Enjoy with We & Our World

IFE

A Complete Solution of Text Book [PART - 7]

Enjoy with Social Life – 7 Unit – I Geography

1.

OUR ENVIRONMENT

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. Water is present in ____________ forms : 3 (a) Four (b) Three (c) Five (d) None of them 2. The word environment is derived from which language? 3 (a) French (b) Spanish (c) English (d) None of them 3. Physical environment includes : (a) Land, water and air 3 (b) Land, plants and air (c) Water and air (d) None of them 4. Which is not a natural ecosystem? 3 (a) Pond (b) Sugar cane field (c) Both of them (d) None of them 5. Which of the following is not an abiotic component? (a) Air (b) Plants 3 (c) Water (d) None of them B. Very short answer questions : 1. Name the abiotic factors of our environment. Ans. Land, air and water are abiotic factors of our environment. 2. What would happen if there were too few plants and too many human beings on earth? Ans. The natural balance of the environment will be disturbed if there were too few plants and too many human beings on earth. 3. What is the function of Ozone layer in the atmosphere? Ans. The Ozone layer in atmosphere does not allow the ultra-violet rays to pass through and are reflected back into the space. 4. What are included in human environment? Ans. Atmosphere, lithosphere, hydrosphere and biosphere, all these are included in human environment. 5. What are the two kingdoms in biological environment? Ans. Plants and animals are the two kingdoms in biological environment. 6. In which zone do all abiotic factors exist in combination? Ans. In biosphere zone, all the abiotic factors exist in combination. C. Fill in the blanks : 1. Human environment is a part of physical environment. 2. Two chief components of our environment are biotic and abiotic. 3. Biosphere is a link between atmosphere, hydrosphere and lithosphere. Bookman India

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4. The sial layer is composed of rocks rich in Silica and aluminium. 5. Physical environment and Biological environment are interdependent. 6. The imbalance in our environment have been created by explosive growth of population. D. Match the followings : 1. Atmosphere (a) The realm of water 2. Environment (b) Narrow zone where water, land and air meet 3. Lithosphere (c) Outermost layer of the Earth 4. Biosphere (d) The envelope of the air on the earth 5. Hydrosphere (e) The wide range of plants and animals or their habitats 6. Biodiversity (f) Our surrounding E. Project / Activity : 1. Collect some different kind of herb leaves used as medicines. Dry and paste them in your scrapbook. Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Draw a picture of an area with ideal environmental conditions. Ans. (Do yourself) F. Explain the following terms : 1. Environment – Environment refers to all the external conditions in which an organism lives. 2. Ecosystem – The interaction between the organisms and their physical components, a particular place is called the Ecosystem. 3. Biodiversity – Biodiversity means biological diversity. It is the variety and variability of life on the earth. 4. Sial – In Lithosphere, the landform is composed of rocks rich in silica and aluminium, called sial layer. 5. Sima – The ocean basins are composed of silica and magnesium called Sima. 6. Pollution – Pollution is the result of unplanned and unwise use of technology by human beings. 7. Biotic component – The biotic components comprises of plants and animals. 8. Abiotic component – Aboitic components are air, water and soil. G. Short answer questions : 1. Name the two major components of our environment. Ans. The two major components of our environment are : 1. Abiotic or physical environment . 2. Biotic or biological environment. 2. Name the three domains of the earth. Ans. The three domains of earth are : 1. Lithosphere 2. Hydrosphere 3. Atmosphere Bookman India

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3. What is biosphere? Ans. The narrow zone where the lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere meet and interact, is known as biosphere. In other parts life cannot survive. 4. What is atmosphere? Ans. The envelope of air which surrounds the earth is called the atmosphere. It is held to the earth by the force of gravity. 5. What is biodiversity? Ans. Biodiversity means biological diversity. It is the variety and variability of life on the earth. 6. How is man causing harm to biodiversity? Ans. The human activities like rapid growth in population, pollution, deforestation, hunting of wild animals etc, are causing harm to biodiversity. G. Long answer questions : 1. Why is our earth called a unique place? Ans. Earth is a unique planet because it is the only planet in the solar system which sustain life. The major domains which generally help to sustain life are lithosphere, atmosphere, hydrosphere and biosphere. So, we can say it unique. 2. What is the essential feature of lithosphere in the environment? Ans. The uppermost part of the lithosphere is its essential feature which forms a thin layer of soil. It is the life zone beyond which life cannot survive. It provides us land for building houses and factories etc. 3. What is the difference between physical environment and biological environment? Ans. Physical environment comprises land, air and water. Biological environment comprises plants and animals. It includes all the natural elements such as mountains, rivers, vegetation and human beings. Both environment are interdependent and interlinked. Any change in one type of environment affects the other one too. 4. Describe biological environment and its importance. Ans. Biological environment includes plants, trees, animals, human beings and other organisms. The biological element in the environment is dynamic in nature. The biological and Physical are inter dependent and interlinked. Any change in one type of environment affects the other one too. Both are important for us, so we should not afford to take liberties with natures bounties, and help to maintain the balance of nature. 5. What happens, if we mindlessly exploit physical environment? Ans. It we exploit physical environment mindlessly them global warming will occur which may raise the mean temperature of the earth. This imbalance can be found in various situations such as disappearance of glaciers and a rise in sea level. Bookman India

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2.

INTERIOR OF THE EARTH

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. The outermost layer on the earth's surface is called : (a) Crust (b) Mantle 3 (c) Core (d) None of them 2. Which is the innermost part of the earth? 3 (a) Core (b) Mantle (c) Crust (d) None of them 3. Igneous rocks are also known as : 3 (a) Sedimentary rocks (b) Primary rocks (c) Metamorphic rocks (d) None of them 4. The rate of cooling is inside the earth : 3 (a) Slow (b) Fast (c) Medium (d) None of them 5. Who do the detailed study of the interior of the earth? 3 (a) Geologist (b) Anthropologist (c) Both of them (d) None of them B. Very short answer questions : 1. On which layer of the earth do we have our farms and house? Ans. On the outermost layer of the earth, called crust, we have our farms and house. 2. How thick is the crust under the mountain rangers? Ans. The crust's thickness may even be up to about 60 km in the mountainous regions. 3. What is sial? Ans. The continental crust is made up of silica (si) and aluminium (al) which is called sial. 4. What is sima? Ans. The oceanic crust is made up of Silica (Si) and magnesium (ma) which is called sima. 5. What is lava? Ans. The molten material or magma, which comes out in volcanic eruption, is called lava. 6. What is the magma? Ans. Due to extremely high temperature, the outer core is always in a molten state. This molten material is known as the magma. 7. What is NIFE? Ans. The core is innermost part of the earth which is made up of nickel (Ni) and iron (Fe). So it is called NIFE. C. Fill in the blanks : 1. Rocks are solid materials underlying the earth's surface. 2. The average density of the earth is about 6-60 km thick. 3. The solid outermost layer of the earth is called lithosphere. Bookman India

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4. The Sedimentary rocks have remains of animals and plants. 5. Fossils are trapped in layers of Sedimentary rocks. 6. The rock cycle has neither a beginning nor an end. D. Match the followings : 1. Rocks (a) Formed of cooling and solidification of magma 2. Lava (b) The organic matter 3. Fossil (c) The endless process of formation, destruction of rocks 4. Magma (d) The rocks in its changed form 5. Rock cycle (e) Are the materials of the earth's crust 6. Metamorphic rocks (f) The magma outside a volcano 7. Igneous rocks (g) Molten materials E. Distinguish between : 1. The magma and lava. Ans. The outer core is always in a molten state. This molten material is known as magma. And the magma, when comes out in volcanic eruption is called lava. 2. Rocks and minerals : Ans. Rocks Minerals 1. Solid materials of earth's crust. Naturally occurring materials present in rocks. 2. Rock is formed of one or more A mineral may have more than than one mineral. one element. 3. e.g. Sandstone, Slate, marble. e.g. salt, aluminium, quartz. 3. Sedimentary and metamorphic rocks : Ans. Sedimentary metamorphic 1. Formed from sediments of formed due to tremendous seas, lakes and glaciers. heat and pressure. 2. Rocks are soft. They are very hard. 3. Have remains of animals and Have no empty space in them. plants between the layers. 4. Intrusive and extrusive igneous rocks. Ans. The rocks that cool down and solidify below the surface of the earth are called Intrusive igneous rocks. e.g. granite. The rocks formed by the solidification of lava on the earth's surface are termed as extrusive igneous rocks. e.g. Basalt. F. Classify the name of the rocks given below into igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic : 1. Coal Sedimentary 2. Slate Metamorphic 3. Basalt Igneous 4. Granite Igneous 5. Limestone Sedimentary 6. Marble Metamorphic 7. Sandstone Sedimentary 8. Gneiss Metamorphic 9. Quartzite Metamorphic Bookman India

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G. Project / Activity : 1. Collect pieces of rocks and try to find out the minerals present in them. Ans. (Do yourself) H. Short answer questions : 1. How are rocks and minerals useful to us? Ans. Some important uses of rocks and minerals are : 1. Soil is formed from rocks. 2. In early times, rocks were used to make weapons and tools. 3. Used in the construction of roads, houses and dams. 4. Chemicals are used to make fertilizers. 5. Some minerals as coal and petroleum provide the source of power. 2. What are called metamorphic rocks? State examples. Ans. The metamorphic rocks are actually igneous and sedimentary rocks, which have been changed due to enormous heat and pressure inside the earth. Change occurs both through physical and chemical metamorphism. e.g. limestone can be changed into marble, shale into slate and sandstone into quartzite. 3. Write the chief characteristics of metamorphic rocks? Ans. The chief characteristics of metamorphic rocks are : 1. There rocks after changes remain in their original position. 2. They are very hard and possess a high specific gravity. 3. There is no empty space in them. 4. What are primary rocks? Ans. The rocks which are formed by the solidification of the molten matter poured out from the interior of the earth in the form of magma. These rocks were first to be formed and known as primary or parent or igneous rocks. 5. How are intrusive and extrusive rocks formed? Ans. The rocks that cool down and solidify below the surface of the earth are called Intrusive igneous rocks. e.g. granite. The rocks formed by the solidification of lava on the earth's surface are termed as extrusive igneous rocks. e.g. Basalt. 6. What are minerals? Ans. Minerals are solid substances which occur naturally in the rocks. A mineral may have more than one element. e.g. Salt, aluminium, quartz. 7. What are fossil fuels? Ans. Some natural minerals such as coal and Petroleum are called fossil fuels. I. Long answer questions : 1. How was the earth formed? Ans. It is estimated that the earth is about 460 crore years old. It was a part of the solar system and then it was a cloud of gases and dust. It has reached the present form through various phases, and several processes have made it possible. Bookman India

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2. What are the main features of the mantle and the core? Ans. The mantle is the second layer of the earth. It is about 2,900 km thick. It is made of several kinds of dense and heavy materials such as iron and magnesium. The temperature in the mantle is very high. Magma is found in this layer. The core is the innermost part of the earth. It is made up of iron and nickel. We can divide the core into two parts– Outer core and inner core. 3. What are known as igneous rocks? Mention their chief characteristics. Ans. The rocks which are formed by the solidification of the molten matter poured out from the interior of the earth in the form of magma. These rocks were first to be formed and known as primary or parent or igneous rocks. Its main characteristic are : 1. These rocks are hard and compact. 2. They do not allow water to percolate through them. 3. They do not contain fossil. 4. These rocks do not occur in distinct beds. 5. Valuable minerals such as iron, gold, silver and aluminium are found in these rocks. 4. What are sedimentary rocks? Mention their chief characteristics. Ans. The deposited material is called sediment. It is deposited in layers. The new layers compress the old layers and harden them. The rocks thus formed are called sedimentary rocks. Its chief characteristics are : 1. These are softer than igneous rocks. 2. These rocks have a horizontal layered arrangement, one above the other. 3. These rocks mostly formed under water. 4. They have fossils. 5. Explain the rock cycle. Ans. Transformation of rocks from one state to another is called the rock cycle. The rock cycle has neither a beginning nor an end. In this process, the matter of the Earth's crust is not lost.

3.

Earth Movements

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. The processes which occur within the earth are called : (a) Internal process (b) External process 3 (c) Both of them (d) None of them 2. The earth's interior where an earthquake occurs is called : (a) Epicentre (b) Focus (c) Both of them (d) None of them Bookman India

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3. Which of the following is not caused by endogenic forces? 3 (a) Glacier (b) Earthquake (c) Both of them (d) None of them 4. Which one of the following is not a kind of volcanoes? 3 (a) Existent (b) Extinct (c) Both of them (d) None of them 5. Which of the following is not associated with an earthquake? 3 (a) Epicentre (b Crater (c) Both of them (d) None of them B. Very short answer questions : 1. What is the other name of active volcanoes? Ans. Living volcanoes is the other name of active volcanoes. 2. What is the other name of dormant volcanoes? Ans. Sleeping Volcanoes. 3. What are dead volcanoes? Ans. The volcanoes which have not erupted for hundred of years and there is no possibility of any eruption in future, are called dead volcanoes. 4. The Ring of Fire runs along the edge of which ocean? Ans. The Ring of Fire runs along the edge of the Pacific ocean. 5. Who invented the Richter scale? Ans. Richter Scale was invented by Charles Richter in 1935. C. Fill in the blanks : 1. Tectonic activities mostly occur along the plate margins. 2. The eruption of a volcano is the throwing out of lava from earth's interior. 3. Richter scale is used for recording the intensity of an earthquake. 4. The intensity of an earthquake is maximum near the epicentre. 5. The Exogenic forces cause volcanic eruptions and earthquakes. D. Project / Activity : 1. Draw the Ring of Fire on a world map. Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Prepare a chart showing steps to be taken for rehabilitation of earthquake victims. Ans. (Do yourself) E. Short answer questions : 1. How are earthquakes measured? Ans. The intensity of earthquakes is measured on the Richter scale. This scale ranges from 0-9. The instrument which records the tremors of the earthquake is called Seismograph. 2. Name three landforms that have been created as a result of earth's movements. Ans. Mountain, plateau, valley. 3. Which movements of the earth leads to formation of mountains? Ans. The movement of the lithospheric plates leads to formation of mountains. Bookman India

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4. Ans. 5. Ans.

How does folding occur? Folding occurs when two plates collide. What is a seismograph? The instrument which records the tremors of the earthquake is called seismograph. 6. What do you mean by tectonic plates? Ans. The crust of the earth is made up of several big and small portions called tectonic plates. F. Long answer questions : 1. How do the volcanoes occur? Mention their different types too. Ans. Volcanoes occur due to the tectonic activities along the plate margins. Different types of volcanoes are : 1. Active volcanoes – Which frequently erupt and throw out lava, gases, ashes. 2. Sleeping volcanoes – Which rarely erupt. 3. Dead or extinct volcanoes – Which have stopped erupting and have no possibility of any eruption in future. 2. How are volcanoes distributed on earth? Ans. Most of the volcanoes are situated along the Ring of Fire. There rings run along the edge of the Pacific Ocean. The other belt of volcanoes is found along the Mediterranean, sea and is called Mid-WorldMountain belt. 3. How do the earthquakes occur? Ans. Earthquakes mostly occur at the plate margins. Different situations arise when these plates collide, go past or diverge from each other. In there situations, massive waves are generated at a certain point and causes earthquake. 4. Describe the different type of earthquake waves. Ans. Different type of earthquake waves : 1. Primary waves – They are fastest and known as push waves. 2. Secondary waves – Their speed is less than primary waves. These waves do not pass through liquids and produce a strong shaking action. 3. Surface waves – These waves are very strong and cause most of the damage. 5. What are folding and faulting? Ans. Folding occurs when two plates collide. It occurs in elastic rocks which bend than break. e.g. The Andes, Atlas and Himalayas. Faulting occurs because of tension. Cracks and fissures are caused in the earth's surface. 6. What is the difference between a dormant and a extinct Volcano? Ans. Dormant Extinct 1. Rarely erupt. Have stopped erupting. 2. Do not show any indication of No possibility of any eruption erupting in near future. in future. 3. Known as sleeping volcanoes. Known as dead volcanoes. Bookman India

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MAJOR LANDFORMS

4.

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. The breakdown and disintegration of solid material of the earth's crust is called : 3 (a) Soil conservation (b) Weathering (c) Soil erosion (d) None of them 2. Decomposition of mineral takes place in : (a) Physical weathering (b) Chemical weathering 3 (c) Both of them (d) None of them 3. Chemical weathering generally takes places in : 3 (a) Warm places (b) Cold places (c) Both of them (d) None of them 4. Which is the largest delta in the world? (a) Ganga-Brahmaputra delta 3 (b) Nile delta (c) Both of them (d) None of them 5. Which glaciers are also known as valley glaciers? 3 (a) Mountain glaciers (b) Continental glaciers (c) Both of them (d) None of them B. Write True or False : 1. Weathering of rocks takes place in their own place. True 2. Glaciers are found in mountains only. False 3. Pure ice can totally remove the existing landforms and build new features. False 4. Alluvial soil is not very fertile. False 5. Laterite soils are produced by the leaching action. True C. Fill in the blanks : 1. Weathering involves cracks and break down of rocks. 2. Delta is formed by the deposite work of river. 3. Beaches are generally formed when the sea is calm. 4. A tributary is a stream that joins the main river. 5. The most extensive loess deposits are in North China. 6. Glaciers are slow moving sheets of ice. D. Match the followings : 1. Mountain soil (a) Full of iron oxides 2. Alluvial soil (b) Sandy, coarse and porous 3. Red soil (c) Very fertile 4. Laterite soil (d) Slopes of Himalayas 5. Black soil (e) A cotton soil 6. Desert soil (f) Do not retain moisture E. Distinguish between : 1. Weathering and erosion. Ans. The breakdown, disintegration and alteration of solid materials of the Bookman India

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earth's crust is called weathering. While the removal of soil at a greater rate than it replacement by the natural agents is called erosion. 2. Physical weathering and chemical weathering : Ans. Physical Chemical 1. Fragmentation of rocks Decomposition of minerals takes place. takes place. 2. No any Chang in composition We find a change in state. and state. 3. Act in cold and arid areas. take place in warm and wet places. 3. Continental glaciers and mountain glaciers. Ans. Continental glaciers are permanent sheets of ice and snow and only found in polar regions. Mountain glaciers are huge mass of slowly moving ice and are found on high mountain tops of Himalayas and Alps. 4. Erosion and deposition : Erosion Deposition 1. The removal of soil at a Sediments are deposited. greater rate. 2. By natural agents as water, done by water, wind and glacier. waves, wind, glaciers. 3. helps in widening the river Deposition is the opposite valley. of erosion. F. Write the names of the agents of erosion and deposition responsible for the creation of the following : 1. V-shaped valley – Water 2. Delta – Water 3. Loess – Wind 4. Sand dune – Wind 5. Water fall – Water 6. Beach – Water 7. Moraine – Glacier 8. Cirque – Glacier 9. Tarns – Glacier 10. Hanging-valleys – Glacier 11. Flood-plain – Water 12. Sand-bars – Wind G. Project / Activity : 1. On an outline map of India identify the states having : (a) Alluvial soil (b) Black soil (c) Mountain soil (d) Red soil (e) Desert soil (f) Laterite soil Ans. (Do yourself) 2. On an outline map of the world, mark and label of the following : (a) Any two rivers which form deltas. Bookman India

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(b) Any two important snowfield. (c) Any three famous waterfalls. Ans. (Do yourself) H. Define the following terms : 1. Delta – At the mouth of the river deposits of sediments or alluvium create deltas. The world 'delta' is derived from Greek alphabet and is written as D. 2. Soil conservation – The protection and preservation of soil together with quality of soil is known as soil conservation. 3. Tributary – A stream or a river Joining the main river is known as tributary. 4. Soil erosion – Soil erosion means the removal of soil at a greater rate than its replacement by the natural agents. 5. Sediments – The water carries some pieces of broken rocks from mountains, are known as sediments. 6. Humus – In due course of time and action, remains of plants and animals are decomposed and then changed into a dark coloured substance called humus. Humus makes the soil fertile. I. Short answer questions : 1. What is known as denudation? Ans. Denudation is the process which taken place when weathering and erosion work together. 2. What is meant by external process? Ans. The external process (Exogenic forces) are those which act on the surface of the earth. It perform their work in two ways-weathering and erosion. 3. Which landforms are formed by Marine erosion? Ans. Coastal landforms are formed by Marine erosion. 4. Name the major types of soil in India? Ans. There are six major types of soils in India-alluvial, mountain, laterite, red, desert and regur or black soil. 5. Describe the process of soil formation. Ans. Soil formation depends on parent rocks, climate, vegetation, relief and time. The variability, of all there factors, is the main reason in formation of different types of soils. 6. Why is the work of wind limited to a few metres above the ground? Ans. The wind is not able to carry the rock particles high up in the air, so the work of the wind is limited to a few metres above the ground. J. Long answer questions : 1. What is known as weathering? State the main effects of weathering. Ans. All the process that cause breakdown of the rock is known as weathering. Different landforms like plains, hills, river, channels and plateaus were originated due to weathering. 2. What is known as erosion? Differentiate is with weathering. Ans. The breakdown, disintegration and alteration of solid materials of the earth's crust is called weathering. While the removal of soil at a greater rate than its replacement by the natural agents is called erosion. Bookman India

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3. How are flood plains formed? Ans. The area of low lying ground where the river begins to deposit its load as a result of flooding is known as flood plain. 4. What are the three parts of a river? Explain the work of a river in its three parts. Ans. From origin to sea, a river has three main parts. 1. Source – The place where the river originates. 2. Mouth – The place where the river joins another water body as sea. 3. Deltas – At the mouth of the river deposits of sediments create deltas. 5. Explain the erosional work of a glacier? Ans. A glacier is a huge mass of slowly moving ice by the accumulation of snow on high mountains. Like other agents, the glaciers also performs the work of erosion, transportation and deposition. 6. Why is wind regarded as an agent of denudation? Ans. The wind moves small particles of sand and carry them a far and becomes an important agent of denudation. Wind also performs its actions through erosion, deposition and transportation. 7. How are soils formed? How does soil erosion take place? Ans. Formation of soil depends upon climate, vegetation, organisms, relief and time. It acts in a very slow motion and takes around 400 years to form 1cm thick layer of soil. It is also very necessary that the weathered particles of soil remain undisturbed, at one place, for a long period of time. The soil erosion takes place due to bad farm practices, pollution and excessive pressure on land. 8. What is known as soil conservation? Explain three methods of soil conservation. Ans. Soil conservation means the method of protection, preservation and efficient utilization of soil. We can conserve it by growing more and more trees, using proper farming techniques and by restricting overgrazing of animals.

5.

AIR AROUND US

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. The envelope of air that surrounds the earth is called : 3 (a) Ionosphere (b) Atmosphere (c) Both of them (d) None of them 2. The study of weather is called : 3 (a) Meterology (b) Geology (c) Both fo them (d) None of them 3. The heat given off by earth is known as : 3 (a) Solar radiation (b) Terrestrial radiation (c) Both of them (d) None of them 14 Bookman India Enjoy with Social Life – 7

4. Generally which scale is used in India? 3 (a) Celsive scale (b) Fahrenhiet scale (c) Both of them (d) None of them 5. What are tropical cyclones in China known as? 3 (a) Typhoons (b) Hurricanes (c) Both of them (d) None of them B. Very short answer questions : 1. Why do we not feel the pressure of air on our body? Ans. We do not feel the pressure of air on our body due to air's elasticity as it has no fixed volume. We feel the air only when it blow as wind. 2. What is the function of nitrogen in the atmosphere? Ans. Nitrogen is the most prevalent gas in the atmosphere. It is required by plants for growth. 3. Which gas is the active component of the atmosphere? Ans. Nitrogen gas is the component of the atmosphere. 4. Which is the most turbulent layer of the atmosphere? Ans. Troposphere is the most turbulent layer of the atmosphere. 5. Why is ionosphere so named? Ans. Thermosphere is also called ionosphere because of the presence of electrically charged particles called 'ions'. 6. At what temperature on the Celsius scale does water boil? Ans. At the temperature of 100°Celsius, water boils. 7. Which layer of the atmosphere is very rich in ozone? Ans. Stratosphere layer of the atmosphere is very rich in ozone. C. Write True or False : 1. Rainfall is measured by a rain gauge. True 2. The amount of carbon dioxide remains fixed in the troposphere. False 3. Anticyclones have a lot of rain. False 4. Exosphere is the coldest layer in the atmosphere. False 5. There is only horizontal movement of air in the stratosphere. True D. Fill in the blanks : 1. The density of air is highest near the earth's surface. 2. The presence of carbon dioxide in air in just 0.03% of the total volume of air. 3. The greenhouse effect is due to the increase of carbon dioxide. 4. Ozone layers filters ultraviolet rays of the sun. 5. Mesosphere is the coldest layer in the atmosphere. E. Distinguish between : 1. Weather and climate : Ans. Weather Climate 1. The temporary state of The general weather over a temperature. period of time. 2. Change frequently. Remains same for a longer period. 2. Insolation and terrestrial radiation. Ans. The solar radiation travelling from the sun and reaching the earth is known as insolation. On striking the earth, the solar radiation is returned to space in the same proportion is called terrestrial radiation. Bookman India

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3. Condensation and precipitation. Ans. The process of change of state from gaseous to liquid or solid is termed as condensation. e.g. Dew, fog, clouds. When tiny water droplets Join together, it grow in size until it is unable to float and falls down as rainfall or snowfall is known precipitation. F. Project / Activity : 1. During rainy season measure daily amount of rainfall in your area using a Rain gauge. Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Write the importance of weather forecasts for a farmer, a pilot, a captain of an ship, an engineer working on a river dam, fishermen. Ans. (Do yourself) G. Explain the following terms : 1. Planetary winds – blows in fixed direction throughout the year. 2. Local winds – special characteristics blow over small area for a short period of time, such winds are know as local winds. 3. Periodic winds – The wind that changes its direction periodically is called periodically is called periodic wind. 4. Barometer – The instrument which measures the atmospheric pressure. 5. Millibar – Millibar (Mb) is the unit for measuring atmospheric pressure. 6. Anemometer – It is a device for measuring wind speed, and is a common wether station instrument. 7. Wind vane – A weather vane is an instrument for showing the direction of the wind. 8. Air current – The vertical movement of air is called air current. 9. Thermometer – The instrument used to measure the temperature of moving air is called thermometer. 10. Terrestrial radiation – The heat given off by the earth is called Terrestrial radiation. H. Short answer questions : 1. Name the major gases and their approximate percentage in air. Ans. Nitrogen –78% Oxygen – 21% Carbon dioxide – 0.03% Other gases – 0.07% 2. Describe briefly the structure of atmosphere. Ans. The atmosphere has layers of varying densities. They are distinguished from one another by temperature and pressure. These layers are– Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere and Exosphere. 3. What are the main features of the stratosphere? Ans. This layer is almost free from all types of weather phenomena. There are hardly any clouds, dust or water vapours in this zone. This zone is very rich in ozone and also called ozonosphere. 4. What is the importance of ozone in the atmosphere? Ans. Ozone gas absorbs the harmful radiations coming from the ultraviolet rays of the sun. It is essential for protecting life on earth. Bookman India

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5. What is a cyclone? Ans. A cyclone is a small low pressure system with winds blowing anticlockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clock wise in the Southern Hemisphere. 6. What is known as air pressure? Ans. Like any other matter, air has weight, Horizontal layers of air rise vertically and exert a pressure, which is known as air pressure. 7. What is known as horizontal movement of air? Ans. The horizontal movement of air is called wind. I. Long answer question : 1. What do you known about the composition of the atmosphere? Ans. The atmosphere is a mixture of colourless, tasteless and odourless gasses. The main features of its composition are : 1. It is a mixture of different gasses. 2. It has 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen and 1% other gasses like carbon dioxide, ozone, hydrogen, helium, etc. 3. The lower level of atmosphere contains water vapour and dust particles. 2. Describe the chief characteristics of atmosphere. Ans. The atmosphere is a mixture of colourless, tasteless and odourless gasses. The main features of its composition are : 1. It is a mixture of different gasses. 2. It has 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen and 1% other gasses like carbon dioxide, ozone, hydrogen, helium, etc. 3. The lower level of atmosphere contains water vapour and dust particles. 3. Explain the importance of nitrogen and oxygen in the atmosphere. Ans. Oxygen is life giving gas which is needed for breathing of human beings and animals. Nitrogen is needed by plants for their growth. Chemical fertilizers are manufactured with the use of atmospheric nitrogen. 4. What is the usefulness of carbon dioxide in air? How is it found in air? Ans. Carbon dioxide is an important gas because it is responsible for the greenhouse effect on the earth. It also has the ability to absorb heat and change climate, weather conditions on the earth. Human beings and animals give out carbon dioxide in air. Its presence is Just 0.03% of the total volume of air. 5. Which layer of the atmosphere is most important for humans and why? Ans. Troposphere is the most important layer for humans because it contains the air, we breathe. It is the most turbulent layer and has about 90% of the air in atmosphere. 6. What is known as air pressure? How do winds move with respect to air pressure? Ans. Like any other matter, air has weight, Horizontal layers of air rise vertically and exert a pressure, which is known as air pressure. Wind always blows form a high pressure area to low pressure region. The horizontal movement of air is called wind while vertical movement is called air current. 17 Bookman India Enjoy with Social Life – 7

7. How does the amount of moisture vary in the atmosphere? Ans. Moisture or humidity tells about the dampness in the atmosphere which is determined by the presence of water vapours. In the absence of humidity, there would be lack of rainfall. 8. State three characteristics of temperature of air. Ans. Three characteristics of temperature of air are : 1. When air is hot at ground level it goes up. 2. Wind always blows from high pressure area to low pressure area. 3. The changes in pressure conditions vary from one place to another.

WATER

6.

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. The water movement is : 3 (a) Only horizontal (b) Vertical and horizontal (c) Only vertical (d) None of them 2. Which is the main cause for the occurrence of tides? 3 (a) Gravitation (b) Planetary winds (c) Both of them (d) None of them 3. On the new moon occurs the : 3 (a) Neap tide (b) Spring tide (c) Both of them (d) None of them 4. Which of the following is not a cold current? 3 (a) Peru current (b) Gulf stream (c) Both of them (d) None of them 5. Which of the following is not a warm current? 3 (a) Canary current (b) Kuroshio current (c) Both of them (d) None of them B. Very short answer questions : 1. What is the average salinity of ocean water? Ans. The average salinity of ocean water is 35 gm per thousand. 2. When is the spring tide caused? Ans. The spring tide occurs when the sun, the earth and the moon are in a line. 3. Where is the ocean water warmer? Ans. Ocean water is warmer near the equatorial region. 4. Where does the of the temperature of ocean water decrease? Ans. The temperature of ocean water decreases near the polar region. 5. In which direction do the warm currents flow? Ans. The worm currents flow from the equatorial region towards the polar region. 6. In which direction do the cold currents flow? Ans. The cold currents flow from the polar region towards the equatorial region. Bookman India

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C. Write True or False : 1. Glaciers are termed as saline water. False 2. Tides clear the mouths of rivers. True 3. Water conservation and water pollution are both necessary. False 4. Warm currents increase the danger of icebergs for the sailing ships. False 5. A smaller ocean current is called drift. False 6. Gulf stream is a cold ocean stream. False D. Fill in the blanks : 1. Salinity decreases towards the equator due to heavy rainfall. 2. The fall of water is called low tide. 3. The ebb tide is another name for low tide. 4. The mixing of cold and warm currents cause dense fog. 5. Very broad currents are called drift. 6. The shape and size of the wave depends on speed of the wind. E. Distinguish between : 1. Fresh and saline water. Ans. Water of sea and ocean is saline (salty). It is not fit for drinking. Fresh water is found in streams lakes, rivers and ponds. It is good for drinking. 2. Waves and currents. Ans. The wind produces waves which are up and down movements. The shape and size of the waves depends on the speed of prevailing winds. When sea water moves continuously in one particular direction, it is called a current. Wind is the major factor to generate the current. 3. Warm currents and cold currents : Ans. Warm currents Cold currents 1. The warm water flows. The cold water flows. 2. From equatorial region towards From polar region towards the polar region. the equatorial region. 4. Tides and waves : Ans. Tide Wave 1. Daily rise and fall of sea level. Up and down movements of water. 2. Due to gravitational force of Due to speed of the prevailing sun and moon. winds. 5. Spring and neap tides : Ans. Spring tide neap tide 1. It is the highest tide. Little rise in sea water or lowest tide called neap tide. 2. This situation occurs on full This situation occurs on half moon or new moon day. moon day. 6. Current and drift. Ans. When sea water moves continuously in one particular direction, it is called a current. In some places, ocean currents are very broad. This is called a drift. Bookman India

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F. Project / Activity : 1. On an outline map of the world, mark and label the following : (a) Major oceans of the world (b ) Peru current (c) Gulf stream (d) Brazil current (e) Labrador current Ans. (Do yourself) 2. The Tsunami caused widespread damage in 2004. Gather more information about this. Ans. (Do yourself) H. Short answer questions : 1. What is the effect of winds on the sea water? Ans. Wind is the major factor to generate the current in sea water. The winds blowing over warm currents bring heavy rainfall to the coastal region while the winds blowing over cold currents make the coastal region cold and dry. 2. How are waves formed? Ans. Wind is the main force behind forming of waves. 3. What kind of movements are caused in the sea water? Ans. Waves, tides and currents are the movement of sea water. 4. Where are warm currents generated? Ans. When the warm water flow from the equatorial region towards the polar region, generate warm currents. 5. How do ocean currents move? Ans. Wind is the major factor behind the movement of ocean currents. 6. What is the effect of tides? Ans. Tides are highly beneficial for the movements of large ships. It is being used to generate electricity. It is helpful for fishing industry too. 7. How do the ocean currents help the ships? Ans. The ocean currents facilitate, the movements of large ships because sailing in the direction of current is faster and saves time and fuel. I. Long answer questions : 1. How does change in density of water generate vertical circulatory currents? Ans. Ocean water move horizontally as well as vertically. A number of forces acting on the ocean water keep them in a continuous state of motion. These forces include the winds and the attraction force of the moon. 2. How do ocean currents help fisheries? Ans. The best fishing grounds of the world are found where warm and cold currents meet. The reason behind it that Planktons are plenty in such regions. Planktons are favorite food of the fish. 3. Name three types of movements of ocean water. Ans. The movement of ocean water takes place in three different ways waves, tides and ocean currents. Bookman India

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4. How are tides caused? What is the difference between low tide and high tide. Ans. Tides are caused due to gravitational force of the sun and moon. Tides are of two types-high and low. The rise of sea and its movements towards the coast is called high tide. While the fall of sea water and its movement towards the sea coast is called low tide. 5. How are the spring tide and neap tide caused? Ans. The spring tide or highest tide occurs when the sun, the moon and the earth are almost in a straight time. The neap tide or lowest tide occurs on half moon day when the sun and the moon are in a position of right angle to the earth. 7. How are Tsunami caused? Ans. Tsunami can be caused due to earthquakes, volcanic errupions or under water land slides. Tsunamis cause great destruction, crushing houses and settlements on the coasts.

7.

NATURAL VEGETATION AND WILDLIFE

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. The wildlife referred to as : 3 (a) Flora (b) Fauna (c) Both of them (d) None of them 2. Where are the world's largest and densest forests located? 3 (a) Brazil (b) Myanmar (c) In India (d) None of them 3. In which forest, there is hardly any wildlife present? (a) Coniferous forests (b) Mediterranean forest 3 (c) Both of them (d) None of them 4. Where is Kalahari desert located? (a) Northern Africa (b) Southern Africa 3 (c) North America (d) None of them 5. Which is the treeless area with very harsh climatic conditions? 3 (a) Tundra region (b) Temperate grassland (c) Both of them (d) None of them B. Very short answer questions : 1. Name the process through which green plant produce their own food in the presence of sunlight. Ans. Photosynthesis 2. Name the trees which shed their leaves during a particular season. Ans. Oak, elm, birch, maple, fir, redwood, cedar, beech, ash, poplar, etc. 3. Where do the mangroves are found? Ans. Mangroves are found in tropical deciduous forest. 4. Where do the temperate grasslands are called 'steppes'? Ans. In 'Europe' the temperate grasslands are called 'steppes'. Bookman India

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5. Which region is called the 'cold polar desert'? Ans. 'Tundra' region is called the 'cold polar desert'. C. Fill in the blanks : 1. Zebra and Giraffe are found in tropical grasslands. 2. The trees which do not shed their leaves are called evergreen trees. 3. The cactus is a form of desert vegetation. 4. Forests grow well in a hot and humid climate. 5. Sal and teak are mostly found in tropical deciduous forests. 6. Temperate grasslands are called Pampas in South America and Veld in South Africa. 7. The other name of the tropical grasslands is Savanna. D. Distinguish between : 1. Tropical deciduous forests and temperate deciduous forests : Ans. Tropical Temperate 1. Dry season. Cool climate. 2. having small trees and shrubs. Trees have thick trunks and broad leaves. 3. Mangrove, teak, sal, deodar, Oak, maple, fir, cedar, beech, bamboo trees are found. poplar trees are found here. 4. Lions, tigers, snakes, cobra deer, wolves, foxes, squirrels are are found here. found here. 2. The Savanna and the Prairie. Ans. The tropical grasslands are found in the southern continents called Savanna. The region gets high temperature but it can support grasses well. The temperate grasslands are found in the interior of continents, known as prairies. The rainfall in this area is not sufficient for the growth of trees. Thus the grass is short scattered with trees. 3. Natural and semi-natural vegetation. Ans. The Plants which grow naturally is called natural vegetation while the plants which grow due to human intervention in called semi-natural vegetation. 4. Evergreen and deciduous forests : Ans. Evergreen deciduous 1. Trees remain evergreen round Trees shed their leaves once in the year. a year. 2. Found in both regions temperate Found in both regions. and tropical. 3. Common tress are coniferous, Common trees are teak, sal, bamboo, mahogany, rosewood. maple, fir. 5. Herbivorous and carnivorous animals. Ans. The animals which eat plants are known as herbivorous as cow, goat, deer. The animals which eat the flesh of other animals, are known as carnivorous animals as lion, tiger, fox, etc. Bookman India

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E. Write their names : 1. Any three places where tropical evergreen forests are found : (a) South America (b) Africa (c) Asia 2. Any three desert regions : (a) North Africa (b) South Africa (c) Chile 3. Any three industries in which the trees from the coniferous forests are used : (a) Paper (b) Furniture (c) Sports goods 4. Any three name of the temperate grasslands : (a) Prairie (b) Veld (c) Steppe 5. Any three animals found in the tropical grasslands : (a) Zebra (b) kangaroo (c) Giraffe F. Name any three important trees found in the following types of forests : 1. Tropical evergreen forests Bamboo Mahogany Sandal 2. Tropical deciduous forests Teak Sal Deodar 3. Temperate evergreen forests Pine Mulberry Bamboo 4. Temperate deciduous forests Oak Birch Maple 5. Mediterranean forests Oak Fig Fir 6. Coniferous forests Pine Fir Larch G. Project / Activity : 1. Collect samples of a variety of tree leaves and grasses in your locality. Find out their names and prepare an album. Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Collect pictures of some extinct animals and paste them in your scrapbook. Ans. (Do yourself) 3. Make a list of different birds you see in summer and winter. Ans. (Do yourself) 4. Make a list of all the things we get from plants and trees. Ans. (Do yourself) H. Short answer questions : 1. Why are plants termed as the basic producers? Ans. The plants are the only form of life which can convert solar energy into food energy. Thus plants are the basic producers. 2. What is meant by conservation? Ans. Conservation means the method of protection, preservation and efficient utilization is known as conservation. 3. Name some important animals of the savanna. Ans. Zebra, giraffe, deer, elephant, monkeys, lions, leopards, kangaroos are some important animals of Savanna. 4. Why are the trees in equatorial forests very tall? Ans. The temperature of equatorial region is hot and humid which help in the growth of thick vegetation and tall trees. 5. Why are species of animals limited in coniferous forests? Ans. Due to extreme cold, the species of animals are limited in coniferous forests. 23 Bookman India Enjoy with Social Life – 7

6. Ans. 7. Ans.

Why do some trees shed leaves during winter? Small trees shed leaves during winter to avoid evaporation. How do the forests act as a natural habitat for wildlife? The forests act as a natural habitat for wildlife because animals feel comfortable staying in the forest under natural conditions. I. Long answer questions : 1. Name the different categories of natural vegetation. Ans. Natural vegetation can be classified into forests, shrubs and grasslands. 2. What are the main features of tropical evergreen forests? Ans. The tropical evergreen forests do not have any particular season to shed their leaves. They remain lush green throughout the year. They are found in the hot and humid areas. The trees have hard wood like mahogany, rosewood and ebony. 3. What type of vegetation found in deserts? Why? Ans. Due to high temperature and very low rainfall, desert vegetation consists of small plants with thorns, long roots, thick stems and waxcoated leaves. The main plants are date palm, cactus, acacia trees, etc. 4. Why are human settlements found more around deciduous forests than evergreen? Ans. The forests in deciduous region are dense and timber is valuable. Wild life is rich and varied. The area around it is more populated because people can rear cattle, pigs and sheep to obtain skin, meat and wool. 5. Why are a great number of and variety of animals found in rainforests? Ans. Rain forest are not only sufficient for the growth of trees, but it can support grass well. These grasslands are suitable for grazing and farming. So these forests are home to a large variety of animals. 6. What type of wildlife is found in the tropical forests? Ans. A wide variety of wildlife is found in these thick forests. The animals living in theses forests have adapted themselves to the prevailing conditions as Monkeys, bats, tree-lizards, snakes, crocodiles, spider, butterflies, etc. 7. Why do animals in the tundra region have thick fur? Ans. The animals in the tundra region have thick coat of fur or skin to protect tham from freezing cold. The reindeer is the most important animal of tundra.

8.

HUMAN ENVIRONMENT

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. The Trans-East African highway connects Cairo and : (a) St Petersburg (b) Cape Town (c) Both of them (d) None of them Bookman India

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2. Which of the following is not a quick means of communication : 3 (a) Letter (b) Television (c) Radio (d) None of them 3. Means of communication can be : 3 (a) Personal and mass (b) Surface and underwater means means (c) Both of them (d) None of them 4. The Suez canal route goes through the : 3 (a) Mediterranean Sea (b) Caspian Sea (c) Pacific Ocean (d) None of them 5. The two kinds of air routes are : 3 (a) Domestic and (b) National and International International (c) Both of them (d) None of them B. Very short answer questions : 1. How does a settlement form? Ans. Formation of settlement depends upon the primary needs of people, suitable land, water, soil and climate help in formation of settlement. 2. Name two types of settlements. Ans. Two types of settlements are rural and urban. 3. Name the most inexpensive means of transport. Ans. Trains are the most inexpensive means of transport. 4. Name the fastest means of transport. Ans. Air transport. 5. Which rivers in India are navigable? Ans. The Ganga and the Brahmaputra rivers in India are navigable. 6. Where does a domestic air route operate? Ans. The domestic air route operates with in a country. 7. Name some important means of communication. Ans. Telephone, cable, fax, mobilephones, internet, radio, television, newspaper etc are some important means of communication. C. Write True or False : 1. The scattered settlements come up on the mountains. False 2. People settled in river valley in order to practice hunting and gathering. True 3. An industrial town has only one or two industries. False 4. Settlements can only be rural. False 5. All parts of the world have an efficient network of transport. False D. Fill in the blanks : 1. Scattered settlements are mostly found in forest and desert. 2. The means of transport are used for carrying goods and passengers. 3. TheTrans-Siberian railway line connects Petersburg with Vladivostok. 4. The busiest ocean route in the world is the North Atlantic route. 5. Sea route continue to be the preferred medium for transport of crude petroleum. Bookman India

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E. Distinguish between: 1. Rural and urban settlements : Ans. Rural Urban 1. Villages are known as A town or a city is termed as an rural settlements. urban settlement. 2. agriculture, fishing, Occupations are industry. cattle rearing, etc. transport, education, hospitals, etc. 2. Domestic and international air routes. Ans. The Domestic air routes ply within a country while international air routes have been developed in all continents except Africa. 3. Means of transport and means of communication : Ans. Transport Communication 1. Used to carry goods Used to communicate with and passengers. the people both far and near. e.g. telephone, cable, radio, 2. e.g. Roadways, railways, water ways, airways. television, etc. 4. Waterways and airways : Ans. Waterways airways 1. Oldest and cheapest means of Fastest and the most expensive transport. means of transport. 2. two type-inland and two types-domestic and sea routes. international routes. 5. Inland waterways and sea ways : Ans. Inland waterways Sea ways 1. Navigable rivers, lakes and Seas and oceans are used. canals are used. 2. Used to transport goods Used to transport goods and passenger. and passengers. 3. From one state to another. From one continent to another. F. Project / Activity : 1. On an outline map of the India show the following : (i) Ten major cities. (ii) Four important International airports... (iii) Important canals and navigable rivers. Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Make a list of the transport you have travelled in/on. Ans. (Do yourself) G. Explain the following terms : 1. Settlement – The settlements represent a stage in human progress and development of technology that shaped the man in what he is today. 2. Mass communication – Means to communicate with a large no of people at the same time. e.g. newspaper, radio, T.V. 3. Waterways – Transportation through rivers, canals, seas and oceans are knows as water ways. 4. Scattered settlements – Such settlements can be seen in forested areas, hilly regions and deserts. The houses are scattered over a large area. 5. National highways – The wide and metalled roads, two lane or four lane, connecting distant towns are called national highways. Bookman India

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6. Cultural towns – These towns represent cultural heritage of the country as in dance, language, education, etc. such as Oxford, Shantiniketan, Allahabad. 7. Compact settlements – Houses are made very close to each other in compact settlements with narrow and winding streets. Such settlements are mostly found in fertile river valleys and plains. H. Short answer questions : 1. What is a highway? Ans. The wide and metalled roads, 2 lane or four lane, connecting distant towns are called national highways. 2. What are the two chief types of communication? Ans. Personal communication and Mass media. 3. What is the importance of air transport? Ans. Air transport is the fastest means of transport. 4. Enumerate some modern means of communication. Ans. Telephone, cable, fax, mobilephones, internet, radio, television, newspaper, etc are some important means of communication. 5. What do you know about the different types of waterways? Ans. Waterways are of two types : 1. Inland waterways – used to transport within the country. 2. Sea routes – used to transport from one continent to another. 6. How is water transport important today? Ans. Water transport is important because its routes are maintenance free. It is most widely used to carry bulky goods and liquids specially petroleum and gas across countries. I. Long answer questions : 1. What factors are responsible for the growth and development of a settlement? Ans. The factors responsible for the growth and development of a settlement are : 1. availability of water 2. suitable land 3. fertile soil 4. favourable climate 2. What is the difference in the occupations of the people in rural and urban settlements? Ans. Rural Urban 1. Villages are known as A town or a city is termed as rural settlements. urban settlements. 2. agriculture, fishing, Occupations are industry cattle rearing, etc. transport, education, hospitals, etc. 3. Rural and urban settlements are interdependent. Justify this statement. Ans. The villages supply food grains, fruits, vegetables, agricultural raw materials and labourers to the towns. While cities supply services like medical treatment, education, entertainment and employment Bookman India

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4. Ans.

5. Ans.

6. Ans.

7. Ans.

9.

opportunities to the villagers. This strengthens the relationship of rural and urban settlements. What are the advantages of road transport? Roads offer the most popular mode of transport. It is used for both long distance and short distance transport, construction of roads is cheaper than railways. Roads can also be constructed in mountainous, sandy or snow covered areas. What are the chief features, responsible for the development of railways? Railway is the life line of Indian economy. Railways carry raw materials to industrial regions and distributes the finished goods inside the country. Railways are important even for passenger transport. 'Metro' trains are the best example of it. What factors make the waterways the most inexpensive mode of transport? Waterways is used in rivers, canals, seas and oceans, expense is involved in maintenance of tracks. So, we can say that it is the most inexpensive mode of transport. It is widely used to carry bulky goods and liquids specially petroleum and gas. Why is air transport preferred over the other means of transport? Air transport is preferred than other because it is the fastest means of transport. It was first used in world war I. The aeroplanes ply on domestic and international routes.

HUMAN-ENVIRONMENT INTERACTION

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. Where life is very much harsh? 3 (a) Cold desert of Ladakh (b) Hot deserts of Sahara (c) Both of them (d) None of them 2. Which place is famous for dense population? (a) Sahara desert (b) Ganga-Brahmaputra plains 3 (c) Both of them (d) None of them 3. In which continent, there is no desert? (a) Asia (b) Europe 3 (c) Africa (d) None of them 4. Ladakh the cold desert is also known as : 3 (a) Deccan plateau (b) Intermontane plateau (c) Both of them (d) None of them 5. Which monastery is one of the highest inhabited places in the world? 3 (a) Thicksey monastery (b) Likir monastery (c) Both of them (d) None of them 28 Bookman India Enjoy with Social Life – 7

B. Very short answer questions : 1. Why do people in the desert wear long and loose clothes? Ans. People in the desert wear long and loose clothes to protect themselves from hot wind and dust storms. 2. Which city in Iraq is known as 'Date City'? Ans. 'Basra' city is Iraq is known as 'Date-city'. 3. In which area are date palms produced in large quantity? Ans. Date palms grow in large quantity near the oasis in desert area. 4. Which is the second highest peak of the world located in Ladakh? Ans. 'Mt. Godwin Austen (K2)' is second highest peak of the world located in Ladakh. 5. Which monastery is one of the highest inhabited places in the world? Ans. 'Likir' monastery is one of the highest inhabited places in the world, located in Ladakh. C. Write True or False : 1. A desert can be hot but not cold. False 2. Pashmina is obtained from goats. True 3. Ladakh is a hot desert in north Africa. False 4. The Sahara desert is a flat, sandy waterless waste land. False 5. High mountains and aridity are the chief characteristics of Ladakh. True D. Fill in the blanks : 1. The desert areas recieve less than 25 cm of rainfall. 2. The Sahara desert covers almost 11 countries. 3. Ladakh is located in the northern Himalayan range. 4. The important nomadic tribes in Sahara are Bedouins and Tuaregs. 5. Buddhist monasteries attract tourists from all over the world. E. Write their names : 1. Two types of deserts : (a) cold (b) hot 2. Two nomadic tribes : (a) Bedouins (b) Tuaregs 3. Two vegetations of hot desert : (a) Cacti (b) Date 4. Two vegetations of cold desert : (a) Apple (b) Apricot 5. Two districts of Ladakh : (a) Leh (b) Kargil 6. Two countries of Sahara desert : (a) Libya (b) Egypt F. Project / Activity : 1. Collect some pictures of the desert : Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Find out these places in the Atlas : Leh, Kargil, Karakoram range, Srinagar lake, Chad, Red Sea, Nile, Mediterranean Sea, Egypt, Indus river, Niger river Ans. (Do yourself) Bookman India

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G. Short answer questions : 1. Describe an oasis in the Sahara. Ans. An area, in the midst of a desert, which has sufficient water to support plant growth is called Oasis. 2. What occupations are followed in the oasis region? Ans. Near the oasis millet, maize, dates and other fruits are cultivated. Farming in done near the Oasis. 3. Where is Ladakh situated? Ans. Ladakh is a high mountainous region in the eastern part of Jammu and Kashmir. It is a cold desert. 4. What is the common feature of a cold and a hot desert? Ans. Extreme aridity or dryness is the common feature of all the deserts. 5. What are the main occupations of the people in Ladakh region? Ans. Their main occupations are– rearing sheep, goat, and yak for milk, cheese, meat and wool. H. Long answer questions : 1. What are the characteristics of a desert? Distinguish between a cold and hot desert. Ans. The deserts are barren lands. They are characterized by extreme temperatures, less than 25 cm of rainfall annually and scanty vegetation. Extreme aridity or dryness is the common feature of all the deserts. Life in the cold deserts of Ladakh is not so harsh as in the hot deserts of Sahara. People led a nomadic life in Sahara only, around Oasis. Vegetation is scarce due to lack of water and extremity of climate. 2. Describe the location and extent of the Sahara desert. Ans. Sahara extends from the Red sea in the east to the Atlantic ocean in the west. Towards the south, the desert merges into the Savanna grassland. To the north-west of the Sahara lies the Atlas mountains. The Sahara desert covers almost 11 countries. 3. Why do most people in desert lead a nomadic life? Ans. Most people in desert are herdsmen. They rear sheep, camels and goats. These animals provide milk, meat and hides. These tribes keep on wandering in search of pastures and pitch their tents where fodder is available for their animals. 4. What is the life style of the people living near an Oasis? Ans. People living near the Oasis are both cultivators and herdsmen. They cultivate wheat, maize, sweet potatoes, onions, beans and tobacco. They rear sheep, camels and goats. Generally they live a nomadic life. 5. Describe the location and extent of Ladakh. Ans. Ladakh is located in the northern Great Himalayan range. Its average height is about 6,000 metres above mean sea level. The total area is about 98,000sq km. 6. Describe the physical features of Ladakh. Ans. The most striking features in Ladakh are the high mountains and aridity. Lack of rains make this region a desert. The rainfall is as low as 10 cm every year. Snowfall is frequent during the winter months. Bookman India

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GRASSLANDS 10. LIFE IN THE TEMPERATE (THE PRAIRIE AND THE VELD) Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. The french word 'Prairie' means a meadow or: 3 (a) Field (b) Grassland (c) Both of them (d) None of them 2. The velocity of wind is high due to the: 3 (a) Abundance of trees (b) Absence of trees (c) Both of them (d) None of them 3. Which of the following crops is grown in the Prairie? 3 (a) Rice (b) Rye (c) Both of them (d) None of them 4. Which country is the largest producer of wool in the world? 3 (a) Australia (b) South Africa (c) China (d) None of them 5. Which country is the largest producer of mohair in the world? (a) Australia (b) South Africa 3 (c) Both of them (d) None of them B. Very short answer questions : 1. Who supervise the cattle rearing in the Prairie? Ans. The cowboys supervise the cattle rearing in Prairie. 2. Where are the famous diamond mines located in South Africa? Ans. Famous kimberley diamond mines are located on the Western borders of the Veld, in South Africa. 3. What are the temperate grasslands of USA and Canada called? Ans. The temperate grasslands of USA and Canada are called 'Prairies'. 4. What are the temperate grasslands of South Africa called? Ans. The temperate grasslands of South Africa are called 'Veld'. 5. Which desert bounds the Veld on the west? Ans. The 'Kalahari' desert bounds the Veld on the west. 6. What is the climate of the Veld? Ans. The veld experiences Warm and wet summers and cold and dry winters. 7. Which country is the second largest exporter of Merino wool in the world? Ans. South Africa is the second largest exporter of Merino wool in the world. C. Write True or False : 1. In the dry western part, cattle rearing is the main economic activity. True 2. The Veld is known as the 'Granary of the World'. False 3. Some farms in the Veld practice mixed farming. True 4. Contour ploughing is widely practiced to reduce soil erosion. True 5. Winnipeg in Canada is called the 'Gateway of the Veld.' False Bookman India

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D. Fill in the blanks : 1. The Prairie is drained by the Mississippi river in USA. 2. The sheep in the Veld consist mainly of Merino breed. 3. Colour grass grows in Bush Veld. 4. The Prairie dog is the popular animal of central USA. 5. The 'Chinook' blows downs to the eastern slopes of the Rockies. E. Project / Activity : Ans. (Do yourself) F. Short answer questions : 1. What do you understand by cowboys? Ans. A person in Western America, who rides a horse and takes care of cattle, is known as cowboy. 2. What do you understand by the continental type of climate? Ans. High difference in day and night temperature is called continental type of climate. Prairies have this type of climate. 3. What is high Veld? Ans. The slopes region of north-eastern part of the plateau is known as high Veld. 4. What is middle Veld? Ans. The middle Veld is the plateau region where grasslands are located. 5. What is the low Veld? Ans. Below middle Veld is low Veld. It is a ridge and forms watersheds of the regions. 6. Why is the Prairie known as the 'Granary of the World'? Ans. Due to surplus wheat production the Prairies are known as 'Granary of the World'. 7. What do you know about mixed farming? Ans. Some farmers undertake farming and cattle-rearing. This joint activity is known as mixed farming. G. Long answer questions : 1. What is the location and extent of the Prairie? Ans. The Prairies are located between 40°N and 55°N. They extend from the Mississippi river in the east to the Rocky mountains in the west. 2. What are known as Prairies and Veld? Ans. The temperate grasslands, found in USA and Canada, are called Prairies. While the temperate grasslands of South Africa are called Veld. 3. What factors have made the Prairie extremely fertile? Ans. The Prairies have continental type of climate with high difference in day and night temperature. The natural environment favours the cultivation of a large variety of crops. All farming work is mechanized. All these factors improve the fertility of soil. 4. Describe the vegetation and animal life of the Prairie? Ans. The Prairies have a special tall type of grass, two metres high with long roots. The entire region is a treeless plain. But trees as poplars and willows grow in the river valleys. The popular animal is the prairie dog of central USA. other important animals are rabbits, coyotes and gophers in the region. 32 Bookman India Enjoy with Social Life – 7

5. What is the significance of the Canadian Pacific railway line in the Prairie? Ans. Canadian Pacific railway was established in 1885, in Prairies. This transport system was introduced to attract the people to settle there. 6. What are the main economic activities in the Veld? Ans. The Veld are a has rich deposits of minerals like iron, gold and manganese. Gold and coal are mined in Johannesburg region. The Veld is highly suitable for cattle and sheep rearing. It is a centre of industries dealing in iron, steel and medicine. 7. How is the climate of the Veld like? Ans. In the Veld, the summers are warm and wet while winters are cold and dry. The night temperature may dip below freezing point. Rainfall is scanty and drought can occur in the months of June, July and August.

11.

LIFE IN TROPICAL AND SUBTROPICAL REGIONS (THE AMAZON BASIN AND THE GANGA-BRAHMAPUTRA BASIN)

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. Anaconda is a type of : 3 (a) Bird (b) Snake (c) Both of them (d) None of them 2. What is River Brahmaputra called in Tibet? 3 (a) Meghna Po (b) Tsang Po (c) Ping Po (d) None of them 3. The longest river in size and volume in the world is : 3 (a) Amazon (b) Nile (c) Both of them (d) None of them 4. The Ganga-Brahmaputra is very favourable : 3 (a) Industry (b) Agriculture (c) Both of them (d) None of them 5. The Amazon Basin is in the continent of : 3 (a) South America (b) Africa (c) Asia (d) None of them B. Very short answer questions : 1. Which is the largest river in size and volume? Ans. The Amazon is the largest river in size and volume. 2. Who discovered the Amazon river? Ans. A Spanish explorer, 'Vicente Yanez Pinzon', Discovered Amazon river. 3. What kind of forest is the Amazon basin? Ans. The Amazon basin is an evergreen equatorial forest. 4. Which is the lightest wood found in the Amazon basin? Ans. 'Balsa' is the name of lightest wood found in the Amazon basin. Bookman India

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5. Ans. 6. Ans. 7. Ans.

What kind of industry have come up in the Northern plains? Agro-based industry have come up in the Northern plains. Which is the most fertile delta in the world? 'Sunderban' in the most fertile delta in the world. What kind of forests are found in the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin? The mangrove forests and corniferous forests are found in the GangaBrahmaputra basin. C. Fill in the blanks : 1. The Amazon basin experiences an equatorial type of climate. 2. Ganga-Brahmaputra basin is a world's densly populated region. 3. The Ganga originates from the Gangotri glacier. 4. The people in the Amazon basin make their huts on stilts to save themselves from flood. 5. A large number of people in the Ganga-Brahmaputra plains are engaged in secondary and territory occupations. D. Write their names : 1. Species of plants found in Amazon basin : (a) Ebony (b) Palm (c) Rubber 2. Countries lie in the Amazon basin : (a) Brazil (b) Peru (c) Colombia 3. Birds and animals found in Amazon basin : (a) Hummingbird (b) Monkey (c) Sloths 4. Crops of the Ganga-Brahmaputra plains : (a) Wheat (b) Rice (c) Sugarcane 5. Important trees of the Ganga-Brahmaputra forests : (a) Sal (b) Teak (c) Peepa E. Project / Activity : 1. Make a list of important towns located on the bank of Ganga. Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Find out why the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin is more fertile and developed than the Amazon basin. Ans. (Do yourself) F. Short answer questions : 1. Why are the equatorial rainforests in the Amazon basin depleting? Ans. Due to massive deforestation, the equatorial rainforests in the Amazon basin depleting. 2. How has the alluvial plains of the Amazon river been formed? Ans. The vast alluvial plains, of the Amazon, have been formed due to the fertile soil brought by the Amazon river. 3. What is the Sunderban delta? Ans. The Ganga and the Brahmaputra form the largest and perhaps the most fertile delta in the world, the 'Sunderbans'. 4. Where does the Brahmaputra river originate and end? Ans. The Brahmaputra river originates in Tibet and in the end falls into the Bay of Bengal. Bookman India

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5. Ans. 6. Ans.

What do you know about Amazonia? The central part of the Amazon basin is known as Amazonia. Describe the rich variety of wildlife in the Amazon basin. The forests are alive with the different birds such as mammals, reptiles, alligators, insects and fishes. G. Long answer questions : 1. What is the location and extent of the Amazon basin? Ans. The Amazon river forms its Basin in South America. The basin lies close to the Equator so it has an equatorial type of climate. 2. How was the Amazon River named so? Ans. In 1541, the European navigator Francisco de Orellana confronted fierce tribal women warriors, when he was sailing the river. He compared these women with the legendary Greek mythological Amazons. Thus the river got its name Amazon. 3. What is the relation between the climatic conditions and forests in the Amazon basin? Ans. Due to the hot and humid climate and extensive rainfall, the basin is full of largest and thickest forests in the world. These are called the evergreen equatorial forests. These forests are also known as Selvas in South America. 4. Write a note on the natural vegetation in the Amazon basin. Ans. The Amazon basin is a rainforests area known as Selvas. It has a great variety of natural vegetation and wildlife. The trees grow very close to each other. The trunks are almost bare but they are like an umbrella at the top. Creepers and climbers are found in a large scale. 5. What are the major economic activities of the people of the Amazon basin? Ans. In Amazon basin, people obtain food by hunting, gathering and fishing. They practice agriculture. Shifting agriculture is widely in practice. The women grow pineapples, bananas, yams and manioc. 6. Why are the Ganga-Brahmaputra plains very developed? Ans. The fertile soil of the Ganga-Brahmaputra plains are favourablel for agriculture. The basin has a number of geographical advantages which favour agriculture. As a result, many agro-based industries have been set up in the region. The abundant food has led to high concentration of population growth of towns and cities.

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Enjoy with Social Life – 7 (Unit – II History)

1.

MEDIEVAL INDIAN HISTORY

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. The period up to 8th century AD is called : 3 (a) Modern period (b) Ancient period (c) Both of them (d) None of them 2. Which century marks the beginning of the modern period? 3 (a) 17th century (b) 18th century (c) 16th century (d) None of them 3. What is the science of studying epigraphs called? 3 (a) Monography (b) Epigraphy (c) Biography (d) None of them 4. Who had written Prithviraj Raso? 3 (a) Somadeva (b) Chand Bardai (c) Jaideva (d) None of them 5. Which period in Europe was known as "The Dark Ages"? 3 (a) AD 400-AD 1500 (b) AD 300-AD 1200 (c) AD 300-AD 1500 (d) None of them B. Very short answer questions : 1. What do you understand by 'Medieval period'? Ans. The period, which gives us information about the period, which lies between the ancient and modern ear, is known as medieval period. 2. Name some important historical sources for the medieval history of India. Ans. Important historical sources are : 1. Historical Accounts by Scholars, Foreign Travellers 2. Inscriptions 3. Literary Account 4. Coins 5. Monuments 6. Art, Architecture and Music 3. Why was the period between AD 400-AD 1500 known as 'The Dark Ages' in Europe? Ans. A series of attacks conducted by tribes, wars between small kingdoms, decline of trade, poverty, political insecurity are the reasons behind this name. The Dark Ages in Europe. 4. What was Feudalism? Ans. Feudalism is a system in which land is owned by a persons other than the real titler. Bookman India

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5. Why is Silk Route so named? Ans. Silk-Route is so named because it reflected the importance of this particular commodity in trade. And with trade, Buddhism and Islamic religions also reached China. C. Write True of False : 1. Prithviraj Raso written by Chand Bardai. True 2. Jaideva was a court poet of the first Chauhan rular. False 3. The birth place of Jesus Christ in Palestine. True 4. Central Asia was an important link in trade between Africa and Europe. False 5. The religion of Islam was founded by Muhammad Ibn Abdullah. True D. Fill in the blanks : 1. The year 622 in Islam is known as Hijri and is the first year of calender. 2. The Mughals ruled during the Later Medieval Period. 3. Trade brought India and the rest of the world closer. 4. Monuments, inscriptions and coins are archaeological sources, while autobiographies and biographies are literary sources. 5. The peasants in Europe during the feudalism were known as serfs. 6. The nobles were known as vassals who were given land in lieu of their services. E. Match the following : 1. Jesus Christ (a) The peasants 2. Mongol king (b) Founder of Christianity 3. Prophet Muhammad (c) The noble and the officers 4. Jerusalem (d) Changhiz Khan 5. Serf (e) Birth place of Jesus Christ 6. Vassal (f) Founder of Islam F. Project / Activity : (i) Collect the pictures of different monuments of the medieval period and paste them in your scrapbook. Ans. (Do yourself) (ii) Make a chart to show different types of archaeological sites of Indian in your region. Ans. (Do yourself) G. Write the authors of these books : 1. Gita Govinda Jaideva 2. Katha Sarit Sagar Somadeva 3. Rajatarangini Kalhana 4. Prithviraj Raso Chand Bardai 5. Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi Zia-ud-din Barani 6. Tughluqnama Amir Khusrau H. Short answer questions : 1. Name the approximate dates covered by the medieval period. Ans. The medieval period is considered to begin from the 8th century AD and end in the 18th century AD. Bookman India

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2. Name the type of materials on which you can find inscriptions of the medieval period. Ans. We can find inscriptions of the medieval period are rocks, stones and coins. 3. In how many parts is the medieval history normally divided? Ans. This period is divided into two parts : 1. The early medieval period (from 8th to 12th century AD) 2. The late medieval period (from 13th to 18th Century AD) 4. Name the events in Europe that had immense influence on the events of India. Explain. Ans. A series of attacks conducted by tribes had led to the disintegration of the Roman Empire. As a result trade declined, poverty increased. The progress in every sphere of life was at a very slow pace. In such a state of lowlessness and disorder, a ray of hope existed, as Christianity progressed. The other event that influenced India in big way were the crusades (holy wars) that brought many new ideas and helped in the improvement of trade. 5. Describe our sources of studying history of Indian Medieval Period. Ans. Important historical sources are : 1. Historical Accounts by Scholars, Foreign Travellers 2. Inscriptions 3. Literary Account 4. Coins 5. Monuments 6. Art, Architecture and Music 6. Name the sites of any three monuments relating to the medieval period. Ans. 1. Red fort in Delhi 2. Kailash Temple in Aurangabad (Maharashtra) 3. Taj Mahal in Agra 7. What do you understand by the Silk Route? Why was it called so? Ans. Central Asia was an important link in trade between China and Western Asia. This route was famous as the Silk Route. It was named so because the route taken by the trading caravans carrying silk across and it reflected the importance of this particular commodity in trade. 8. Did interaction of the civilizations of the world benefit the people? Ans. As a result of interaction between the native and foreign cultures, a composite culture developed in India. A number of social and political changes were notice there after. I. Long answer questions : 1. What do you understand by the medieval period? Ans. The period, which gives us information about the period, which lies between the ancient and modern era, is known as medieval period. Bookman India

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2. Ans.

3. Ans.

4. Ans.

5. Ans.

6. Ans.

7. Ans.

The medieval period is considered to began from 8th century AD and end in the 18th century AD. 8th - 12th AD - early medieval period 13th-18th AD late medieval period. What were the major historical developments during the medieval period? The medieval period in India is characterized by some important developments : 1. After the death of king Harsha, the century was broken into several small and independent kingdoms, which had wars with each other. 2. Development of composite culture. 3. Islam spread rapidly in India. 4. India had trade relations all over the world. So a new impetus was given to the development of art, architecture, literature, music and painting. How did other civilization influence India in the medieval period? The progress and events that took in India in the medieval period were influenced by the events that took place in other parts of the world as well as within the boundaries of India. Turks, Afghans and Mughals were the prominent dynasties which came outside India brought with them new knowledge and culture. List some archeological and literary sources available for the medieval period? The archeological sources include temples, monuments, palaces, tombs mosques, coins, inscriptions, weapons, tools, paintings, etc. The literary sources include chronicles of court historians, biographies, autobiographies, farmans, correspondence of the kings etc. What do you understand by feudalism and crusades? Feudalism is a system in which land in owned by a person other than the real titter. Crusade is a long and determined effort to achieve something considered right. Why was the Northern India greatly influenced by Muslim culture? During the medieval period, a number of muslim invaders attacked India. Indian culture and beliefs were greatly influenced by the Turks, Afghans and Mughals. The cultural exchanges led to the growth of a culture that was above regional and caste differences. How did the Chinese inventions influence the world? The Chinese inventions influence the world too much. We can see its impact in our daily life. In the field of toys, electric goods, crockry, blankets and many more useful Chinese items, are flooded in the market. The main reason behind it is the use of latest technology and less cost.

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2.

NEW KINGS AND KINGDOMS

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. Which city had always been the focus of enjoy in the North? 3 (a) Varanasi (b) Kanauj (c) Surat (d) None of them 2. Who established Vikramshila University in Magadha? 3 (a) The Palas (b) The Rajputs (c) Both of them (d) None of them 3. Who issued a coin which bone the inscription of the Varaha? 3 (a) King Bhoja (b) Muhammad Bin Qasim (c) Both of them (d) None of them 4. When was the first battle of Tarain fought? 3 (a) In AD 1191 (b) In AD 1190 (c) In AD 1192 (d) None of them 5. Who wrote a book on India named Tarikh-i-Hind? 3 (a) Alberuni (b) Raja Bhoja (c) Kalidas (d) None of them B. Very short answer questions : 1. Name the three major kingdoms which were involved in the struggle to capture Kanauj. Ans. The Pratiharas, The Rashtrakutas, The Palas. 2. Write about king Bhoja as a renowned king of the Pratihara dynasty. Ans. King Bhoja conquered Kanauj and made it his capital. He had a great interest in art and literature. He was a devotee of Lord Vishnu. 3. Name the four class of Rajputs which considered themselves to be part of the fire family. Ans. The four class of Rajputs : Pratiharas, Chauhans, Solankis and Paramaras belong to fire family. 4. How was the Turkish rule established in India? Ans. Turkish occupied these small kingdoms of Rajputs and built a large empire. The Turks were interested in the wealth and riches of India, so, their invasions started. 5. What kind of information does the book Tarikh-i-Hind give? Ans. This book gives us various information about the rare facts of Indian society then and detailed account of the condition of people in India. C. Write True or False : 1. The Pala dynasty was founded by Gopala in AD 750. True 2. King Bhoja ruled for about from AD 825 to AD 830. False 3. Chandra-Vanshi were belonging to the sun family. False 4. The Mahmud of Ghazni was the first Turkish invader. True 5. Ghazni was a big kingdom in Afghanistan. False 6. The first battle of Tarain was faught in AD 1191. True Bookman India

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D. Fill in the blanks : 1. The Pratiharas succeeded the Palas. 2. The Gurjara Pratiharas were the rulers of Rajasthan and Gujarat. 3. The last ruler of Kanauj was Raja jaichand. 4. Mahmud of Ghazni was the first Turkish invader in India. 5. Mahmud of Ghazni was interested only in the wealth of India. E. Match the following : A B 1. Partiharas (a) Kathiawar 2. Solankis (b) Malwa 3. Mahmud Ghaznavi (c) Bengal 4. Muhammad Ghori (d) Kanauj 5. Paramaras (e) Bettle of Tarain 6. Palas (f) Somnath F. Give one word for the following : 1. Prithviraj Chauhan and Muhammad Ghori clashed twice at this place. Tarain (in Haryana) 2. This opened the gates of Muslim rule in India. Muhammad Ghori 3. The nobles who controlled the agricultural lands enjoyed also the institutional power. Feudatories 4. This temple of Shiva was rebuilt and destroyed thrice. Somnath 5. A foreign visitor who was a great scholar, mathematician and an astronomer. Alberuni G. List one cause : 1. Invasion of Muhammad Ghori – Mohammad Ghori wanted to settle down and establish a large empire in India. 2. Invasion of Muhmud of Ghazni – He came India to loot and plunder the temples and take away the riches. 3. Political cause of the defeat of Rajputs – The Rajputs never realized the importance of political unity. They remained busy in mutual fights. H. Project / Activity : 1. Locate the important Rajput states on the outline map of India. Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Collect the pictures of the temples, and forts of the Rajput Period. Ans. (Do yourself) I. Short answer questions : 1. Who were the Tomars? Ans. The Tomars were one of the main Rajput clans that ruled during this period. They ruled over Haryana, Delhi and the region around them. 2. Where were the battles between Prithviraj and Muhammad Ghori fought? What was the ultimate result? Ans. The first battle of Tarain was fought in AD 1191, between Prithviraj and Ghori. In this battle Ghori defeated. In AD 1192, Ghori came back with a larger and better army at the same place. Prithviraj lost the battle and captured. Bookman India

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3. List three causes of the success of foreign invaders against Indian rulers? Ans. The three causes for the success of foreign invaders were : 1. The Rajputs never realized the importance of political unity. 2. They never tried to check the enemy at the Indian frontiers. 3. Due to rigid caste system, only the Kshatriyas were allowed to become soldiers. 4. What was the impact of Turkish invasions of India? Ans. The Mahmud of Ghazni was the first Turkish invader. He never thought to rule over India. He came here to loot and plunder the temples and cities and take away the riches. 5. What was the difference between the raids of Muhammad Ghori and those of Mahmud of Ghazni? Ans. The basic difference between the raids of Ghori and Ghazni was that Ghazni came India to loot and plunder. He never thought to rule over India. While Ghori wanted to settle down and establish a large empire in India. J. Long answer questions : 1. What do you know about the tripartite struggle for Kanauj? Ans. Kanauj had always been the focus of envy for most kings in the North. The major fact was its fertile land and its prime location in the Northern plains that enabled its rulers to have complete control over the Ganga Valley. 2. Who were the Rajputs? Name the Rajput clans which ruled during this period. Ans. The Rajputs played an important role in the history of medieval India. All the Rajputs claimed that they were either 'Surya-Vanshi' or 'Chandra-Vanshi'. The Tomars, Chauhans, Paramaras, Solankis, the Chandelles, and the Gahadavalas were the main Rajput clans that ruled during this period. 3. Who were the Pratiharas? What was the contribution of King Bhoja? Ans. The Pratiharas ruled over parts of Rajasthan and Gujarat. King Bhoja was a renowned king of the Pratiharas dynasty. He extended his empire from Kashmir to Narmada and Kathiawar to Bihar. King Bhoja had a great interest in art and literature. He was a devotee of Lord Vishnu. 4. How did the Kings become weak in the Early Medieval Period? What was its effect? Ans. The Rajput kings were very brave and strong fighters. But they usually remained busy in fighting among themselves which made them weak. The effect of their mutual wars was, that foreign invaders came India. They looted its wealth and established a vast empire in India. 5. Who was Muhammad Ghori? What were his aims in India? Ans. Muhammad Ghori was the most powerful king of the Ghor dynasty who laid the foundation of Muslim rule in India. As opposed to Ghazni, Ghori wanted to settle down and establish a large empire in India. Bookman India

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3.

KINGDOMS OF THE SOUTH

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. Which region has been described as "Dakshinapath" in ancient literature of India? 3 (a) North India (b) South India (c) East India (d) None of them 2. Who were the very powerful kings of Northern Deccan? 3 (a) The Cholas (b) The Rashtrakutas (c) Both of them (d) None of them 3. Where did the Pandyas rule over? 3 (b) Modern Chennai (a) Modern Madurai (c) Both on them (d) None of them 4. During the Cholas regime, the Mandalams were divided into several : 3 (a) Nadus (b) Valanadus (c) Both of them (d) None of them 5. Who had put the first example of rain water harvesting? 3 (b) The Pandyas (a) The Cholas (c) Both of them (d) None of them B. Very short answer questions : 1. Name any three kingdoms of the South. Ans. Tanjore, Kerala, Madurai. 2. Where did the Rashtrakutas rule? Ans. The Rashtrakulas ruled in the Maharashtra region up to Nasik. 3. Who were the two great kings of the Chola dynasty? Ans. Rajaraja Chola and Rajendra Chola were the two great kings of Chola dynasty. 4. What was the role of the temples in the Chola dynasty? Ans. Temples were not only the place for worship but also carried out many other activities and for education too. Priests performed the duties of the teachers. 5. Which languages were encouraged by the Chola rulers? Ans. Tamil, Telugu and Kannada languages were encouraged by the Chola rulers. C. Write True or False : 1. The Chola empire was divided into Valanadus. True 2. Both Rajaraja Chola and Rajendra Chola had a strong navy. True 3. Ramanuja was a Bhakti Saint. True 4. All male adults were the members of the Sabha. False 5. Bhakti means complete devotion to God. True 6. A Chola village assembly of all classes of people who owned False land with in the village was called Mahasabha. 43 Bookman India Enjoy with Social Life – 7

D. Fill in the blanks : 1. The Pala dynasty ruled in AD 750 to 836. 2. The greatest of the Chola king was Rajaraja in AD 985-1044. 3. Chola empire had their capital at Tanjore. 4. Rajendra Chola assumed the title of 'Gangaikonda Chola'. 5. Three jewels of Kannada literature were Pampa, Ponna and Ranna. 6. The Brihadesvara temple is in Thanjavur. E. Project / Activity : 1. Collect picture of South Indian temples built during the medieval period. Ans. (Do yourself) 2. On a map of India, locate the various Deccan and South Indian Kingdoms. Ans. (Do yourself) F. Write short notes on : 1. Local self government of the Chola empire. Ans. Villages enjoyed freedom in looking after their own affairs by the village assemblies 'Ur' and 'Sabha'. 'Ur' was the general assembly while 'Sabha' was the meeting place of all adults in the village. 2. Expansion of agriculture. Ans. The area for cultivation was increased. A lot of dry barren and forest land was prepared fit for cultivation and irrigation facilities were spread to cover more land. 3. The administration of the Chola rulers. Ans. The Chola kings always had the advice of their council of ministers and the chief priest. The kingdom was divided into states, districts, villages and towns. 4. The early Bhakti movement. Ans. Early Bhakti movement was born out of the clash of two ideologiesNayannars and Myanars. These were two wandering saints. Bhakti movement preached that "loving God with a pure heart was the only way to come close to God." 5. Art and Architecture of the Chola dynasty. Ans. The Cholas were great temple builders. Temples were bigger and more magnificient. The idols were made of stones and bronze. The famous bronze image of Nataraja is a fine example of Chola art. G. Short answer questions : 1. Write a short note on literature during the early medieval period. Ans. This period witnessed the growth of regional languages such as Tamil, Telugu and Kannada. Pampa, Ponna and Ranna were three famous poets of Kannada. Lingayat were the religious teaching, preached in Kannada. 2. What were the main features of the villages administration during the Cholas? Ans. The Chola kings always had the advice of their council of ministers Bookman India

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and the chief Priest. The kingdom was divided into states, districts, villages and towns. 3. Describe the naval expeditions of the Cholas. Ans. Rajendra Cholas defeated the king of Sumatra in a naval campaign and annexed a portion of Sumatra to his empire. 4. State the development of art and architecture during the Cholas. Ans. The Cholas were great temple builders. Temples were bigger and more magnificient. The idols were made of stones and bronze. The famous bronze image of Nataraja is a fine example of Chola art. 5. Describe any two important Chola rulers. Ans. Rajaraja Chola and Rajendra Chola were the two great kings of Chola dynasty. H. Long answer questions : 1. Name the powers that ruled in the Deccan during medieval period. Ans. The Rashtrakutas, The Pallavas, Pandyas and the Cholas ruled in the Deccan during medieval period. 2. How are Cholas remembered in history? Mention their main rulers and the territory over which they ruled. Ans. The Kings of the Chola dynasty are best remembered for what they created than what they ruled. They ruled in South India for nearly four centuries. They established a powerful empire. That is why they are known as the 'Imperial Cholas'. Their main rulers and their territories were : 1. Vijayalaya – Tanjore 2. Parantaka – from whole of coromandal coast, Maldives, Java and Tanjore. 3. Who founded the Chola dynasty? How did the Chola kings become powerful? Ans. The founder of the Chole dynasty was Vijayalaya (AD 846-871). The Chola rulers adopted certain political, economic and administrative policies which saw both political stability in the region and also ensured economic prosperity. They expended their army and navy. The Cholas maintained trade relations with China, Malaysia and Myanmar, so the Chola kings became powerful. 4. What were the causes of the conflicts between the Cholas and the kingdoms of Sri Vijaya? Ans. Indian ships had to pass through the Straits of Molucca, which was a part of the kingdom of Sri Vijaya. But the people of Sri Vijaya's kingdom did not allow Indian merchants to cross the pass. Rajendra Chola had a war with Sri Vijaya and defeated him. 5. Write about the administrative features of the Chola kingdoms. Ans. The Chola King were very powerful. But they always had the advice of their council of ministers and the chief Priest. The kingdom was divided into states, districts, villages and towns. Bookman India

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4.

THE SULTANS OF DELHI-I

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. Muhammad-bin-Tughluq gave high offices to people on the basis of : 3 (a) Merit (b) Religion (c) Both of them (d) None of them 2. The people in the Doab were unable to pay the increased tax because of : 3 (a) Floods (b) Famine (c) Both of them (d) None of them 3. Who was the founder of Tughluq dynasty? (a) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq (b) Ghiyas-ud-din Tughluq 3 (c) Timur (d) None of them 4. The Tughluq dynasty came to an end with invasion of : 3 (a) Babar (b) Timur (c) Humayun (d) None of them 5. Ala-ud-din-paid his soldiers by : 3 (b) Gold and Silver (a) Cash (c) Both of them (d) None of them B. Very short answer questions : 1. Which minaret was started by Qutub-ud-din Aibak and completed by Iltutmish? Ans. Qutub-Minar. 2. What is the doab? Ans. The doab is the fertile land between the Ganga and the Yamuna river. 3. Who was the only Muslim lady ruler of Delhi Sultanate? Ans. Razia Sultana. 4. Who was the founder of the Slave dynasty? Ans. Qutub-ud-din Aibak. 5. What was the harsh and vindictive policy of Balban known as? Ans. 'Blood and Iron' was the harsh and vindictive policy of Balban known as. C. Write True or False : 1. Qutub-ud-din Aibak was the founder of the slave dynasty. True 2. Iltutmish died in AD 1236. True 3. Razia was the only Muslim woman who sat upon the throne of Delhi. True 4. Ala-ud-din paid his soldiers a very high salary. False 5. Timur was a kind hearted ruler. False D. Fill in the blanks : 1. The full name of Balban was Ghiyas-ud-din-Balban. 2. Razia married Altunia, the governor of Bengal. 3. Muhammad-bin-Tughluq renamed Devagiri as Daulatabad. Bookman India

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4. Malik Kafur was the General of Ala-ud-din Khalji. 5. Jalal-ud-din adopted a weak and lenient policy. 6. Razia was accused of showing favour to Yakut. 7. Sijdah is a form of salutation to the king. E. Supply the dates in which year these incidents took place : 1. The foundation of Slave dynasty AD 1206. 2. Iltutmish died in AD 1236. 3. Razia was killed in AD 1240. 4. Balban became the Sultan in AD 1266. 5. The Khalji dynasty was founded in AD 1290. 6. Firoz Shah Tughluq ascended the throne in AD 1351. 7. Invasion of Timur occured in AD 1398. F. Write their names : 1. He was a General of Muhammad Ghori. Qutub-ud-din Aibak 2. He completed the construction of Qutub Minar. Iltutmish 3. Iltutmish coronated her as the queen of Delhi Sultanate. Razia Sultna 4. He introduced the code of conduct as 'Sijdah'. Balban 5. He captured the Ranthambhor fort and Chittor. Ala-ud-din Khalji 6. A north African traveller who stayed for several years in the court of Muhammad-bin-Tughluq. Ibn-Batuta 7. He was famous as a 'reformer king'. Firoz Shah Tughluq G. Project / Activity : 1. On an outline map of India, show the extent of Ala-ud-din's empire. Compare this with the empire of Ashoka. Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Think of the problems that occurred in the shifting of the capital from one place to another. Write your comments in 60 words. Ans. (Do yourself) H. Short answer questions : 1. Who were the Mamluk Sultans? Ans. The rulers of slave dynasty were called the Mamluk Sultans. 2. Hod did Ala-ud-din Khalji increase his revenue? Ans. Ala-ud-din-Khalji measured all land of cultivation. It was divided into different categories according to fertility. The land tax (Kharaj) was fixed accordingly. He raised taxes on the wealthy people of the doab. 3. Why did the Muslims oppose 'Sijdah' and 'Paibos' before the Sultan? Ans. The Muslim opposed 'Sijdah' and 'Paibos' before the Sultan because they believed that it should be done only before God. 4. Why is Firoz Shah Tughluq called a 'reformer king'? Ans. Firoz Shah constructed several wells, canals, tanks, hospitals and rest houses. He founded many cities, established educational institutions. So he called a reformer king. 5. What were the objects of Timur in invading in India? Ans. Timur had a great desire to loot the huge wealth of India and also to spread Islam. Bookman India

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6. Briefly describe, why did Muhammad-binTughluq decide to shift his capital from Delhi? Ans. Muhammad-bin-Tugluq decided to shift his capital from Delhi to Daulatabad because the Mongol frequently attacked to Delhi and Daulatabad would be safe from Mongol attacts. I. Long answer questions : 1. Why the early rulers of Delhi Sultanate were called Slave emperors? Ans. Iltutmish and Balbon were slaves of Qutub-ud-din, who himself was the slave of Muhammad Ghori. So these rulers of Delhi Sultanate were called slave emperors. 2. Who was Qutub-ud-din Aibak? How did Iltutmish consolidate his empire in India? Ans. Qutub-ud-din-Aibak was the founder of the slave dynasty. Iltutmish succeeded him. He is considered the real founder of the Sultanate. Iltutmish had to face many problems but dealt with them strongly. He consolidated the empire and gradually expanded it up to Bengal. 3. What were the major projects of Muhammad-binTughluq? Describe them briefly. Ans. Tughluq had great ideas and plans that failed because the common people could not understand them. He was a mixture of opposites. He is sometimes called the "wisest food." His major projects were : 1. Taxation in the doab. 2. Shifting of capital-From Delhi to Daulatabad. 3. Use of taken currency. 4. Ambitious Schemes of conquests. 4. Who was the first Muslim lady ruler of India? Why could she not rule for a long time? Ans. Razia was the only Muslim woman who sat upon the throne of Delhi. Her reign was short and full of many problems. Her brothers as well the nobles opposed her as they hated to take orders from a woman. They accused her of showing undue favours to a slave 'Yakut' whom she had raised to high post. 5. Muhammad-binTughluq's schemes were well-conceived but poorly executed. Discuss the statement with reference to his token currency experiment. Ans. Muhammad-bin-Tughluq was a mixture of opposites. He is some times called the wisest fool. At that time, silver coins, called, Tanka, were in circulation. But due to a shortage in silver, the Sultan decided to mint coins of brass and copper for day-to-day use. Soon some people minted their own copper tankas and put them in circulation, The entire market was flooded with illegal coins. Money lost its value. The treasury thus became empty. Due to failure of schemes. Sultan proved as a weak ruler.

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5.

THE SULTANS OF DELHI-II

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. Who was appointed as the Governar of the Mulan under Firoz Shah Tughlaq? (a) Khizr Khan Sayyid 3 (b) Mubarak Shah Sayyid (c) Alam Shah Sayyid (d) None of them 2. Who was the last ruler of the Sayyid dynasty? 3 (a) Alam Shah (b) Muhammad Shah (c) Mubarak Shah (d) None of them 3. Who was the most powerful ruler of the Lodi dynasty? 3 (a) Bahlol Lodi (b) Sikandar Lodi (c) Ibrahim Lodi (d) None of them 4. Whose regin marks the beginning of a new era in the history of India? 3 (a) Sikandar Lodi (b) Ibrahim Lodi (c) Bahlol Lodi (d) None of them 5. Who introduced special ceremony called 'Sijdah'? 3 (a) Ibrahim Lodi (b) Balban (c) Sikandar Lodi (d) None of them B. Very short answer questions : 1. Which city was founded by Sikandar Lodi? Ans. Agra 2. Who introduced the lqta system? Ans. Iltutmish 3. Who introduced 'Jaziya'? Ans. Iltutmish 4. Who introduced 'Sijdah'? Ans. Balban 5. Who founded the 'Lodi Dynasty'? Ans. Bahlol Lodi 6. Who wrote "Fatehnama"? Ans. Kabiruddin 7. Which was the official language of the court? Ans. Persian C. Write True or False : 1. Khizr Khan founded the Sayyid Dynasty. True 2. Bahlol Lodi was the son of Sikandar Lodi. False 3. Babar established the Mughal rule in India. True 4. Jaziya was a religious tax on Muslims. False 5. Alam Shah was the last ruler of Sayyid Dynasty. True D. Fill in the blanks : 1. Timur appointed Khizr Khan the Governor of Multan. 2. Mubarak Shah Sayyid established a city, named Mubarakabad on the banks of river Yamuna. Bookman India

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3. Sikandar Lodi founded the city of Agra and shifted the capital there. 4. Ibrahim Lodi was defeated badly in the first battle of Panipat in 1526. 5. Babur established Mughal rule in India. E. Write the dates of these incidents, when they took place : 1. Timur went back to Samarkand in AD 1399. 2. Khizr Khan conquered Delhi in AD 1414. 3. Khizr Khan died in AD 1421. 4. Bahlol Lodi founded Lodi dynasty in AD 1451. 5. The first battle of Panipat was fought in AD 1526. F. Project / Activity : 1. Make list of administrative and revenue collection methods of Delhi Sultanate. Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Find out the sources of the revenue of the Central Government at present. Ans. (Do yourself) G. Short answer questions : 1. Who was the last ruler of Sayyid Dynasty? Ans. Alam Shah was the last ruler of Sayyid Dynasty. 2. What was the Iqta system? Ans. It was a kind of land tenure system practised in Early Islamic society. Under this system in India, the nobles were given grants of land. This land was called 'Iqta'. 3. What was Jaziya? Ans. It was a religious tax on non-muslims. According to Islam, an NonMuslim had a right to live in the kingdom of a Muslim Sultan, but he was permitted after paying the tax called Jaziya. 4. What was the importance of Wazir in the Sultanate courts? Ans. Wazir or the Prime-Minister had a dominating figure. He supervised the work of all officials, kept a record of revenue and expenditure and appointed people of high posts. 5. What position the Sultans enjoyed in the courts? Ans. The Sultan enjoyed a special position and status in the government of the kingdom. He was the head of administration and military. H. Long answer questions : 1. Who founded Sayyid Dynasty? Write five sentences on Sayyid Dynasty. Ans. Khizr Khan founded the sayyid Dynasty. All the rulers in this Dynasty were weak and incomplete. Khizr Khan was the ablest Sayyid ruler of this dynasty. Alam shah was the last ruler of this dynasty In AD 1451, he lost Delhi to Bahlol lodi. Thus Sayyid Dynasty came to an end. 2. Who were the Lodi Sultans? What measures did Sikandar Lodi take for the welfare of the people? Ans. The Lodi Dynasty was founded by Bahlol Lodi. He belonged to the Afghan tribe. Sikandar Lodi was the son of Bahlol Lodi. For public welfare, he dug up canals and wells to improve agriculture. He also tried to lower the prices of commodities. He also gave loan to farmers. He was also known for his love for scholars. Bookman India

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3. What do you mean by Delhi Sultanate court? Mention its three main features. Ans. The court of Delhi Sultan was known as Delhi Sultanate court. The Sultan enjoyed a special position and status in the government of the kingdom. He was the head of administration and military. Its main features were : 1. It was full of many brave and noble warriors, scholars, musicians, and magicians. 2. Sultan himself appointed all the officers in his court. 3. Persian was the official language of the court. 4. Explain the relationship of the Sultan with his Governors and other rulers. Ans. The wazirs and ministers hold important position in the court, But Sultans maintained a distance with the courtiers. No one was allowed to talk loose or indulge in humour. Court dress was also prescribed. The nobles and other rulers occupied a place next to the Sultan and played a key role in the administration of the state. 5. How did the Delhi Sultanate period end? Ans. The period from AD 1206 to 1526 is known as the age of Delhi Sultanate. During this period five dynasties of Turkish origin ruled over the Northern India. These were Slaves, Khaljis, Tughluqs, Sayyids and the Lodis. Ibrahim Lodi was the last Sultan of Delhi Sultane period. In AD 1526, in the first battle of Panipat. Babar defeated him badly. And established the Mughal rule in India.

6.

THE MUGHAL EMPIRE

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. Who was famous for his 'Javastambha' or 'Kritistambha' Chittor? (a) Rana Sanga (b) Rana Kumba (c) Rana Pratap (d) None of them 2. Who used the Artillery for the first time? (a) Daulat Khan (b) Babar (c) Humayun (d) None of them 3. Who was named as Sher Shah? (a) Humayun (b) Farid (c) Babar (d) None of them 4. Who was the tutor of Akbar? (a) Hemu (b) Bairam Khan (c) Tansen (d) None of them 5. Who suggested 'Din-e-Ilahi'? 3 (a) Akbar (b) Jahangir (c) Humayun (d) None of them Bookman India

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6. Raja Birbal, one of the nine gems of Akbar was a : 3 (a) Muslim (b) Rajput (c) Maratha (d) None of them B. Very short answer questions : 1. Who led the orthodox group in the Mughal court? Ans. Aurangzeb. 2. Who introduced Din-e-Ilahi? Ans. Akbar. 3. Where was Shah Jahan imprisoned by Aurangzeb? Ans. Agra fort. 4. Who was the first Mughal ruler? Ans. Babar. 5. Who was the last Mughal ruler? Ans. Bahadurshah zafar. C. Write True or False : 1. Akbar introduced tax on Hindu pilgrims. False 2. Akbar won the second battle of Panipat. Ture 3. The war of succession broke out whenever a Mughal Emperor died. True 4. The peasants has to live a hard life during the Mughal rule. True 5. Babar hailed from Afghanistan. False 6. Sher Shah Suri was Mughal emperor. False 7. Prince Shahryar became Shah Jahan. False D. Fill in the blanks : 1. Humayun re-established Mughal rule in Delhi. 2. Humayun was defeated by Shershah Suri. 3. There were in all six Mughal rulers until AD 1707. 4. Jahangir was the successor of Akbar. 5. Shershah Suri built the Grand Trunk Road. 6. Akbar abolished Jaziya and Aurangzeb re-introduced. 7. The coin of rupia was introduced by Sher Shah Suri. E. Match the following : 1. Babar (a) Taj Mahal 2. Humayun (b) Din-e-Ilahi 3. Akbar (c) Babarnama 4. Jahangir (d) Deccan Policy 5. Shah Jahan (e) Son of Babar 6. Aurangzeb (f) Chain of Justice F. Project / Activity : 1. On an outline map of India, show the extent of Akbar's empire. Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Collect pictures of the Mughal emperors and paste them in your scrapbook. Ans. (Do yourself) G. Write short notes on : 1. Mansabdari – The term 'mansab' means 'rank' or 'position'. Every noble and officer was given a mansab or rank and he was called mansabdar. This special feature was known as mansabdari. Bookman India

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2. Din-e-Ilahi – Akbar suggested a new sect 'Den-e-Ilahi'. It was not a new religin. It was only a code of moral conducts. It did not have any religious book, rituals or places of worship. 3. Chain of Justice – Jahangir installed a chain of Justice outside his palace. If any one had a complaint against any official or any other person, could ring the bell any time and approach him directly. 4. Nur Jahan – Jahangir's wife 'Mehrunissa' was popularly known as Nur Jahan. She proved the power behind the throne during the later part of his rule. Jahangir always seeked her advice on important issues. H. Short answer questions : 1. Who founded the Mughal dynasty in India and when? Ans. Babar laid the foundation of the Mughal dynasty in AD 1526. 2. Why did Shah Jahan built the Taj Mahal? Ans. Shah-Jahan built the Taj-Mahal in the memory of his beloved wife Mumtaj Mahal. 3. What do you know bout the chain of justice in Jahangir's rule? Ans. Jahangir installed a chain of Justice outside his palace. If any one had a complaint against any official or any other person, could ring the bell any time and approach him directly. 4. How did Shah Jahan spend his last days? Ans. Shah Jahan spent his last days in prison, at the Agra fort, where he died in AD 1666. 5. What was the condition of agriculture during the Mughal period? Ans. All rulers tried to increase the productivity of the land but the revenue officers often harassed the cultivatiors. On the whole, the condition of peasants was not satisfactory. 6. What measures were taken by Akbar to win the friendship of the Rajputs? Ans. To win the friendship of Rajputs : 1. Akbar married Rajput princess Jodha Bai. 2. He appointed Rajputs to high position. Raja Man Singh, Raja Birbal, two of his most trusted officials, were Rajputs. 3. Akbar defeated Rajputs but never humiliate them. 4. He abolished religious tax Jaziya. 7. What was the religious policy of Akbar? Ans. In the empire of Akbar, religion was treated as a persons private affair. He tried to give maximum freedom to people of varying faith to practice their religions. 8. Who is called the engineer king? Why? Ans. Shah-Jahan was called the Engineer king because he was greatly interested in architecture. Delicacy and beauty are the main features of architecture of his time. I. Long answer questions : 1. Give a brief outline of the growth of Mughal empire. Ans. The Mughals invaded India in the 16th Century, but they did not Bookman India

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2. Ans.

3. Ans.

4. Ans.

5. Ans.

6. Ans.

7. Ans.

engage here in looting and plunder like Turkish Invaders. They established an all India empire and managed to keep it well-knit for over two centuries. Babar, Humayun, Akbar, Jahangir, Shah-Jahan and Aurangzeb were other famous rulers of the Mughal empire. State the political conditions of India at the time of Babar's invasion. Babar had invaded India at the invitation of Daulat Khan Lodi, the governor of Punjab, who wanted to end the Lodi Dynasty. A struggle for politically supremacy among several warring powers in India was going on. Babar found the conditions in India ideal for an attack and established his kingdom later called the Mughal Empire. Who was Jahangir? Discuss some of his qualities. Akbar was succeeded by his eldest son Jahangir, who he loved the most. He was well educated person. Jahangir shared his father's concern for social and economic reforms. He did not take much interest in religion and continued with the secular policies of Akbar. He installed a chain of Justice out side his palace for approaching him directly. Who was Nur Jahan? What role did she play in the affairs of the state? Jahangir's wife 'Mehrunissa' was popularly known as Nur Jahan. She proved the power behind the throne during the later part of his rule. Jahangir always seeked her advice on important issues. What were the religious policy of Aurangzeb? What were its results? Aurangzeb was an orthodox, God fearing Muslim. Due to his simplicity, Aurangzeb was popular with the name of 'Zinda Pir' or a living saint. But his policies destroyed him. He gave up the policy of religious tolerance like Akabr. He Became very unpopular when here introduced Jaziya. These policies pushed the empire towards decline. What was din-e-Ilahi? List its main principles. Akbar suggested a new sect 'Den-e-Ilahi'. It was not a new religion. It was only a code of moral conducts. It did not have any religious book, rituals or places of worship. The practice of worshiping of the sources of light as the sun and fire, was an important element in it. Sulh-e-kul (universal peace) was another important principle. Akbar never forced people to follow these view. Who was Prince Khurram? What is he known for? The real name of Shah Jahan was Prince Khurram. He was called the Engineer King. He was known for the beautiful monuments, such as Taj Mahal, Jama Masjid, Red fort, etc.

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7.

ARCHITECTURE: FORTS AND SACRED PLACES

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. Where was the Nagara style of temple architecture popular? 3 (a) In South India (b) In North India (c) In East India (d) None of them 2. Who popularized the Vijayanagar architecture style? 3 (a) Rajendra Chola (b) Krishna Deva Raja (c) Gajendra Chola (d) None of them 3. In Delhi, the first Islamic architecture mosque was : 3 (a) Qutub Minar (b) Quwwat-ul-Islam (c) Jama Masjid (d) None of them 4. Who founded Ahmedabad? 3 (a) Ilyas Shah (b) Ahmad Shah (c) Sher Shah (d) None of them 5. Who founded the city of Jaipur? 3 (a) Rana Kumbha (b) Sawai Raja Jai Singh (c) Raja Maan Singh (d) None of them B. Very short answer questions : 1. Name two places in South India where Hindu temples of super architecture are situated. Ans. Brihadeshvara temple at Tanjore. Ratha temple at Mahabalipuram. 2. What is called the style of architecture in Mughal period? Ans. The style of architecture in Mughal Period is called Golden Period of Indian Architecture. 3. Which Mughal emperor is known as engineer emperor? Ans. Shah-Jahan is known as engineer emperor. 4. Name any three temples which were built in the Nagara style. Ans. Vishwanath temple, Parvanatha temple, Kandriya Mahadev temple. 5. What material was used in construction during the Mughal period? Ans. Stones, marbles were used in construction during the Mughal period. C. Write True or False : 1. The temples at Khajuraho were built in the Dravadian style. False 2. Iron as building material was not used by Mughal. True 3. Buland Darwaza was built by Akbar. True 4. The Taj Mahal was built by Jahangir. False 5. Mughal monuments do not have balance of form of represent any special skills. False 6. There is no pietra-dura inlay work in the Taj Mahal. False 7. The Cholas were great patrons of art and architecture. True 8. The Peacock Throne was removed to Persia in AD 1739 by Nadir Shah. True Bookman India

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D. Fill in the blanks : 1. The tomb of Salim Chishti is located at Fatehpur Sikri. 2. The Qutub Minar and Quwwat-ul-Islam are the representative active of Islamic power in India. 3. Mughal gardens were developed at Kashmir and Delhi. 4. Jodha Bai's palace is situated at Fatehpur Sikri. 5. The Havelis were built by the nobles and rich people in North India. E. Match the following : 1. Char Minar (a) Konark 2. Sun Temple (b) Bijapur 3. Qutub Minar (c) Chittorgarh 4. Golden Temple (d) Delhi 5. Taj Mahal (e) Hyderabad 6. Gol Gumbaz (f) Agra 7. Victory Tower (g) Amritsar F. Project / Activity : 1. On an outline map of India locate and label 3 sites each of medieval period Hindu and Islamic religious architecture. Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Visit any historical monument and write a note on its special features. Ans. (Do yourself) 3. Find out the name of Seven Wonders of the World. Ans. (Do yourself) 4. Make a list of prominent monumental architectures of medieval India. Ans. (Do yourself) G. Short answer questions : 1. Name the two styles of temple built in early medieval period. Ans. The two styles of temple built in early medieval period are – North Indian style and South Indian style. 2. Which period is known as the 'Golden Age of Architecture'? Ans. Shah Jahans period is known as the Golden Age of Architecture. 3. Why was the Taj Mahal built? Ans. The Taj Mahal was built by Shah Jahan in the memory of his loving wife Mumtaj Mahal. 4. Who built Tughluqabad Fort at Delhi? Ans. Thghluqs were built Tughluqabad Fort at Delhi. 5. Where can you find Rajput palaces? Ans. We can find Rajput places, at Bundi, Nagpur, Jaipur and Kishengarh, which are famous for their exquisite architecture. 6. Differentiate between Nagara and Dravadian style of architecture. Ans. Nagara style Dravadian style 1. The Chandellas, Solankis and The Pandyas, Pallavas, Cholas Palas built many temples in built temples in Dravadian Nagara style. style. Bookman India

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2.

Main places are Orissa, Its main sites are Tanjore, Khajuraho, Mount Abu and Mahabalipuram and Kanchi. Gujarat. 3. e.g. – Sun temple, Dilwara Ratha temple, Kailashanath temple, Jagannath temple. temple, cave paintings of Ajanta. H. Long answer questions : 1. Give a brief account of architecture of early medieval period (10th to 12th century). Ans. In early medieval period, a rich variety of buildings and monuments were built such as temples, mosques, forts, palaces, tombs, etc. These specimens of architecture were the work of Indian as well as foreign craftsmen. The architecture of that time was full of pomp and show and was intended to weld Hindu-Muslim communities. 2. Write a note on Haveli construction. Ans. A Haveli is constructed with brick and an extensive use of wooden work. It is built in open spaces in urban areas. It has beautiful gardens in front and sideways. The Havelis has many rooms such as kitchen , pooja, many store-rooms and space for water storage. 3. Describe the main features of the Chola temples. Ans. The Cholas built beautiful temples in Dravadian style. Temples were centers of social, economic and cultural life. Rajendra Chola built Brihadeshvara temple at at Tanjore. 4. Describe the main features of the Indo-Islamic style of architecture. Ans. The Turks and the Afghans introduced new styles and techniques of architecture. They were great genius in architecture. When they employed Indian craftsmen for constructing and designing the monuments, a new style of architecture came into existance. It was called "Indo-Islamic style of architecture." 5. In what respects are the monuments of Shah Jahan different from those of Mughal emperors prior to him? Ans. Most of the Mughal emperors constructed the building with red stones but Shah Jahan had a special liking for white marble. He laid emphasis on uniformity and symmetry. Walls began to be decorated with precious and semi-precious stones. This style of decoration is known as Pietra-dura. 6. Giving examples state how Mughal gardens were different in their design and layout. Ans. Mughal gardens were famous for their grandeur and for enjoyment of nature. They were laid out according to architectural plans. The Mughals also made a tomb surrounded by a garden called char-bagh or four gardens. These gardens are laid out in style of four arms making a cross.

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8.

TOWNS, TRADERS AND CRAFTSMEN

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. Which city was known as capital commercial cultural town, all in one? (a) Agra (b) Hampi 3 (d) None of them (c) Jaipur 2. In which place, there is the dargah of Sheikh Salim Chishti? 3 (a) Delhi (b) Fatehpur Sikri (c) Agra (d) None of them 3. Which city was famous for horse trading? 3 (a) Surat (b) Kabul (c) Agra (d) None of them 4. Hampi, the second largest heritage site in the world is situated on the bank of river : 3 (b) Tungabhadra (a) Yamuna (c) Ganga (d) None of them 5. Which was a production centre of fine Chintz? 3 (a) Surat (b) Masulipatnam (c) Delhi (d) None of them B. Very short answer questions : 1. Write names of any three towns of ancient India. Ans. Agra, Surat, Patna. 2. Write names of any four religious towns of India. Ans. Banaras, Mathura, Amritsar. 3. Mention the names of any two court centres of the medieval period. Ans. Hampi, Udaipur. 4. Mention any four trading ports of ancient India. Ans. Bombay, Calicuta, Madras, Surat. 5. What is Chintz? Ans. Chintz is a type of cotton cloth with a printed design. Masulipatnam was famous of for Chintz. C. Write True or False : 1. The Harappans were the first people to build planned cities. True 2. Ahmedabad was famous for horse trading. False 3. Hampi is the second largest heritage site in the world. True 4. Surat was an important trading centre in the medieval period. True 5. Fatehpur Sikri was famous for steel industry. False D. Fill in the blanks : 1. Surat is the heart of India's diamond industry. 2. Murshidabad was the court town of craft. 3. Fatehpur Sikri was the capital of Mughals for few years. 4. Surat was a gem cutting centre during the medieval period. 5. Deccan produced world famous Muslim Cloth. Bookman India

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E. Match the following : 1. Calicut (a) Craft town 2. Agra (b) Temple town 3. Banaras (c) Port on west coast 4. Tirupati (d) Capital town 5. Ahemdabad (e) Trading town 6. Hyderabad (f) Pilgrimage town F. Write the name of the cities, to which these are associated with : 1. Kalamkari textiles Golconda, Masulipatnam 2. Patola silk Surat 3. Carpets Kashmir, Agra, Multan 4. Chintz Masulipatnam 5. Glass industry Fatehpur Sikri 6. Cotton clothes Gujarat, Ahmedabad, Hampi 7. Diamond industry Surat 8. Pearls Surat 9. Wooden work Karnataka, Kashmir 10. Perfumes Gujarat, Jaunpur G. Project / Activity : 1. Prepare a chart showing six important ports of India. Also mention the goods imported and exported from these ports. Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Collect pictures of the following Indian towns and paste them in your scrapbook. (i) Pilgrimage town (ii) Port town (iii) Court town Ans. (Do yourself) 3. Name at least five different functions of any town in different geographic regions. Ans. (Do yourself) H. Write short notes on : 1. Hampi – Hampi was an important centre of trade in cotton and spices. It was a capital town of Vijaynagar empire. It is now a world heritage site. 2. Chintz – Chintz is a type of cotton cloth with a printed design. Masulipatnam was famous of for chintz. 3. Kalamkari textiles – Kalamkati textiles means dye-Painted clothes and the techniques used to creat them. Masulipatnam was famous for kalamkari textile also. 4. Importance of Surat – Surat is located in Gujarat on the bank of river Tapti. It was an important port and trading centre in the medieval period. It was famous for its 'Patola silk.' Now it is famous for textile and diamond industry. I. Short answer questions : 1. What do you mean by court towns? How had these been established? Ans. The place where kings held their court often developed into a town. 59 Bookman India Enjoy with Social Life – 7

They were known as court towns. These were also centres of administration. e.g. Ayodhya, Indraprastha. 2. Mention any two reasons why more and more villages were turning into urban centres. Ans. Towns and cities developed from the villages due to trade and commerce. 3. Who were Bukkaraya and Harihara? Ans. The credit to establish the Vijayanagar empire goes to two brothers Harihara and Bukkaraya, popularly known as Hakka and Bukka . 4. Why is Hampi called the 'city of ruins'? Ans. In the battle of Talikota in AD 1565, the Vijayanagar kingdom was defeated by the combined attack of five small kingdoms. They burnt several monuments including temples and turned Hampi into ruins. 5. How had Masulipatnam became an important port town? Ans. This city is situated on the bank of River Krishna at the Bay of Bengal. So it was a famous port town carrying trade with the British, French and Dutch. J. Long answer questions : 1. What were the differences between trading and other towns? Ans. Towns can be divided into various categories on the basis of specialization in particular field as crafts towns, pilgrimage towns, trading town, temple towns and so on. Towns related to traded and commerce are known as trading towns. 2. How did temple towns come up? Explain with examples. Ans. Pilgrimage centres slowly turned into towns. Some centres as Mathura, Banaras, Puri, Haridwar, etc. had many temples. So, these towns known as temples towns. The temples became instrumental for growth of markets. 3. State the importance of Hampi, Masulipatnam and Surat during medieval period. How did they decline in later years? Ans. Hampi was an important centre of trade in cotton and spices. It was the capital town of Vijayanagar empire. It is now a world heritage site. Masulipatnam was famous for Chintz and Kalamkari textiles. Surat was famous for cotton textile and diamond trade. All three kingdoms declined in later years due to defeat in wars. 4. Why was Hampi such an important town during this period? Ans. Hampi was a well-fortified city. The Vijayanagar kings had built many temples, gate ways, tanks, wells and other structures in the city. Hampi was a famous trade centre of the cotton and spices. Later it became the centre of political activity. 5. What factors led to the growth of Surat as an important trade centre? Ans. Surat is located in Gujarat on the bank of river Tapti. It was an important port and commercial town famous for its 'Patola silk'. This fine textiles were exported to markets in West Asia and Europe. Surat was also famous for the thriving business in pearls. Even today, Surat is a major centre of the diamond trade. Bookman India

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9.

SOCIAL CHANGE : MOBILE AND SETTLED COMMUNITIES

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. Which society was more equal in nature? 3 (a) Caste based society (b) Tribal society (c) Both of them (d) None of them 2. How much percentage of Indian population belongs to tribal population? 3 (a) 10% (b) 8% (c) 15% (d) None of them 3. What language did Itinerant group speak? 3 (a) Hindi (b) Roman (c) Sanskrit (d) None of them 4. The term Gond is derived from the : 3 (a) Marathi word (b) Telugu word (c) Bengali word (d) None of them 5. Who was one of the most towering personalities of the Gonds? 3 (b) Rani Luxmi Bai (a) Rani Durgawati (c) Rani Padmawati (d) None of them B. Very short answer questions : 1. Name the two types of mobile communities. Ans. Nomads, Itinerants. 2. Where did Gonds tribe primarily reside? Ans. Gond tribe primarily resided in western Orissa, Northern Andhra Pradesh, Eastern Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Chhatisgarh. 3. Write about Rani Durgawati as the most towering personalities of the Gonds. Ans. Durgavati ruled with great ability and wisdom. She fought bravely and died fighting. 4. What kind of social problems do the tribal people face? Ans. The tribal people faced social problems such as child marriage and dowry. 5. What were the Buranjis? Ans. The 'Buranjis' were the first example of recorded history in India. C. Write True or False : 1. Tribal states were formed on the basis of religion. False 2. There are nearly 500 tribes in India. True 3. Most of Gonds had a nomadic life. False 4. Tribal people were very educated. False 5. The Ahoms still live in a small group in Assam. True D. Fill in the blanks : 1. The Gonds are an ethnic group in Central Asia. 2. The Ahoms belonged to the Mao-shn tribe of China. Bookman India

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3. The tribal population covers 8% of Indian population. 4. Tribal people are generally backward and illiterate. 5. Tribal people mostly live in remote and lonely areas. E. Distinguish between : 1. Nomads and gypsies. Ans. Both, nomads and gypsies are mobile community. They are never settled on a fixed place and keep travelling from one place to another. Gypsies are similar to the warrior class of Central Asia. The Turkish invaders forced these people to leave India. 2. Settled and mobile communities : Ans. Settled Mobile communities 1. Permanent settlements in the Never settled on a fixed place and plains of rivers. keep travelling. 2. Agriculture was the main Exchange honey, milk, wool, occupation. ghee, etc with settled people. 3. Settled down in plains of We can find them in Bihar, of Ganga Valley, Malwa, Bengal, Assam. Assam, Bengal, Gujarat. F. Project / Activity : 1. Locate the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Meghalaya and Mizoram on the map of India. Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Collect pictures of tribal customs, dress, music, jewellery and paste in your scrapbook. Ans. (Do yourself) G. Write short notes on : 1. Buranjis – The Ahoms kept good records and are known for their chronicles called 'Buranjis', the first example of recorded history in India. 2. Occupation of the Gonds – Gonds people exchange honey, milk, wool, Ghee, etc with the settled agriculturists for food, grains and other necessities. They entertain people with their songs, dance and folk tales. 3. The gypsies – The Gypsies, a mobile community, are similar to the warrior class of central Asia. The Turkish invaders forced these people to leave India. 4. Adivasis – The tribal society retained their traditional cultures, customs and continued to live primitive lifestyle are termed as Adivasis. H. Short answer questions : 1. Write any three characteristics of a tribe. Ans. Three characteristics of a tribe are : 1. They did not allow to enter on outsider in their residential areas. 2. They used to live in remote and lonely areas. 3. They followed their customs and traditions. 2. Name the states where Gonds mostly reside. Ans. Gond tribes primarily resided in Western Orissa, Northern Andhra Pradesh, Eastern Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Chhatisgarh. Bookman India

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3. When did the Ahom's rule end? Ans. The Ahom's rule ended in A D1826. 4. Which tribe drive away the Mughals? Ans. The Gonds drive away the Mughals. 5. Who ruled as vassals of the Mughals? Ans. The Ahoms ruled as vassals of Mughals. I. Long answer questions : 1. Why do we know so little about the tribal societies of the medieval period? Ans. We know so little about the tribal societies of the medieval period due to an absense of written records and the isolated lifestyle of the different tribal groups. 2. What do you know about Rani Durgavati? Ans. Durgavati was one of the most towering personalities of the Gonds. She ruled with great ability and wisdom. Akbar offered her to be a vassal of the Mughals but she refused to submit to Akbar's rule. Akbar attacked Gondwana with a huge army. Rani Durgawati fought bravely and died fighting. 3. How is a tribe different from a caste? Ans. The caste based society was divided into high and low caste groups. There was a huge gap between the high and low caste groups, while the tribal society retained their traditional cultures, customs. Tribal societies were more equal in nature. 4. Write a short note on the life of the nomadic tribal group. Ans. Most of the tribal people collect fruits and other eatables from the forests, breed cattle and hunt animals. They are very poor and live in scarcity. They are backward and mostly unemployed or under employed. 5. What do you know about the Ahoms tribe? Ans. The Ahoms tribals were very brave. They ruled as vassals of the Mughals. They lived in the houses made of bamboo. They worshiped Tribal Gonds. They followed their traditional religion and spoke Tai language. During the course of time, they adopted the Assamese language and converted to Hinduism.

10.

POPULAR BELIEFS AND RELIGIOUS DEBATES

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. In which language did Mirabai sing song? 3 (a) Bengali (b) Rajasthani (c) Bhojpuri (d) None of them 2. Those who believed God had no form, were known as : 3 (a) Saguna (b) Nirguna (c) Both of them (d) None of them 63 Bookman India Enjoy with Social Life – 7

3. Who stressed on Bhakti more than knowledge? 3 (b) Shankaracharya (a) Kabir (c) Tulsidas (d) None of them 4. For whom Lord Krishna was the 'Adobe of Supreme Bliss'? 3 (a) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (b) Surdas (c) Mirabai (d) None of them 5. Where did the Sufi Movement originate? 3 (a) India (b) Persia (c) China (d) None of them B. Very short answer questions : 1. What were the most important popular beliefs in the medieval period? Ans. The most important beliefs which were popular in the medieval period were the Bhakti and the Sufi Movement. 2. Write about Mirabai in few lines. Ans. Mirabai was a great devotee and lover of Lord Krishna. She was a great poetess and composed a lot of Bhajans. 3. Who were Kabir panthis? Ans. Kabir panthis were the followers of Kabir. 4. Name the languages in which Guru Nanak Dev was well versed. Ans. The languages in which Guru Nanak Dev were well versed, Arabic, Hindi, Persian and Sanskrit. 5. What is Adi Granth? Ans. The teachings of Guru Nanak Dev have been compiled in the Guru Granth Sahib, also known as Adi Granth. C. Write True or False : 1. Dr B.R. Ambedkar lived in the medieval period. False 2. Sant Kabir was the disciple of Swami Surdas. False 3. Kabir panthis were the followers of Kabir. True 4. The Sufis were divided into different orders called Silsilahs. True 5. Guru Granth Sahib was compiled by Guru Govind Singh. False D. Fill in the blanks: 1. Mirabai popularized the worship of Lord Krishna. 2. Sant Jnaneshwar laid the foundation of the Bhakti Movement in Maharashtra. 3. Kabir brought up in a weaver family. 4. The tomb of Sheikh Muin-ud-din Chishti is at Ajmer. 5. Chaitanya was popularly known as Chaitanya Mahaprabhu. 6. Mirabai belonged to royal family of Rajasthan. 7. The hymns and songs of sikh guru were later compiled in the form of a book called 'Adi Granth'.

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E. Match the following : 1. Bijak (a) Nanak 2. Langar (b) Kabir 3. Khanqah (c) Khwaja Muin-ud-din Chishti 4. Four Maths (d) Shankaracharya 5. Mirabai (e) Girdhar Gopal 6. Ajmer (f) Sufi Saints F. Project / Activity : 1. Collect pictures of the saints of the Bhakti Movement and paste them in your scrapbook. Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Make a list of popular beliefs and cultures and write how they influence us today. Ans. (Do yourself) 3. Collect sayings of Guru Nanak. Ans. (Do yourself) G. Write short notes on : 1. Syncretic cults – The fusion of different beliefs, cultures and customs is known as syncretic. The group who follow this particular tradition is known as syncretic cult. 2. Khanqah – The sufi saints lived in Khanqahs and led simple lives. Khanqahas are the religious centres. 3. Chishti Silsilah – The Sufis were divided into many orders called Silsilah. The famous saints of chishti Silsilah were Muin-ud-din Chishti, Baba Farid, Khwaja Hajrat Nizam-ud-din Auliya, etc. 4. Suhrawardi Silsilah – Sheikh Baha-ud-din Zakariya was the first great saint of the Suhrawardi Silsilah. The saints of this order did not live like faquirs on donation. They accepted the service of the state and became an important political figure. H. Short answer questions : 1. Mention some Bhakti and Sufi Saints of the medieval period. Ans. Some Bhakti saints were Mirabai, Surdas, Tulsidas, Kabir, Nanak, etc. and sufi saints were Rabia, Nuri, etc. 2. Who are known as Sufi Saints? Ans. Muslim saints who devoted themselves to meditation and prayer to God are known as Sufi Saints. 3. Write five sentences on Sufism. Ans. 1. Sufi movement originated in Percia. 2. They preached people to love God. 3. They devoted themselves to meditation and prayer to God. 4. The Sufis were divided into many orders. 5. A large number of Hindus became their followers. 4. Write five symbols of Sikhism. Ans. Five symbols of Sikhism are Kangha, Kacchha, Kirpan, Kara and kesh. 5. Write the names of Sikh Gurus in their right order. Ans. 1. Guru Nanank 2. Guru Angad 3. Guru Amar Das 4. Guru Ramdas Bookman India

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5. Guru Arjun Dev 6. Guru Hargobind 7. Guru Har Rai 8. Guru Hari Kishan 9. Guru Tegh Bahadur 10. Guru Govind Singh I. Long answer questions : 1. Briefly describe the main features of the Bhakti Movement. Ans. The Bhakti movement became popular in the medieval period. The saints emphasised devotion to God and condemned rituals, class and caste distinctions. They emphasised the importance of Guru and his teachings. 2. Write a note on the philosophy of Sant Kabir. Ans. Kabir believed in the unity of God. He preached that God is one whether we worship him as Allah or Ram. He laid stress on purity of character and conduct and leading a simple life. He gave importance to a Guru. Kabir did not believe in caste distinctions. 3. How did the beliefs, customs and traditions change during the medieval period? Ans. The credit of changing the beliefs, customs and traditions went to Bhakti and Sufi movement. The saints of both movements taught people to lead a simple life and help others in time of need. They had a common belief that God is the supreme power and each person is equal in the eyes of God. 4. What do you know about Guru Nanak? How was the new religion of Sikhism founded? Ans. The founder of Sikhism was Guru Nanak. He believed in one God. He disapproved caste system and preached equality. His three famous principles are – 'Naam Japo', 'Kirt Karo', 'Vand Chhako'. 5. Describe the pilgrimage centres of different communities during the medieval period. Ans. Hindu – Four maths in Dwarka, Puri, Sringeri and Badrinath, Holy cave of Amarnath, Vrindavan, Prayag, Mathura and Haridwar. Sikh – Amritsar, Nankana Saheb. Muslim – Kaba, Mecca. Dargah of Muin-ud-din Chisti at Ajmer. Dargah of Khwaja Hazrat Nizam-ud-din Auliya in New Delhi.

11.

THE FLOWERING OF REGIONAL CULTURES

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. How much percentage of the Indian people speak languages belonging to the Aryan family? 3 (a) About 70% (b) About 23% (c) About 50% (d) None of them 2. Which language is believed to a language of Dravadian Aryan dialect? 3 (a) Sindhi (b) Kashmiri (c) Sanskrit (d) None of them Bookman India

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3. Who was the author of Kadambari? 3 (a) Kalidas (b) Bana Bhatta (c) Chand Bardai (d) None of them 4. Who wrote a poem in Telugu called Amuktamalyada? 3 (b) Dandin (a) Krishnadev Raya (c) Malik Muhammad Jayasi (d) None of them 5. Who was considered as the father of the Malyalam literature? 3 (b) Narsi Mehta (a) Tuncattu Eruttacchan (c) Vallabhacharya (d) None of them B. Very short answer questions : 1. Name some of the regional kingdoms of India during the medieval period. Ans. The regional kingdoms of Medieval period were- Rajputs in the north. Palas in the east and Chalukyas, Pandays and Cholas in Deccan. 2. Name the two famous epics revered like the Ramayana and the Mahabharta. Ans. 'Silappadhikaram' and 'Manimekalam' are the famous Tamil epics revered like the Ramayana and Mahabharta. 3. What was the origination of the language Urdu? Ans. Persian and Hindi fused to give rise to Urdu. 4. Name some of the Hindi poets during Akbar regime. Ans. Hindi poets during Akbar regime were Tulsidas, Surdas, Keshavdas and Vallabha charya, etc. 5. Name some of the Vernacular languages which achieved a great position by the seventeenth century. Ans. Hindi, Urdu, Tamil, Bengali, Marathi, Kannada, and Gujarati had achieved a great position by the seventeenth century. C. Write True or False : 1. Awadh was the literary centre of Urdu in Early Period. False 2. All the Bhakti saints preached in Sanskrit. False 3. Ramcharit Manas by Tulsidas is written in Sanskrit. False 4. Bright colour and varied themes characterize Mughal Paintings. False 5. Gujarati and Oriya are regional languages. True 6. Krishan-Radha themes were popular with painters of both Rajasthani and Pahari schools. True 7. Bricks and terracotta were generally used to construct temples in Bengal. True D. Fill in the blanks : 1. Persian was the language of Sultanate and Mughal courts. 2. Bengali has descended from Sanskrit. 3. The Bhakti and Sufi saints specially promoted Vernacular languages. 4. Telugu was the court language of Vijayanagar kingdom. 5. The word 'Urdu' means camp in Turkish dialect. E. Project / Activity : On an outline map of India label and locate the major regional and cultural centres. State below the map about six such centre which were famous for cultural progress in any field. Ans. (Do yourself) Bookman India

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F. Write short notes on : 1. Development of regional culture in North India. Ans. In North India, regional culture of developed after 13th century by great saint like Kabir, Nanak, Tulsidas, Surdas, Ravidas and Mirabai. Tulsidas composed Ramacharitmanas written in Awadhi, the language of eastern Uttar Pradesh. 2. Development of regional culture in South India. Ans. In South India, was most developed regional culture. It was developed in the language, painting, dance and music. These languages were successively influenced by Dravadian. 3. The Sultanate period. Ans. During Sultanate period, the Turks introduced Persian in India. It became the language of administration. In course of time, Persian and Hindi fused to give birth to a new language Urdu. Famous works of this period are Srinadha's 'Haravilasa' in Telugu, Jayasi's 'Padmavat' in Hindi and the poems of Vidyapati in Maithili. 4. The Mughal Period. Ans. During Mughal Period Persian had become the official language in the Mughal courts. Urdu became the language for literary expressions. Mirza Galib was perhaps the greatest Urdu poet of this period. Tulsidas, Surdas, Keshavdas flourished at that time. 5. Bengal as a patronate of art and culture. Ans. Bengal has had a very rich cultural heritage. It has been a prominent centre for art. The Bengal school has produced artists of international fame. The rulers of Bengal patronised cultural activities. G. Short answer questions : 1. Name some of the works of early medieval period. Ans. 1. Abhigyana Shakuntalam – by Kalidas 2. Kadambari and Harsh Charita – written by Bana bhatta 3. Dasa Kumar Charita – written by Dandin 4. Swapna Vasavdatta – written by Bhasa 5. Kiratarjunia – written by Bharavi 2. Name the two families of Indian languages. Ans. The Aryan and the Dravadian are the two main families of Indian languages. 3. Name the language which had its birth in the army camp? Ans. Urdu had its birth in the army camp. 4. How did Urdu come to be associated with Islamic religion? Ans. The language Urdu is associated with Muslim communities because most of the Urdu poets were Muslim or of Persian origin. Later in 17th century, Urdu had begun to be used is its literary form. 5. Write the name of nine rasas. Ans. The name of nine rasas are : 1. happiness (hasya) 2. anger (krodha) Bookman India

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3. fear (bhaya) 4. wonder (adbhuta) 5. disgust (bhibatsa) 6. Courage (viram) 7. Compassion (karuna) 8. Serenity (shanta) 9. Prem (love) H Long answer questions : 1. What do you know by regional culture? How was it promoted by the rulers in the medieval period? Ans. The medieval period is famous for its rich culture and literature. Rulers of big or small kingdoms took interest in art and literature and promoted cultural activities. Many developments occurred in the field of regional languages, literature, paintings and music. The old practices continued but they look a new form. 2. What were the regions for the growth of regional literature during medieval period? Ans. It is believed that Aryans spoke Sanskrit. During the period 600 BC to 1000AD, the Sanskrit language got transformed into various groups. A striking feature of the period was the development of regional languages, This was largely due to the patronage of the local rulers. Gradually, these language matured and literary works began to be composed in them . 3. Why was Urdu known as a camp language? Ans. The word 'Urdu' means 'camp' in Turkish dialect. This new language was called a camp language because it developed in the camp of soldiers. Urdu developed as a link language, which was spoken and understood by all. The language also bears the influence of Sanskrit, Hindi, Arabic, Persian and Turkish. 4. Discuss the main features of Mughal Paintings? Ans. During the Mughal period, painting reached its zenith. The artists used a blend of delicate colours and shading under Persian influence. The tradition of miniature paintings reached high levels of refinement under Akbar, Jahangir and Shah Jahan. 5. Why the regional languages are also called vernacular languages? Why did Sufi and Bhakti saints and regional Sultans patronize these language. Ans. 'Vernacular' means 'pertaining to a country or region', so regional languages are called Vernacular languages. The Vernacular languages were patronised by the regional kingdoms and Bhakti saints like Chaitanya Mahaprabhu, Narsi Mehta and Tukaram. They could communicate with general people in their own language or vernacular language.

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12.

NEW POLITICAL FORMATIONS IN THE EIGHTEENTH CENTURY

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. Who looted the famous "Peacock Throne" and diamond 'Kohinoor'? 3 (a) Ahmed Shah Abdali (b) Nadir Shah (c) Aurangzeb (d) None of them 2. Who was the first Guru of Sikhs? 3 (a) Guru Govind Singh (b) Guru Nanak Dev (c) Guru Teg Bahadur (d) None of them 3. Who was the Governor of Bengal under the Mughals? 3 (a) Murshid Khan (b) Shuja-ud-din (c) Alivardi Khan (d) None of them 4. Who was known as the 'Tiger of Mysore'? 3 (a) Tipu Sultan (b) Haider Ali (c) Shivaji (d) None of them 5. Who was the first Nizam of Hyderabad? 3 3 (a) Shivaji (b) Chin Qilich Khan (c) Haider Ali (d) None of them B. Very short answer questions : 1. Where did Maharaja Ranjit Singh establish a strong empire? Ans. Maharaja Ranjit Singh established a strong empire in Punjab. 2. Misls belonged to which political rulers? Ans. Misls belonged to Sikh political ruler, Maharaja Ranjit Singh. 3. Who was known as Rangila? Ans. Muhammad Shah was known as Rangila. 4. Who was the first Peshwa? Ans. Balaji was the first Peshwa or chief minister in 1713 AD. 5. Who was a great warrior and an able statesman? Ans. Raja Surajmal was a great warrior anble able statesman. 6. Who helped Haider Ali to strengthen his army? Ans. Wodeyar rulers helped Haider Ali to strengthen his army. C. Write True or False : 1. The Mughal kingdoms had a definite law of success. False 2. Shivaji was an expert in guerrilla warfare. True 3. In the eighteenth century, the Europeans had made trade very attractive to Indian rulers. True 4. Banda Bahadur was the leader of the Sukerchakiya misl. False 5. The state of Hyderabad was founded by a Wazir of Mughal rulers. False D. Fill in the blanks : 1. After Aurangzeb, most of the Mughal rulers were very weak. 2. Muhammad Shah was known as Rangila. Bookman India

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3. When Nadir Shah invaded India, Muhammad Shah 'Rangila' was the Mughal emperor. 4. The Treaty of Purandar was signed between Raja Jai Singh and Shivaji. 5. Muhammad Shah was a later Mughal ruler. 6. Mysore was a feudatory kingdom under Wodeyar administration until 1610AD. 7. Chauth and Sardeshmukhi were the two taxes that Shivaji collected. E. Match the following : 1. Banda Bahadur (a) Bengal 2. Balaji Vishwanath (b) Sikhs 3. Saadat Khan (c) Awadh 4. Sayyid brothers (d) Hyderabad 5. Tipu Sultan (e) Mysore 6. Murshid Khan (f) King-makers 7. The Nizams (g) Chhatrapati 8. Shivaji (h) Maratha F. Project / Activity : 1. On an outline map of India, show the kingdoms that became independent in the 18th century. Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Prepare a list of major events of the eighteenth century and write briefly about each event. Ans. (Do yourself) G. Write short notes on : 1. Sawai Raja Jai Singh – Raja Jai Singh was the founder of Pink-city, Jaipur. He was a great astronomer, engineer, builder, social reformer and a wise statesman. 2. Shivaji – Shivaji was born in 1627 AD. He was brought up under the care of his wise mother Jijabai. His tutor Dadaji Kondadev shaped the early life of Shivaji. He dreamt of establishing a large empire. Shivaji was a successful administrator. 3. Sikh misls – The Sikh formed 12 strong political groups. These groups were called Misls. Each Misl controlled a specific area and had a leader. They carried on their activities within their territories. 4. Guerrilla warfare – In Guerrilla system of warfare, the soilders remained hiding and attacked the enemy when ever the situation was favourable. 5. The Ashtapradhan – Shivaji's kingdom was divided into provinces, each under the charge of a Governor. He had a council of eight ministers, to assist him in administration. They were known as Ashtapradhan. Each minister headed a particular department or ministry. H. Short answer questions : 1. Who were known as Later Mughals? Ans. The successors of Aurangzeb were known as later Mughals. 71 Bookman India Enjoy with Social Life – 7

2. Ans. 3. Ans.

Who were Nizams? The successors of Nizam-ul-Mulk were known as the Nizams. Who were the Afghan invaders in 18th century? Nadir Shah and Ahmed Shah Abdali were the Afghan invaders, who invaded India in 18 th Century. 4. What were the causes of rise of Europeans? Ans. The caused of rise of Europeans in India were : 1. Mughal Empire was divided into small kingdoms. 2. The Europeans had a complete control over sea routes. 3. They had a well planned policy of colonization. 4. The Europeans made trade very attractive for Indian rulers. 5. Explain 'Europeans had come to India as traders'. Ans. The Europeans made trade very attractive for Indian rulers. They searched a market to sell cheap European manufactured goods in place of cotton indigo, spices and pepper. They entered India as traders and finally became the rulers. I. Long answer questions : 1. Give reasons for the decline of the Mughal empire. Ans. The successors of Aurangzeb were weak rulers. Whenever a king died, there was war for succession. The nobles and the provincial governors took advantages of these conditions. The later kings lost their power and kingdom both. 2. What was the role of Haider Ali and Tipu Sultan to make Mysore more powerful? Ans. Under the rule of Haider Ali and Tipu Sultan, Mysore had touched its peak of glory. Many improvements in administration were made. Collection of revenue and construction of roads, store houses and other public works programmes were done. 3. Discuss the role of Shivaji in establishing and strengthening the Maratha empire. Ans. The Maratha emerged as a powerful force under Shivaji. He was a powerful leader, who captured a lot of territory and challenged the authority of Aurengzeb. Using Gurilla warfare, he captured many forts near Pune. 4. Give some reasons of the decline of the decline of the Rajput power after the death of Aurangzeb. Ans. Rajput fell apart during the period of Aurangzeb. Most of the Rajput states had become independent. However, they failed to organize and unite themselves into a single strong power. 5. Who were the Peshwas? How did they strengthen Maratha power? Ans. In 1713AD, Sahu, the Maratha king. appointed Balaji as his Peshwas or chief minister. After Balaji's death, the title of Peshwa became hereditary. In course of time, the Peshwa became the real decisionmakers. Bookman India

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Enjoy with Social Life – 7 Unit – III Civics

1.

EMERGENCE OF DEMOCRACY IN MODERN SOCIETIES

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. The word Democracy is derived from the: 3 (a) French word (b) Greek word (c) English word (d) None of them 2. When did Bhutan restore democracy? 3 (a) In the year 2005 (b) In the year 2007 (c) In the year 2010 (d) None of them 3. Is Myanmar a democratic country? 3 (a) No (b) Yes (c) Both of them (d) None of them 4. How do Cuba regarded itself? 3 (a) Monarchy (b) Economic democracy (c) Both of them (d) None of them 5. Name the country where direct democracy is still in practice. (a) USA (b) Switzerland 3 (c) China (d) None of them B. Write True of False : 1. India and USA have democratic forms of government. True 2. Constitution is the primary source of law. True 3. All men and women should be treated equally. True 4. Monarchy is a government ruled by the representatives of people. False 5. Democracy helps in the adjustment of diversities. True 6. Dictatorship is based on the establishment of formal equality. False C. Fill in the blanks : 1. In monarchy power is dominated by a single person. 2. Switzerland is perhaps the only country today where direct democracy is practiced. 3. An absolute monarchy means the rule by a king or a queen. 4. The military dictatorship means the rule by an unelected military leader. 5. In India, we find representative or Indirect democracy. E. Distinguish between : 1. Democracy and dictatorship. Ans. Democracy is a system of government in which power to rule lies in the hands of people. People have the power to choose and remove their representatives. 73 Bookman India Enjoy with Social Life – 7

Dictatorship is a system in which power to rule lies in the hands of a single authority. 2. Democracy and monarchy. Ans. Democracy is a system of government in which power to rule lies in the hands of people. People have the power to choose and remove their representatives. Democracy is a form of government which is as old as Monarchy. 3. Direct and indirect democracy. Ans. Direct democracy is a system in which all the adult people caste their votes and elect their representative directly in a mass meeting. In Indirect democracy, all adult people elect their representatives through voting done by a secret ballot. E. Project / Activity : 1. Some countries in the Middle East still are ruled by the kings. Find out their names and locate them on the map of Asia. Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Compare how different they are from our democracy. Ans. (Do yourself) F. Short answer questions : 1. Give the definition of democracy as stated by Herodotus. Ans. According to Herodotus, "Democracy is that government in which the supreme power is vested in the entire people." 2. What do you understand by democracy? Ans. 'Demo' means 'people' and 'cracy' means 'power'. Thus, Democracy is a system of government in which power to rule lies in the hands of people. People have the power to choose and remove their representatives. 3. Why democracy is the most popular system? Ans. Democracy is a form of government, where people have a chance to choose their representatives . It is a government of the people, for the people and by the people. So it is most popular system. 4. Into how many categories democracy is generally divided? Ans. Democracy is generally divided into two categories : 1. Direct democracy. 2. Indirect democracy. 5. What are the biggest factors for the growth of democracy? Ans. The factors for the growth of democracy are peace and co-operation established by it all over the world. G. Long answer questions : 1. From which words has democracy been derived? Ans. The word 'Democracy' is derived from the Greek word 'demo' and 'cracy'. 'Demo' means 'people' and 'cracy' means 'power'. 2. In what form did democracy exist in India? Ans. In India, democracy exist in 'Indirect' or 'representative' form. People have the power to choose them through voting done by a secret ballot. Bookman India

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3. Ans. 4. Ans. 5. Ans.

6. Ans.

7. Ans.

2.

If the representative fails in conducting the work according to the wishes of the voters, they are liable to be removed. What do you understand by Universal Adult Franchise? Universal Adult Franchise means that every citizen who is 18 Years and above is entitled to caste his or her vote irrespective of caste, religion, creed, sex, etc. What is a democratic government? In democratic government, people have a chance to choose or elect their representatives. Administration is conducted by the will of the majority based on the welfare of the society as a whole. Discuss the importance of social equality in a democracy. Democracy establishes the principle of equality. All citizens of each state are equal in the eyes of law. They enjoy equal social, political and economic rights. State cannot discriminate among its citizens on the basis of caste, religion, property or sex. Every citizen has equal right to choose the government of his own choice. Mention only two features of democracy. Democracy is most popular system due to : 1. Equality – Democracy establishes the principle of equality. All citizens of each state are equal in the eyes of law. They enjoy equal social, political and economic rights. State cannot discriminate among its citizens on the basis of caste, religion, property or sex. Every citizen has equal right to choose the government of his own choice. 2. Freedom – Democracy gives freedom to its citizens to express their views fearlessly. According to this provision, every citizen has the right to practice, propagate or to profess any religion he or she likes. Why do we require democracy? Democracy has established as the most popular system of government in the world. the biggest factors of the growth of democracy are the peace and co-operation. There is no distinction of high or low. Every citizen has a role to play in shaping the destiny of the country. So we require democracy.

INSTITUTIONAL REPRESENTATION OF DEMOCRACY

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. Which country is known as the "Cradle of Democracy"? 3 (a) Ancient France (b) Ancient Greece (c) Both of them (d) None of them 2. Where was the Democracy introduced? 3 (a) England (b) Athens (c) China (d) None of them 3. Which country was first to introduce Adult Franchise? (a) Sweeden (b) Germany 3 (c) India (d) None of them 75 Bookman India Enjoy with Social Life – 7

4. Elected representative to the Lock Sabha is called : 3 (a) MLA (b) MP (c) PM (d) None of them 5. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)? 3 (a) The Prime Minister (b) The President (c) Both of them (d) None of them B. Very short answer questions : 1. How was the System of Democracy in Athens? Ans. In Athens, the governance gave every male a Free man a say in how the city should be run. At that time women and slaves were not included in the system. 2. What are the four basis of representation on which modern representative government is based? Ans. The four basis of representation are : 1. Universal Adult Franchise 2. Elections 3. Political Parties 4. Coalition Government 3. What is the important principle of Adult Franchise? Ans. An important principle of Adult Franchise is the rule of one-person one-vote. 4. How does election campaigning take place? Ans. Election campaigning takes place through public meeting, door-todoor campaign, distribution of pamphlets, etc. 5. Who is a MLA? Ans. Member of Legislative Assembly is known as MLA. C. Fill in the blanks : 1. The voting age in India is 18 years. 2. A coalition is made up of combination of parties. 3. Elections give an opportunity to voters to choose their representatives. 4. Coalition governments are weak and temporary. 5. Fair and free elections are conducted by a body called Election Commission. 6. Political parties have a national or a regional status. D. Match the followings : 1. Right to vote (a) An Assembly constituency 2. Secret ballot was first introduced (b) Elections 3. An MLA represents (c) In Australia in 1856 4. Way to choosing representatives (d) Universal Adult Franchise 5. Provides governments to people (e) Political Party (E) Project / Activity : 1. Organise a class discussion on what qualities should be kept in mind while deciding to vote in favour of any candidate. Ans. (Do yourself) Bookman India

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2. Find out the election symbols of political parties of your region. Also find out how many elected members do these parties have in the present Lok Sabha. Ans. (Do yourself) F. Short answer questions : 1. What are the grounds of disqualification for voting? Ans. Only criminals, persons of unsound mind and those declared bankrupt have no right to vote. Children below 18 years have no right to vote. 2. Name the agency responsible for conduct of free and fair elections in India. Ans. The Election commission of India is responsibility of conducting free and fair elections in India. 3. What particulars does a ballot paper contain? Ans. The ballot paper contains the names of the candidates with respective check boxes or buttons for the voters to make their choice. 4. At which age, a person becomes eligible to cast his vote? Ans. Every Indian citizen, who attains the age of 18 Years has the right to vote. 5. At which age, a person can stand in election? Ans. At the age of 25 years, a person can stand in an election. G. Long answer questions : 1. What is Democracy? Ans. Democracy is a form of government which based on the consent of people. It is ruled by the people. 2. List any three basic features of a Democratic system. Ans. The three basis of representation are : 1. Universal Adult Franchise 2. Elections 3. Political Parties 3. Explain Universal Adult Franchise. Who can vote in India? Ans. Universal Adult Franchise means that the right to vote is universally given to all adult citizens without any discrimination. The person who attains the age of 18 years is eligible to vote in elections. 4. What are elections? Ans. The periodical way of choosing people's representatives is known as election. It is a contact organised between different political parties for getting peoples support. 5. Briefly describe the election process starting from display of electoral rolls to declaration of results. Ans. After display of electoral rolls election campaigning takes place. Election campaign stops 48 hours before the day of polling. Voters cast their vote on the fixed date. Voting machines or ballot boxes are sealed. On a fixed date. counting takes place and the results are announced by the Returning Officer. In case of any doubt, the decision of the Returning Officer is final. Bookman India

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6. What is the importance of elections? Ans. Elections are essential for Democracy. An election is a contact organised between different political parties for getting people's support. The party which gets the maximum support, comes to power and forms the government. Elections are the soul of representative democracy. 7. Distinguish between national and state parties. Ans. India has a large number of political parties. Some of them are present in most parts of the country, so they are called national parties as Congress, BJP, BSP. Some of them are present only in certain state. They are called state or regional parties, as DMK, Akali Dal. 8. Discuss the role of opposition parties in a parliament democracy. Ans. Opposition plays the role of a watchdog of the people's interest. Members of the opposition point out the shortcomings and failures of the ruling party. The opposition parties do not allow the government to become irresponsible and dictatorial. Thus, they keep a check on the government. 9. What are the merits and demerits of a coalition government. Ans. Merits Demerits 1. It leads to a common minimum It leads to political instability programe. in the nation. 2. It strengthens the roots of It encourages political federalism. defections. 3. It saves the country from having to Sometimes it leads to conduct elections, if no single party a mockery of ideological gets majority. differences. 10. What is a political party? Ans. The associations which attempt to gain political power through a democratic process are called political parties. All voluntary associations are not called political parties.

3.

STATE GOVERNMENT

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. The Chief Minister presides over meetings of the : 3 (a) Assembly (b) Council of Minister (c) Both of them (d) None of them 2. The Vidhan Sabha is composed of representatives directly elected by : 3 (a) Governor (b) People (c) Both of them (d) None of them 3. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the legislative : 3 (a) Assembly (b) Council (c) Both of them (d) None of them Bookman India

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4. Subjects like law and order fall exclusively within the domain of the : 3 (a) States (b) Centre (c) Both of them (d) None of them 5. The _______ of a state is the nominal head of the Executive. 3 (a) Governor (b) Chief Minister (c) Both of them (d) None of them 6. The term of the legislative Assembly is ______ years. 3 (a) Five (b) Six (c) Seven (d) None of them B. Write True or False : 1. The role of Legislative Council is only advisory. True 2. A Governor is appointed for 10 years. False 3. All Bills originate from the Legislative Council. False 4. The Ministers are usually of five categories. False 5. All States have both the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council. False 6. The Legislative Council occupies a secondary position in the Legislature. True 7. Members of the Legislative Assembly have to be over 21 years of age. False C. Fill in the blanks : 1. A State Assembly can be dissolved before the expiry of them by Governor. 2. The Legislative Council is a Upper House like the Council of States. 3. The speaker conducts the proceedings of the Legislative Assembly. 4. Chief minister is an Executive Head of the State. 5. The power to nominate distinguished persons to the Legislative Council rests with the Governor. D. Project / Activity : 1. Who is the Chief Minister of your state? Find out from which constituency has he been elected? Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Which Political party does the Chief Minister of your state represent? Find out whether this party won with a majority in elections or whether it is a Coalition government in your state. Ans. (Do yourself) E. Short answer questions : 1. What items are included in a state's budget? Ans. Agriculture, law and order, irrigation, trade and commerce, health are areas, which are included in state budget. State list has 66 items. 2. How many states and Union Territories India has? Ans. India has 28 states and 7 Union Territories. 3. What is the role of the Governor in the appointment of the Chief Minister in a state? Ans. After the elections of the Legislative Assembly, the leader of the majority party or the proposed coalition is called upon by the 79 Bookman India Enjoy with Social Life – 7

Governor to form the ministry. The Governor appoints the Chief minitser. 4. Which State Assembly has the maximum number of MLAs? Ans. U.P. with 404 seats has the maximum number of MLAs. 5. Which State Assembly has the minimum number of MLAs? Ans. Himachal Pradesh has just 68 members, minimum number of MLAs. 6. Give example of one subject each under the state and central list. Ans. Central list State list Airways Agriculture Currency Police Defence Hospitals Telephone Roads F. Long answer questions : 1. Why is it said that Indian Constitution is federal in form? Ans. A federation means distribution of powers between the Central Government and State Government we can see this quality in India. So we can say that our constitution is federal in form. 2. What qualifications are required to the appointed as the Governor of a State? Ans. To be eligible for the post of a Governor a person must be : 1. The citizen of India. 2. Should be of the age of 35 years. 3. Cannot be a member of parliament. 4. Cannot hold any salaried government post. 5. Should not a resident of the state of which he or she is appointed Governor. 3. Describe Governor's role as the constitutional head of the government? Ans. The governor, as the constitutional head, appoints the chief-minister. All bill passed by the state legislature have to be approved and signed by the Governor. No money bill can be introduced without his approval. He has power to grand pardon. He may advise the Central government for Precedents rule in a state, if required. 4. Describe the powers and position of a Chief Minister. Ans. Chief Minister presides over cabinet meetings. He is the link between the Council of Ministers and the Governor. He distributes portfolios among Ministers and retains also, if needed. The CM can change his Council of Ministers as and when he likes. His position depends upon his party's majority in the legislature. 5. Explain the Role of Chief Minister in relation to the Council of Ministers. Ans. The Council of Ministers is appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister. CM may appoint a Deputy Chief Minister. The CM can change his Council of Ministers as and when he likes. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the legislative Assembly. Bookman India

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6. Describe the compositions of the Council of Ministers. Ans. The Council of Ministers is appointed by the Governor on the advice of the CM. The total number of minister, including the Chief Minister, cannot be more than 15 per cent of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly It cannot be less than 12 either. 7. What are the functions of Council of Ministers? Ans. The functions of Council of Ministers are as follows : 1. The Council of Ministers take and form all important policy decisions. 2. All the bills are prepared, presented and defended in the state legislature by the ministers. 3. It is collectively responsible to the legislative Assembly. 4. The Legislature exercises control over it by asking different questions during Question Hour. 8. How is a bill passed? Ans. When the suggestive law is first introduced, it is called a bill. The bill are introduced by a minister either in the Legislative Assembly or in the Legislative Council. It is discussed in the house and amendments are made, if necessary, before it is put to vote. If the bill is passed, it is sent to the Governor for his consent. It becomes an Act only after the Governor signs it. 9. What qualifications are required for an MLA? Ans. To become on MLA, a man should be : 1. the citizen of India. 2. the voter in any constituency of that state. 3. Not be less than 30 years of age. 4. In the case of reserved seat, he should belong to that class. 10. Describe in brief the relationship between the Vidhan Sabha and the Vidhan Parishad. Ans. Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad are two houses of State Legistature. Vidhan Sabha is composed of elected members and has more power than Vidhan Parishad. The bills can be introduced in either Vidhan Sabha or in Vidhan Parishad. Money bill can be introduced only in the Vidhan Sabha. After discussion and voting, governor signs on it, and bill becomes law.

4.

STATE GOVERNMENT : FUNCTIONING

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. When was the Zamindari Abolition Act passed? 3 (a) In the year 1947 (b) In the year 1950 (c) In the year 1955 (d) None of them 2. Abolition of which system was the finest example of land reforms after Independence? (a) Sati pratha (b) Zamindari system 3 (c) Parda pratha (d) None of them 81 Bookman India Enjoy with Social Life – 7

3. Who was the noted leader of the peasants movements of the Preindependence era? 3 (a) Charan Singh (b) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Both of them (d) None of them 4. Tenant farmers who were granted property rights known as : 3 (a) Mukhiyas (b) Bhumidars (c) Both of them (d) None of them 5. Which state of India has become a great centre for computer based services? 3 (a) Haryana (b) Karnataka (c) Bihar (d) None of them B. Write True or False : 1. The Zamindars treated the real cultivators like the slaves. False 2. Operation Bagra gave land to sharecroppers. False 3. The real tillers led a very easy life. False 4. Green revolution was a legacy of Pre-independent era. False 5. Institutional reforms aimed at giving land to tenants. False C. Fill in the blanks : 1. Haryana is becoming important for call-centre services. 2. The abolition of zamindari was the first phase of reforms. 3. Primary schools in villages should be located near the residential area. 4. Green revolution was the second phase of reform. 5. Farm labourers used to migrate to other states as they do not have enough employment opportunities in their home states. D. Match the followings : 1. Zamindari (a) HYV seeds 2. Institutional reform (b) Land to tenants 3. Green revolution (c) Owner of lands who exploited the peasants 4. Tenancy reform (d) Changes in existing institutions E. Project / Activity : 1. Prepare a list of natural resources existing within your state that still remain unutilised. Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Visit a nearby farm land. Try to find out about the availability of irrigation and other facilities the farmers are getting there. Ans. (Do yourself) F. Short answer questions : 1. Name the states which were the first to implement land tenure legislations for abolition of Zamindari. Ans. The state government of U.P., Bihar, Assam, Madras, and Madhya Pradesh were the first states to implement land tenure legislations for abolition of Zamindari. 2. What was the significance of the Zamindari Abolition Act passed in 1950? Ans. The significance of Zamindari Abolition Act was that tenant farmers, Bookman India

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who paid ten times their rent, were immediately granted property rights over the land held by them in tenancy. They were known as Bhumidars. 3. Beside Agriculture, what are the other subjects that fall in the state list of our constitution? Ans. The other subjects that fall in the state list of our constitution are – law and order, education, health and irrigation. 4. Why is Punjab a rich and prosperous agricultural state? Ans. Punjab is a rich and prosperous agricultural state as it has a network of canals for irrigation and has made the best possible use of its natural and human resources. The people of Punjab are hardworking that makes the state a distinct one. 5. What are the objectives of a state's planning department? Ans. Each state has planning department which makes plan for the development of the state. The main objective of planing department is to ensure best utilization of the resources and available services. G. Long answer questions : 1. What was operation Bagra? Ans. This operation aimed at successful and time bound registration of share between the land owners and the sharecroppers, was known as operation Bagra. The state of West Bengal introduced it in 1978. 2. Who works for reforms? Name some states where reforms are done. Ans. Chaudhary Charan Singh and N.G. Ranga were the noted leaders of the peasant movements. Some states, where reforms introduced were Punjab, U.P. Haryana and Tamil Nadu. The government of these states provided high yielding variety of seeds and new technology, to improve production and quality both. 3. How did the Zamindari system affect the real tillers of the soil? Ans. The Zamindari system affected the real tillers very much. When it was abolished them tenant farmers, who paid ten times their rent, were immediately granted property rights over the land held by them in tenancy. 4. What do you understand by consolidation of holdings? Ans. When India gained freedom in 1947, the country faced severs Food grain shortages and there was urgent need for reforms like consolidation of holdings and extension of facilities for irrigation. 5. What type of land reforms were introduced in India? Ans. The land reforms which were introduced in India : 1. Zamindari Abolition Act 2. Transfer of land to tenants 3. Operation Bagra 4. Ceilings on land holdings 5. Green Revolution 6. Why have states like Punjab and Haryana more prosperous in comparison to Bihar, even though both have a large population of farmers? Ans. The prosperity of the state depends on the fact how the natural resources are used by the concerned government. Punjab and Haryana Bookman India

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7. Ans. 8. Ans.

5.

are more prosperous in comparison to Bihar because they have a network of canals for irrigation and have made the best possible use of its natural resources. Besides the natural resources, the people are hardworking that makes the state a distinct one. What was the Green revolution? Green revolutions was a programme which introduced HYV seeds and irrigation tractor technology to increase food production. The main aim of this revolution was to improve production and quality both. Why has Indian Government failed to carry out reforms? The Government has always played a vital role in solving the problems of the people. The works of reforms are done in the fields of land reform, education, water, health and irrigation. The chief hindrancess in implementation the tenancy reforms were the different political parts of the country. Our government is trying its best yet much however still remains to be done.

MEDIA AND DEMOCRACY

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. Newspaper and periodic magazines are the examples of : 3 (a) Electronic media (b) Print media (c) Both of them (d) None of them 2. Journalists should perform their duties keeping in mind : 3 (a) Selfishness (b) Impartiality (c) Both of them (d) None of them 3. Which authority is responsible for regulations of sting operations? (a) Medical Council of India 3 (b) Press Council of India (c) Both of them (d) None of them 4. Through what media tells us about the policy decisions of the government? (a) Government policy decisions 3 (b) Public policy decisions (c) Both of them (d) None of them 5. In which year the Right to Information (RTI) was enacted? 3 (a) In the year 2000 (b) In the year 2005 (c) In the year 2008 (d) None of them B. Write True or False : 1. The media is the principal source of political information and public debate. True 2. Media helps in creation of opinion. True 3. RTI Act has been enforced fully. True 4. The media has only political responsibilities. False 5. RTI Act ensures transparency in administration. True 84 Bookman India Enjoy with Social Life – 7

C. Fill in the blanks : 1. In sting operations, people in authority have been found to accepting bribe. 2. Media influence government by putting forth the opinions expressed by various groups. 3. The media promotes awareness in public life. 4. The right to information was enacted in June 2005 to make administration transparent. 5. The media should give only reports that are based on facts. D. Match the followings : 1. Media (a) Government 2. Ethics (b) Mode of communication 3. Accountable (c) RTI Act 4. Transparency in administration (d) Media E. Project / Activity : 1. Make a list of five daily, weekly and monthly newspapers and magazines that are circulated in your city. Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Collect some newspaper reports, Prepare a report on the role of media for society and government. Ans. (Do yourself) F. Short answer questions : 1. What are the two major elements in the process of development? Ans. Democracy and Media are two major elements in the process of development. 2. Name the different means of communication which constitute the media? Ans. Newspaper, television, radio and mobile are different means of communication which constitute the media. 3. Mention any three ethics and accountability of media towards society. Ans. The media acts as a mirror of social life. Its main ethics are : 1. Act independently 2. Search truth and report it 3. Be accountable 4. Minimize harm 4. What is sting operation? Ans. Many times media plays a very irresponsible role. There are number of cases when authorities are caught accepting bribes on hidden cameras. These incidents are called as sting operations. 5. What is the objective of RTI Act? Ans. The Right to Information (RTI) Act was enacted in June 2005. The act is intended to introduce transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority. J. Long answer questions : 1. What do you understand by media? Give some examples of electronic media. Ans. Media means a mode of communication providing ideas and information to the people. Newspapers and magazines are the example of print media while radio. T.V., and Cinema are called electronic media. Bookman India

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2. What are the objectives of media? Ans. The objectives of media are : 1. It separates news from public opinion. 2. It gives reports that are based on facts. 3. It avoids distortion and sensationalization of news. 4. It gives all aspects of the events. 3. How does media provide information? Ans. Media provide information through print media and electronic media. These sources play a significant role in creating awareness among the people. In this era of globalization, media has emerged as one of the most important component of society. 4. What is the relation between media and democracy? Ans. Media is a forum of public expression. Media establishes a strong link between people and government. If a certain decision is taken out, then it is trough the media that tells us about the policy decisions of the government. Media not only provides information in the form of news but also gives us a wide range of opinions and analysis on important issues. 5. Why is it necessary to have some regulations on media? Ans. Sometimes journalists and other concerned people are lured and tempted to accept bribes. Generally speaking, media houses are owned by big business houses. This is against media ethics. So it is necessary to have some regulations on media. 6. When did the Right to Information Act come into force? What was its main features? Ans. The Right to Information (RTI) Act was enacted in June 2005. The act is intended to introduce transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority. 7. What is media ethics? Ans. The media acts as a mirror of social life. Its main ethics are : 1. Act independently 2. Search truth and report it 3. Be accountable 4. Minimize harm 8. How is media accountable to society? Ans. In this era of globalization, media has emerged as one of the most important component of society. It is accountable to society as it play a significant role in creating awareness among the people through print media and electronic media. 9. What functions does the press council of India perform? Ans. The events like sting operations need to be regulated by some authority. And it is the main function of Press council of India, to put some regulations on the media. 10. In what ways can sting operations help in promoting honesty in public affairs? Ans. Media has to play a very important role in exposing corrupt people through sting operations. these operations can be helpful in promoting honesty in Public affairs, if they are regulated by some authority. The Press council of India in our country fulfill this purpose. Bookman India

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6.

COMMERCIAL AND SOCIAL ADVERTISING

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. When did the art on printing develop? (a) In the Fifteenth century 3 (b) In the Sixteenth century (c) In the Seventeenth century (d) None of them 2. When did the art of advertisement became modern and more scientific? (a) In the 1970s (b) In the 1960s 3 (c) In the 1980s (d) None of them 3. Commercial Advertising is done primarily to promote : (a) Education (b) Products 3 (c) Both of them (d) None of them 4. When a product is promoted through the recommendations of actual users that technique is called : (a) Institutional advertising (b) Testimonials 3 (c) Both of them (d) None of them 5. When did the Indian Government passed the Consumer Protection Act? (a) In 1985 (b) In 1986 3 (c) In 1987 (d) None of them B. Write True or False : 1. Social advertising is related to the rights and duties of consumers. False 2. The different means of communication constitute the media. True 3. Commercial advertising aims at social goods. False 4. Advertising aims to appeal to consumers. True 5. The Indian Government passed the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 to protect the interests of consumers. True C. Fill in the blanks : 1. The aim of advertising is to attract consumers. 2. Political advertising is done in the interests of political parties and candidates. 3. The media act as a mirror of social life. 4. To increase the consumer for the product is one of the main objectives of advertising. 5. Emotional appeals have become very popular in the health department. 6. Newspaper and television are types of advertising media. D. Give reasons : 1. Social advertising aims for public good. Ans. Because the aim of social advertising is to spread certain messages related to different age groups and categories of people. Its aim is in the form of an appeal, to spread awareness and motivate a large number of people. Bookman India

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2. Advertising is an important means of communication. Ans. Because every advertisement conveys a specific message about a thing or idea. It promotes particularly consumer goods like soaps, automobiles, dress, etc. E. Project / Activity : 1. Collect some advertisements from newspapers and magazines and classify them as different types of advertisements. Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Paste different types of advertisements on a chart. Ans. ((Do yourself) F. Short answer questions: 1. What does an advertisement convey? Ans. An advertisement conveys a specific message about a thing or idea. It promotes the sale of products, particularly consumer goods like electronic goods, soaps, automobiles, dress, etc. 2. How advertising had been done in olden days? Ans. In olden times, whenever the king wanted to convey any order to the people, he utilized the services of the drummers. These drummers made announcements in the mid of the town markets. 3. What are the two basic purposes of advertising? Ans. Advertising has two basic purposes to inform and to persuade. 4. Name any three techniques of advertising. Ans. Three techniques of advertising are : 1. Advertising slogans 2. Repetition 3. Pressure 5. What kind of information do classified advertising give? Ans. The classified advertising give us information about Jobs wanted, Jobs available, houses for rent or for sale, matrimonial, etc. G. Long answer questions : 1. What is advertising? Ans. Advertising is the business of drawing public attention to goods and services through different forms of media. An advertisement conveys a specific message about a thing or idea. It promotes the sale of products, particularly consumer goods like electronic goods, soaps, automobiles, dress etc. 2. What is the basic motive behind putting up an advertisement? Ans. The basic motive of advertising, in general, is to convey the availability of a product, a service or an idea and to provide information about it. 3. What is commercial advertising? Ans. Commercial advertising is done to promote products and services. It informs the customers about the product, its qualities, features, brand, utility, price, warranty and after sale services, etc. Its sole purpose is to increase the market for a particular product and earn profit. 4. What is social advertising? Ans. Social advertising is an appeal to spread awareness for the good of Bookman India

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5. Ans.

6. Ans.

people. This technique can be used to inform, educate and motivate the people. Its objective is not to create consumers. It is a powerful educational tool too. How do the political parties use media for advertising? Political parties advertise in the form of posters, wall writing, banners, radio and T.V. messages, etc. It is done to urge people to elect a particular candidate in the election, or to promote a set of ideas or policies. What techniques are used by advertisers to win customers for their products? The advertisers use many techniques to convince the people to buy certain product. These techniques are : 1. Advertising slogans 2 Repetition 3. Pressure 4. Association 5. Testimonials 6. Appeal to emotion

7.

MARKETS AROUND US

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. The place where goods are traded in bulk is called a : 3 (a) Retail market (b) Wholesale market (c) Both of them (d) None of them 2. No middle man is present between a producer and a buyer in : 3 (a) Direct channel (b) Indirect channel (c) Both of them (d) None of them 3. Wholesale market deals in: 3 (a) Small quantity (b) Large quantity (c) Both of them (d) None of them 4. Whose satisfaction is given top priority? 3 (a) Sellers (b) Buyers (c) Both of them (d) None of them 5. Ration shops sell : 3 (a) Luxurious goods (b) Essential goods (c) Both of them (d) None of them B. Write True or False : 1. The producers sell their goods directly to retailers. False 2. Prices of a product determines its market. True 3. Retail market is not important for consumers. False 4. Retailers provide a vital link between the producers and consumers. True 5. Quality of a product determines its market. True Bookman India

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C. Fill in the blanks : 1. Market is a place where buyers and sellers meet. 2. Marketing helps to explore the retail market. 3. People engaged in retail trade are called retailers. 4. People who produce and manufacture goods are called producer. 5. Retailers are offered goods on credit basis by wholesalers. D. Give reasons : 1. Goods are cheaper at wholesale markets. Still most people avoid them, why? Ans. Goods are cheaper at wholesale market still most people avoid them because they have a small variety of items while customer like a large variety to choose. One more reason is that wholesalers do not provide attractive schemes such as free home delivery gift wrapping, etc. 2. Why is there a big gap between the prices paid by the customer and those received by the grower? Ans. There is a big gap between the prices paid by us and received by the grower because the product pass through many hand before it finally reach in our hands. A long chain of middle men creates this gap. E. Project / Activity : 1. Visit your nearby market and find out whether your market is a wholesale or retail market. Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Make a list showing the prices of any five goods at the wholesale market and at the store near your house. Ans. (Do yourself) 3. Find out how many things in your house have been bought directly from salespersons and how many from retailers and wholesaler. Ans. (Do yourself) F. Write short notes on : 1. Availability – Availability means presence of any thing in sufficient quantity. It maintain a balance between the demand and supply of various good. 2. Prices – Every thing deserves a price. And it is necessary to regulate the prices of the goods in a suitable manner. If the prices are too high, consumers would be driven away from the market. 3. Quality – Consumer's satisfaction is the top priority. People do not want to buy inferior goods at higher prices. They prefer to buy quality products at competitive prices. 4. Credit – Retailers offer goods on credit. It adds popularity to the market. Salaried persons often want to avail this facility. 5. Convenience – People's access to market also depends upon the convenience of the availability of goods and location of market. They avoid going too far off markets. G. Short answer questions : 1. What is a wholesale market? Ans. The place where goods are traded in bulk is called a wholesale market. 2. What is a retail market? Ans. The place where goods are brought and sold in small quantities is called a retail market. Bookman India

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3. What are the activities does marketing involve? Ans. Marketing involves several activities such as buying goods, finding the preferences of a buyer, mode of delivery, terms of payment, persuade him to buy the goods and after sale services. 4. What is internal trade? Ans. Buying or selling goods and services within a country is known as internal trade or home trade. 5. What is a ration shop? Ans. The ration shops sell essential goods at the lower prices than the markets especially food grains, sugar, oil, etc. The dealers get their supplies from Government stock at a very low price. H. Long answer questions : 1. What do you mean by market? Ans. Market is a place where sellers and buyers exchange goods for money. Sellers buy goods from producers and sell it to the general customers. 2. Who is a customer? Ans. Customer is a common man who purchase from retail market. A market fulfills the regular needs of a customer. Now-a-days customer's satisfaction is the top priority. 3. Who is a seller or trader? Ans. A person who purchases goods in a small quantity from the wholesalers and sells it to the customer, at a competitive price, in the retail market, is known as seller or trader. 4. What are the benefits of marketing? Ans. Marketing establishes a link between a producer and a consumer through trader. Marketing is not about selling things alone. Its benefits are : 1. It improves the standard of living 2. generates employment 3. develops economic resources 4. satisfies customer's needs 5. explores export market 6. Generate revenue 5. How does the retail market fulfill our daily needs? Ans. The retail market refers to buying of goods from the wholesalers and selling them to the consumers. Retailers do not have direct links with the manufacturers. They act as the middlemen between the wholesalers and consumers. They have generally a large amount of variety of items in their shop. 6. What is the difference between retail marketing and wholesale marketing? Ans. Whole sale marketing Retail marketing 1. Deals in large quantities and Deals in small quantity and on a on a large scale. small scale. 2. Sells to retailers. Sells to consumers. 3. Have small variety of items. Have large variety of items. Bookman India

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4. Requires more capital investment. 5. Requires a great space to store goods.

8.

Requires a small capital investment. Can be started in a small space.

UNPACKING GENDER : SOCIAL AND ECONOMIC ASPECT

Exercises A. Tick (3) the correct answer : 1. What is the basic unit of gender discrimination? 3 (a) School (b) Family (c) Both of them (d) None of them 2. In our society which child is considered as a burden? 3 (a) Girl child (b) Baby boy (c) Both of them (d) None of them 3. Around the world, 57 per cent of the children out of school are : 3 (a) Boy (b) Girls (c) Both of them (d) None of them 4. Where did Mahatma Phule open school for girls in 1848? 3 (a) In West Bengal (b) In Maharashtra (c) In Uttar Pradesh (d) None of them 5. Who was the founder of the Arya Samaj? (a) Swami Vivekanand (b) Swami Dayanand Saraswati 3 (c) Swami Ram Krishan Paramhans (d) None of them B. Write True or False : 1. Gender inequality is a social problem which afflicts our country today. True 2. Men consider female subordination to be a part of gender society.True 3. Value of woman's labour both at home and outside is dominated by woman herself. False 4. Patriarchical society was responsible for control of men over women as productive assets. True 5. Mahatma Phule worked for widow upliftment and the removal of untouchability. True C. Fill in the blanks : 1. Gender divides labour relations within family. 2. Women are paid less for doing the same work as compared to men. 3. Women's work is rarely recognized in most cultures. 4. Gender is related to biological differences. 5. Mahatma Phule was the first Indian to take the lead in the direction of social reform. Bookman India

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D. Give reasons : 1. Family has gender division of labour. Ans. Family has gender division of labour because certain kinds of labour are considered to be women's work or men's work. These divisions in the family are mostly based on tradition than biological differences. 2. It is important to educate women. Ans. It is important to educate women because an educated woman can educate the whole family she can be an earning hand too. 3. Patriarchical system has made women's labour invisible. Ans. Because all activities like cooking, washing, house keeping, grinding grains, collecting water and fire wood, etc are not taken into account, and they are never paid for the same and the reason is that we live in man-dominating society. E. Project / Activity : 1. List some items of work in the home in which both parents make an equal contribution. Ans. (Do yourself) 2. Find out male-female ratio in your class and school. Ans. (Do yourself) 3. Identify some areas of gender discrimination in your daily life. Prepare a project on it suggesting ways on how women can get back their productive values. Ans. (Do yourself) F. Short answer questions : 1. How does girl child suffer gender discrimination in a family? Ans. Family is the basic unit of gender discrimination. This birth of a female child is considered as a curse or burden on their life freedom for girls is much less, in case of education, carrier, wearing, even in marriage too. 2. Why do the girls prefer to do white collar Jobs? Ans. The girls prefer to do white collar jobs that need skill not physical strength as teaching, nursing and household chores because women are always considered physically and emotionally weak in comparison of men and these places are safe for girls. 3. Mention few result of the blind faith in the traditions of the society. Ans. Evil practices like sati, female infanticide, child marriage, dowry, domestication on women have been the results of the blind faith in the traditions of the society. 4. Write down the contribution of Mahatma Phule towards our society as a social reformer. Ans. Mahatma Phule was a social reformer known for his efforts to educate women and the lower caste. He opened the first school for girls in Maharashtra. He also worked for widow upliftment and the removal of untouchability. 5. What was the contribution of Swami Dayanand Saraswati for the society? Ans. Swami Dayanand was the founder of the Arya Samaj. He opposed sati system , child marriage and infanticide. He enforced the women education and widow remarriage. 93 Bookman India Enjoy with Social Life – 7

G. Long answer questions : 1. What is gender? Ans. Separate qualities that men and women are usually expected to have are known as gender. Gender is different from these biological differences. It refers to the socially constructed differences between men and women. 2. What is gender inequality? Ans. Gender inequality is a social problem which afflict our country worst. It is considered to be a natural phenomenon. It has made differences between men and women, boys and girls as something natural, a part of our culture, norms, values and society. 3. How is gender division related to division of labour? Ans. Gender division is related to division of labour as certain kinds of labour are considered to be women's work as teaching, nursing, etc. Men are supposed to have masculine qualities of bravery and confidence, so works in factories and commercial sites are suitable for them. 4. How is gender differentiation based on traditional expectations? Ans. The gender division exists even in societies where the husband and the wife both are educated. But taking the car to garage, repairing electrical gadgets are considered masculine jobs. Even an educated wife dare not attempt. These facts tell that gender divisions in the family are mostly based on tradition than biological differences. 5. How can gender inequality be improved in schools? Ans. To improve the gender inequality in schools, we should prefer coeducational institute. People should try to improve the ratio of school going girls. Government has launched many schemes to promote their education. Girls education up to secondary schools should be free in all over the country. 6. Things are changing for the better for women in India and abroad as well. Do you agree? Explain your views. Ans. Yes, we are agree that the things are changing for the better for women. Now the position of women is improving all over the world. Women have equal economic security, equal social and political power, equal inherit land. They are entering traditionally made dominated professions. 7. What was the role played by the social reformers for the upliftment of women? Ans. Many social reformers made great efforts to uplift the status of woman in Indian society. They were known for their efforts to educate women opened the schools, widow remarriage, removal of untouchability, abolished Sati system and child marriage and infanticide. They also opposed the Pardah system and Polygamy and divorce in Muslim society.

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