCY
3) UFQTY
4) UZQFT
5) Other than given options.
94. How many pairs of digits are there in the number 4651328 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order? 2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) Other than given options
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1) None
95. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1) TPR
2) WSU
3) NJL
4) LPS
5) HDF
Directions (Q. 96 – 100): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below: δ K
8
Q
7
%
U
T
I
V
9
$
M
Ac
J 2 @
D
P
1
4
F
©
A
E
3
96. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter? 1) One
2) Two
4) None 97.
3) Three
5) Other than given options
If all the symbols in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be tenth from the left end? 1) M
2) I
3) V
4) 9
5) Other than given options
98. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are summed up and then divided by 2, then what will be the result? 2) 16
3) 18
C
1) 9
4) 20
5) 17
99. Which of the following is the seventh to the left of eleventh from the right end of the above arrangement? 1) % 4) 7
2) D
3) $
5) Other than given options
100. What should come next in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement? 7%T
V9M ?
BS
2@K
1) M D 1
2) 1 4 ©
4) P 1 F
5) Other than given options
SBIPO-PT-008
3) F © E
21
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