Test Paper

: II

Test Subject

: EARTH SCIENCES

Test Subject Code :

Test Booklet Serial No. : _______________________ OMR Sheet No. : _________________________________

K-3213

Roll No. (Figures as per admission card)

Name & Signature of Invigilator/s Signature: ____________________________________ Name : ____________________________________

Signature : ___________________________________ Name : ___________________________________

Paper : II Subject : EARTH SCIENCES Time : 1 Hour 15 Minutes

Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 8 1. 2. 3.

4.

Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50

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Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.

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4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example :

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A

B

C

D

where (C) is the correct response.

5. Your responses to the questions are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet kept inside the Paper I Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the ovals in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read the instructions given in OMR carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must NOT carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. 10. You can take away question booklet and carbon copy of OMR Answer Sheet soon after the examination. 11. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 12. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 13. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.

1

±Üâ.£.®æãà./P.T.O.

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Total Number of Pages : 8

EARTH SCIENCES Paper – II Note :

This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions. Each question carries two (2) marks. All questions are compulsory.

1. What do meteorites reveal about the solar system ?

3. The central part of the earth's core is a solid because

(A) The early solar system consisted mostly of hydrogen and helium gases

(A) The pressure at the centre raises the melting point (B) The magnetic field cannot penetrate the center of the core

(B) Meteorites are much older than comets and planets

(C) Convection does not extent all the way to the centre of the core

(C) The age of the solar system is approximately 4.6 Billion years

(D) The earth initially formed from solid particles in the solar nebula

(D) The solar system once contained 10 planets

4. The most favourable environment for preservation of fossil is

2. Why are the inner planets made of denser material when compared to the outer planets ?

(A) Terrestrial (B) Laccustrine

(A) In the beginning, when the proto planetary disk was spinning faster, centrifugal forces flung the lighter materials towards the outer parts of the solar nebula

(C) Fluvial (D) Marine 5. Compared to the continental crust the oceanic crust is _______________

(B) In the inner part of the nebula only metals and rocks were able to condense because of the high temperatures, whereas hydrogen compounds, although more abundant, were only able to condense in the cooler outer regions.

(A) Thinner and more dense (B) Thinner and less dense (C) Thicker and more dense (D) Thicker and less dense 6. ____________of the earth's atmosphere shields the earth from ultraviolet radiation.

(C) Denser materials sank to the center of the nebula

(A) Equatorial bulge

(D) The sun's gravity pulled denser materials towards the inner part of the solar nebula while lighter gases escaped more easily Paper II

(B) Ozone layer (C) Ionic layer (D) Protective layer 2

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Total Number of Pages : 8

10. ___________are the most characteristic eruptive rock of the island arc systems.

7. What type of a fault is a Thrust fault ? (A) Low angle normal fault (B) Low angle reverse fault

(A) Granodiorites

(C) Low angle strike slip fault

(B) Blue schist

(D) Low angle dip slip fault

(C) Andesites (D) Basalt

8. Which of the following statements is false ?

11. Gravity faults are formed under

(A) Deep crustal rocks are more likely to undergo ductile deformation than shallow crustal rocks

(A) A compressive stress regime (B) A tensile stress regime (C) A shear regime

(B) Hotter rocks are more likely to undergo ductile deformation than cooler rocks

(D) A torsion regime 12. Lamprophyres characteristically exhibit _______________ texture.

(C) Most sedimentary rocks are more deformable than igneous rocks

(A) Allotriomorphic

(D) Rocks under low confining pressure are more likely to undergo ductile deformation than rocks under high confining pressure

(C) Hypidiomorphic

(B) Automorphic (D) Panidiomorphic 13. The loose heterogeneous weathered material lying on rocky hill slopes is called _______________

9. When a shale is subjected to increasing heat and pressure, it changes in the sequence _______________

(A) Regolith (B) Soil (C) Alluvium

(A) Shale – Slate – Phyllite – Schist – Gneiss

(D) Delivium

(B) Shale – Schist – Phyllite – Slate – Gneiss

14. _______________ is a sedimentary rock without stratification.

(C) Shale – Gneiss – Phyllite – Slate – Schist

(A) Sand stone

(D) Shale – Gneiss – Phyllite – Schist – Slate

(C) Tillite

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(B) Lime stone (D) Shale 3

Paper II

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Total Number of Pages : 8

15. _______________is a cylindrical cavity stream channel produced by abrasion.

20. _______________ is the most prone to earthquake in India.

(A) Borehole

(A) The Himalaya

(B) Pot hole

(B) The Indian Peninsula

(C) Sink hole

(C) The Indogangetic plane

(D) Drip hole

(D) Precambrian shield

16. _______________is the characteristic soil developed on the Archaean basement in peninsular India.

21. What drives the earth's internal heat engine ?

(A) Regur

(A) Solar energy

(B) Alluvial soil

(B) Volcanoes

(C) Lateritic soil

(C) Magnetic energy

(D) Red soil

(D) Radio activity

17. A lime stone composed entirely of organic detritus is referred to as ______

22. Asthenosphere is _______________ (A) Cool and rigid

(A) Coquina

(B) Hot and plastic

(B) Encrinite (C) Spergenite

(C) Cool and plastic

(D) Oolite

(D) Hot and rigid 23. A vertical dyke showing transverse veins is known as

18. Calcareous and siliceous Oozes occur in _______________environments. (A) Low oxygen and Bog

(A) Stock work

(B) Deep sea

(B) Saddle reef

(C) Continental shelf

(C) Ladder vein

(D) Lagoonal

(D) Vug

19. The mid Atlantic ridge is a _______ plate boundary.

24. The only active volcano in India is _____

(A) Shear

(A) Nicobar island

(B) Consuming

(B) Laccadive island

(C) Accreting

(C) St. Mary's island

(D) Stable

(D) Barren island

Paper II

4

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Total Number of Pages : 8

25. Meteorologically, _______________is the most significant layer of the atmosphere.

30. Geostrophic wind results from a balance between _______________

(A) Troposphere

(A) Coriolis force and centripetal force

(B) Stratosphere

(B) Centripetal force, pressure gradient force and Coriolis force

(C) Mesosphere

(C) Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force and friction

(D) Thermosphere 26. Most tropical cyclones originate _______

(D) Pressure gradient force and Coriolis force

(A) Between 0° and 5° north and south of the equator (B) In the centers of sub-tropical highs

31. _______________ is the water that is trapped in sedimentary rocks.

(C) Between 10° and 20° north and south of equator

(A) Meteoric water

(D) To the west of westerly winds

(B) Connate water

27. ___________ lies closest to the equator.

(C) Juvenile water

(A) Polar cell

(D) Meteoritic water

(B) Hadley cell

32. The evaporation through plants and from the surrounding soil are together known as _______________

(C) Farrell cell (D) Kelvin cell 28. High altitude clouds are __________

(A) Evapotranspiration

(A) Cirrus

(B) Transpiration

(B) Nimbus (C) Alto

(C) Evaporation

(D) Stratus

(D) Precipitation

29. The onset of precipitation marks the beginning of a thunderstorm's ________ stage.

33. Water-holding capacity is high in ________ soils. (A) Sandy

(A) Cumulus

(B) Loamy

(B) Dissipating (C) Mature

(C) Clayey

(D) Tornadic

(D) Silty

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Paper II

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Total Number of Pages : 8

34. The primary vertical movements of ocean water are due to

39. Deep sea bottom currents in the polar regions are caused by

(A) Currents

(A) Formation ice bergs

(B) Density differences

(B) Melting of glaciers

(C) Temperature differences

(C) Excess evaporation of sea water

(D) Tides

(D) Down welling of cold waters 40. Oldest gneissic rocks exposed in Precambrian terrain constitute ________

35. _______________ is the order of cyclic sedimentation in the Gondwana. (A) Coal, Shale, Sandstone

(A) Shield

(B) Sandstone, Shale, Coal

(B) Craton

(C) Coal, Sandstone, Shale

(C) Platform

(D) Shale, Sandstone, Coal

(D) Orogenic belt

36. The characteristic fossil of the intertrappean beds is _____________

41. Tsunami is not produced by __________ (A) Strong earthquakes

(A) Cardita Beaumonti

(B) Submarine landslides

(B) Rhynconella griesbachi (C) Physa princepi

(C) The gravitational attraction of sun and moon

(D) Ococeras varaha

(D) Submarine volcanic activity 42. In the mid latitudes, the prevailing winds that can carry pollutants far beyond the source area are from _____________

37. Orogenic forces responsible for the formation of _______________ (A) Folded mountains

(A) West

(B) Block mountains

(B) North

(C) Volcanic mountains

(C) South

(D) Monodack

(D) East

38. _______________is a mineral of Zinc.

43. The maximum CO emission is from ____

(A) Covellite

(A) Auto mobile exhaust

(B) Anglesite

(B) Solid waste disposal

(C) Cerrusite

(C) Forest fires

(D) Sphalerite

(D) Electrical utilities in industries

Paper II

6

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Total Number of Pages : 8

48. Platinum group of minerals are

44. As the magnitude of natural disaster increases their frequency of occurrence is _______________

commonly associated with __________

(A) Increases

(A) Acidic rocks

(B) Decreases

(B) Mafic rocks

(C) Remains the same

(C) Sedimentary rocks

(D) Varies over time

(D) Ultramafic rocks

45. The processes by which water molecules get attached to the rock is called _______

49. Rocks that show evidence of high ductile

(A) Hydrolysis

strain are well foliated and contain

(B) Hydrogenation

porphyrioclasts are _______________

(C) Hydration

(A) Breccias

(D) Dehydration

(B) Mylonites

46. Minamata disease was caused by _____ pollution.

(C) Cataclasites

(A) Air

(D) Gouges

(B) Soil 50. _______________ is the most abundant

(C) Marine

ore deposits of Karnataka.

(D) Radio active

(A) Copper

47. ___________ radio action dating method NOT useful for dating Precambrian rocks. (A)

14

(B) Bauxite

C

(B) Rb – Sr

(C) Iron

(C) Sm – Nd

(D) Graphite

(D) U – Pb

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Paper II

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Total Number of Pages : 8

bñÜᤠŸÃÜÖÜPÝRX ÓܧÙÜ Space for Rough Work

Paper II

8

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