No. of Printed Pages : 56 Entrance Test for M.Ed. Special Education Programme, 2011

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Total No. of Questions to be attempted : 100 q)ci 3 :100

Total Marks : 100 art afw: 100

Total Time : 120 Minutes %lc-1"mm: 120 'Pile The test booklet consists of two parts 'A' and 'B'. There are the total number of test items will be 175 of 1 mark each out of which the candidates are required to attempt 100 questions as per instruction. ‘131"irRM t %TM ITM 3T ITTTT I 1) 4t9tif 175 AT 3k 51 y-1 1 3-1 4 1:13.11-1P11 3T►( tI 100 Tr79 Both Part A and Part B are compulsory. TM 33' 31)7 %TM 31frdi4 t I Only one specialisation area under Section II of Part B is to be selected and it must correspond to your B.Ed. Special Education or its equivalent degree. tigug t 3f-d-rfu t 7'f 37* f#P9' "NW (-14-11-f Fs tI TTt Part

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Content

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Part A

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No. of Questions SI.No. of Questions Marks 1;PaI

Section I General English Comprehension

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Section II Logical and Analytical Reasoning

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Section III General Awareness

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Section I Special Education and Rehabilitation

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Section IV Research

Part B

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Q. Nos. 76 to 100

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Q. Nos. 101 to 125

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Note : Please attempt only one area of Part B, Section II as per your specialization area. : TTPIT altrt Wtiqicif 31117T tg118 II f Tr4 Oq tf -crWT ra T 5N-11 t &tit MEDSE/ 2011

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P.T.O.

HOW TO FILL UP THE INFORMATION ON THE OMR RESPONSE SHEET (EXAMINATION ANSWER SHEET) OMR di-H-Iff 1.

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Write your complete Enrolment No. in 9 digits. Also write your correct name, address with Pin Code in the space provided. Put your signatures on the OMR Response Sheet with date. Ensure that the Invigilator in your examination hall also puts his signatures with date on the OMR Response Sheet at the space provided. You should use HB Pencil. 3-Tcrt

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P.T.O.

GENERAL INSTRUCTION fTbT 1.

No cell phones, calculators, books, slide-rules, note-books or written notes, etc. will be allowed inside the examination hall. ct;) 3T-11:It

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You should follow the instructions given by the Centre Superintendent and by the Invigilator at the examination venue. If you violate the instructions you will he disqualified. 4t1 r

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Any candidate found copying or receiving or giving assistance in the examination will be disqualified.

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The Test Booklet and the OMR Response Sheet (Answer Sheet) would be supplied to you by the Invigilators. After the examination is over, you should hand over the OMR Response Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the examination hall. Any candidate who does not return the OMR Response Sheet will be disqualified and the University may take further action against him/her.

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The University reserves the right to cancel scores of any candidate who impersonates or uses/adopts other malpractices or uses any unfair means. The examination is conducted under uniform conditions. The University would also follow a procedure to verify the validity of scores of all examinees uniformly. If there is substantial indication that your performance is not genuine, the University may cancel your score. [cog zrl

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Candidates should bring their hall tickets duly issued by the Registrar. In the event of your qualifying the Entrance Test, this hall ticket should be enclosed with your admission form while submitting it to the University for seeking admission in B.Ed. Programme along with your testimonials and programme fee. Admission forms received without hall ticket in original will be summarily rejected.

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PART - A SECTION - I : GENERAL ENGLISH COMPREHENSION %TM - 3T "IET

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Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow by selecting the best alternative out of the four choices given for each question. Hospitality is a virtue for which the natives of the East in general are highly and simply admired; and the people of Egypt are well entitled to commendation on this account. A word which signifies literally "a person on a journey" (Musafir) is the term most commonly employed in this country in the sense of a visitor or guest. These are very few persons here who would think of sitting down to meal, if there were stranger in the house without inviting him to partake of it unless the latter were a menial ; in which case, he would be invited to eat with the servants. It would to considered a shameful violation of good manners if a Muslim abstained from ordering the table to be prepared at the usual time because a visitor happened to be present. Persons of the middle classes in this country, it living in a retired situation, sometimes take their supper before the door of the house, and invite every passenger of respectable appearance to eat with them. This is very commonly done among the lower order. In cities and large towns, claims on hospitality are unfrequent.

1.

According to the passage, hospitality is a : (1) manner

2.

(4) trend

The people of Egypt are commended for their : (1) fashion

3.

(3) virtue

(2) custom

(3) behaviour

(2) hospitality

'Musafir' means literally : (1) a person on journey

(2) visitor

(3) orphan

(4) manial

MEDSE/ 2011

6

(4) dictation

4.

The word 'partake' in the passage means : (1) adjust

5.

7.

8.

9.

(3) advice

(4) have a share

The class which is generous in extending hospitality is : (1) middle

6.

(2) devide

(2) lower

(3) upper

(4) civilized

The word 'menial' means : (1) highly respectful person

(2) disrespectful person

(3) teacher

(4) attendent or flunky

In Egypt the people offer dinner to a menial with : (1) an old man of the family

(2) servants

(3) female members of the family

(4) only male members of the family

If a visitor happens to be there in a Muslim family in Egypt he will : (1)

avoid to order for preparing table for meal

(2)

ask the visitor to leave

(3)

delay the usual timing of meal

(4)

he will request visitor to join over meal

Persons of the middle classes sometimes take their supper : (1) before doors of their houses

(2) on the roof of the house

(3) in the street

(4) in corridors

10. The claims on hospitality are unfrequent in : (1) rural areas

(2) cities and large towns

(3) lower order

(4) middle order

MEDSE/ 2011

7

P.T.O.

PART - A SECTION - II LOGICAL AND ANALYTICAL REASONING Logical and analytical reasoning In Question Number 11 to 15 (Which number will take place of (?) in the following number series.) 11. 2, 8, 26, 80, ? (1)

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12. 6, 5, 24, ?, 144 (1)

111

13. 2, 4, 12, 48, ? (1)

190

14. 9, 17, 32, 61, 118, 231, ? (1)

15.

415

315, 420, 525, ? (1)

840

Question Number 16 - 20 (Read the question carefully and find out the answer from the options.) 16. In a Mixture 6 parts is water and 4 parts is the matter, then the quantity of water in the Mixture is : (1) 60%

(2) 30%

(3) 20%

(4) 10%

17. In 3 kg of tea, how many packets of 50 gms will be : (1) 30 MEDSE/ 2011

(2) 60

(3) 80 8

(4) none of these

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18. The difference between 20% of 172 and 272 is : (1) 35'

(3) 55

(2) 40

(4) 20

19. A man work 4 hours daily and complete a work in 15 days. In how many days he will complete the work by working 6 hours daily : (1) 24 days

(2) 10 days

(3) 30 days

(4) none of these

20. A man walks 90 metres in 2 minutes. How much distance will be covered in 5 minutes ? (1) 180 metres

(2) 340 metres

(3) 225 metres

(4) 400 metres

Question Number 21 to 25 Locate the appropriate options and write your answers. 21. Out of the following, find out the leap year : (1) 1880

(2) 1992

(3) 2008

(4) 1780

22. If 3rd of a month was Friday, then which day will be on the 4th day after the 21st of the same month : (1) Monday

23.

(4) Thursday

(2) Sunday

(3) Saturday

(4) Friday

It was Friday on the day before yesterday. What day of the week will be on day after tomorrow : (1) Tuesday

25.

(3) Tuesday

If 17 March 1980 was Monday, then which day was it on 12th July 1980 : (1) Monday

24.

(2) Saturday

(2) Monday

(3) Thursday

(4) Sunday

It was Tuesday on the 5th of a month, which day will be the 4th day after 22nd : (1) Monday

MEDSE/2011

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(3) Friday 10

(4) Saturday

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PART - A SECTION - III : GENERAL AWARENESS 26. The tenure of the non permanent members of the UN security council is : (2) Two years (3) Six months (1) One year (4) Five years 27. Which of the following rivers does not form any delta at its mouth ? (1) Kaveri (2) Mahanadi (3) Tapti (4) Godavari 28. Antibodies are formed in : (2) Liver (1) Spleen

(3) Lymph Nodes (4) Bone Marrow

29. Price rise goes in favour of those who are : (2) Pensioners (1) Debtors (3) Businessmen (4) Government Servants 30. The world famous Khajuraho Temples were built by the king of which dynasty : (1) Chandela (2) Maurya (3) Parmars (4) Chalukyas 31. World Environment Day is celebrated in the month of : (1) July (2) June (3) May

(4) October

32. India's first space Satellite was named as : (1) Apple (2) Aryabhatta (3) Bhaskar

(4) Rohini

33. Who is known as ."Frontier Gandhi" ? (1) Dadabhai Naoroji (2) C. R. Das (3) C. Rajgopalachari (4) Abdul Gaffar Khan 34. India's first newspaper was : (1) Hickey's Bengal Gazette (3) The Statesman

(2) The Hindu (4) The Times of India

35. The capital of Arunachal Pradesh is : (1) Aizwal (2) Gangtok MEDSE/2011

(3) Shillong 12

(4) Itanagar

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PART - A SECTION - IV : RESEARCH Question Number 36 to 50 36. The term research comprises two words : (2) rese + arch (1) res + earch (4) resear + ch (3) re + search 37. Research is a systematic attempt to obtain answers through application of : (2) Scientific procedure (1) Objective observation (4) None of these (3) Careful finding 38. Research is more (1) Formal process (3) only (1)

(2) Systematic and intensive process (4) both (1) and (2)

39. The term research and scientific method are used interchangeably : (2) Always (1) Sometimes (3) Never (4) Frequently 40. Research is directed towards (1) Problems (3) Conclusion

(2) Solution of problem (4) Guidance

41.

The aim of fundamental research is the : (1) development of research proposal. (2) development of theory. (3) development of general application. (4) all the above.

42.

The purpose of applied research is : (1) improving a product (2) improving a process (3) testing theoretical concept (4) all the above

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(4) f-ItqF -4- c-R41

41.ltriffw ttT

AFT t :

(1) 7h4 U.kcipi --1 fq--*-RT

(2)

(3)

(4) 374-4T1 14341

-III-II— 1 3T-11:Rh-TT T -F4-*-74

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42. 317ffT7 ttT W afiwrzr t: (1)

zrg

(3)

441F-c-ich 3i c

MEDSE/2011

1,41 iid ch'(-11 +114-11

(2)

-91-wzrr

(4)

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15

laobRici ciltli

P.T.O.

43. Action research is focused upon : (1) solution of specific problem at local level (2) long term application of theory (3) application of findings (4) none of the above 44.

Descriptive research studies are of : (2) three types (1) two types

(3) four types

(4) six types

45.

Ethnographic studies are used in seeking information about the (2) Culture of a group (1) Social Status of a group (4) None of the above (3) Age - range of a group

46.

Action research can be conducted by : (1) Workers in community (2) Teacher in the school (3) Researchers who wish to do applied research (4) All the above

47.

Action research is a systematic approach of problem solving to improve the : (2) Permanent structure (1) Current situation (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of the above

48.

Research Hypotheses is a tentative statement which gives : (1) Direction to the research (2) Research question (3) Support in statistical treatment (4) All of the above

49. Historical research provides an accurate account of : (1) Past events (2) Present events (3) Future events (4) None of the above 50.

The use of research methodology in educational studies depends upon : (1) nature of problems (2) type of research (4) all of the above (3) type of data and tools

MEDSE/2011

16

43.

chii cHch tftT

(1)

*of

fti01

dicaliroch 3-1-9-trf TR

racRuncHch 711N 3-1Wzr9'

(1)

(4) 37-4* - 114

61a :

t

ci mcbi(

(2)

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f*7:11-

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47.

Act)

‘1" 31F1c14

(3) t*-TFT

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(3)

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(4)

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(4)

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(2)

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50.

tfvw 31g (1) wit-411

(2) W41:FR f

-1711ti1I

(4) ztrzjwt

c41 iii

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MEDSE/ 2011

(3) Mr-4M

(2) tzT

malt( TR

(4) Wzr4W1 Tit

17

P.T.O.

PART - B SECTION - I : SPECIAL EDUCATION AND REHABILITATION 51. Community Based Rehabilitation is a process : (1)

to bring transformation in the community

(2)

to protect the community

(3)

to improve the quality life of PWD's

(4)

all the above

52. Inclusive Education promotes : (1) education of CWSN

(2) acceptance among the society

(3) create awareness

(4) none of the above

53. IEDC scheme is implemented by : (1)

Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

(2)

Ministry of Human Resource Development

(3)

Ministry of Health and Welfare

(4)

None of the above

54. Disabilities covered under PWD Act, 1995 : (1) 5

(2) 6

(3)

7

(4) 8

55. ICF is : (1)

International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health

(2)

International Classification of Functional Assessment

(3)

International Council of Functioning

(4)

None of the above

MEDSE/ 2011

18

1-1TTT -

(guS - I : faylw f7RIT

7441

51. 77717 3-Tfqrftff 7-41741&h .5fr-Wzif t : (1)7i

lirtcld-1 (-11 rc-R

(2)

147F4

(3)

racbc-im c416-14I 71-49 14 .14rT

(4)

6410R-1 Rift

:

f7R.if siqAcif

52.

(1) fit (3)

frig

tur

(2)

fl4-11•If 7ZI-1--frff

,siiiitemtlf lcf cm-if

(4)

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53. IEDC

f*74-k 71 ciPL

?

(1)

114-11rzich -qiq 74 311-Wt.-1i 1-1-911(1q (2)

4-11101 t1t11

(3)

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*-1 • 14

(4)

fq-*-TR 1-1-110q

54. rachopf ceircid 3-Tfifigir, 1995 it f*74 WIT t reichrwicif 'WT 3c t : (1) 5

55.

(2) 6

371.1t.T41. -Wf fq7ITT zrf (1)

q11(1 cfc1R-I

(3)

•ttql•-ic1

(4)

-144

MEDSE/ 2011

(4) 8

7

41E :

ci.citki 4,

(2)

(3)

3-IfEF ‘ 141-etql -141, qt-r 3117

rowile.1

tc7-94

3174747

3TIT 41-ctkir-pf

19

P.T.O.

56.

57.

Rehabilitation is an effort of : (1) Government Agencies

(2) Non - Government Agencies

(3) both (1) and (2)

(4) None of the above

National Trust Act came into effect from : (1) 1998

(3) 1997

(2) 1999

(4) 1996

58. The term normalization originated in : (1) Canada

(2) Japan

(3) Denmark

(4) None of the above

59. IEDC scheme was launched in : (1) 1970

(3) 1974

(2) 1972

(4) 1978

60. Role of the teacher in modern period is :

61.

(1) Analytic

(2) Associative

(3) both (1) and (2)

(4) None of the above

Persons with physically Handicapped are entitled age concession in job upto : (1) 40 years

(2) 45 years

(3) 30 years

(4) 35 years

62. CBR not only refers to Community Based Rehabilitation services but also includes :

63.

(1) Comniunity Based 'Twining

(2) Prevention

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) None of the above

NIEPMD is in : (1) Mumbai

MEDSE/2011

(2) Coimbatore (3) Chennai 20

(4) Kolkata

56.

(1) (3)

57.

t:

a-9--4i-Tr

-

,wct)R -71fFrt -I . (1) 3-t{ (2)

71171 -att-f 37i4fz114 (1) 1998

58.

Li t`ITTRIT

(2)

-4T-

(4)

--144

--)1 •-t•

.14 3111Tq 14 aTrzrr (2) 1999

4 4-11-1Qalkur a-;)

(1)

7-4F117:4

(3)

*6-4

1997

(4)

1996

t?

(2)

(4)

(3)

161

59. I.E.D.C. zfrif Ai 74 a 14 qjt∎ '4' 41a ? (1)

60.

3711 chIcsi (1) (3)

61.

63.

(2)

1972

(4)-.14,4 74

cioncivr «ifaciql (2)

91-w-# fwd 45 a

.th-A.317. t-49 T11374 31Tt1TfTd

(3)

(4)

q-1-11 (1) AT (2)

1j1:41

MEDSE/2011

1978

161

4411 dch frTPLTU t :

r frig 4gfi chkcIf t, (2)

(1)

(4)

(3) 30 73i

(1) 777 aTreirr r 5iNRITT

NIEPMD

1974

(2) zilsalcif

1•.11 (1) at (2)

40 a

(3)

T Tt:

f7T

rciqquilci-ict)

FEE (1)

62.

1970

(4) 35

7:ff TTf11 t :

,i1a1-2TT34 . 74 "")'1 -16

14 t (2)

al ai-aqt

(3)

21

(4)

chlrichicif

P.T.O.

64. Deno's Cascade system of Special Education Services have : (1) 5 levels

(3) 7 levels

(2) 6 levels

(4) 8 levels

65. Precision teaching follow the steps in monitoring students : (1) take baseline

(2) teach and test

(3) evaluation and graph

(4) all the above

66. "Education is the manifestation of divine perfection already existing in man" was stated by : (1) Swami Vivekananda

(2) Gandhi Ji

(3) Froebel

(4) Pestalozzi

67. Task analysis is a

in teaching.

(1) blueprint

(2) teaching method

(3) both (1) and (2)

(4) none of the above

68. SQ3R approach means : (1) Student, Question, Read, Recite, Review (2) Survey, Question, Read, Recite, Review (3) Sample, Question, Reaching, Recite, Review (4) None of the above

69. Computer Assisted Instruction (CAI) helps in learning to : (1) Children with Mental Retardation

(2) Children with Visual Impairment

(3) Children with Hearing Impairment

(4) All the above

70. The students with disabilities must be provided education in LRE, which means : (1) Least Rehabilitation Education

(2) Least Restrictive Environment

(3) Legislation Rehabilitation Education (4) None of the above

MEDSE/2011

22

64.

tides14 fa M fkrTUT .4cifs3-ff

s1-i1

(2) 6

(1) 5

(1)

3if qthiri '71T

(3)

4-111,4,-1 3

+i v+{-,

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66. "f4Tur,

(3)

(4) 8

7

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-o-rt

65. lirtr4M fq-mur

((IT 11711 t :

f

iT

(2)

ftIR-TT 74 LH'iaTT

(4)

31:14WE Trift

31f

4 74

(1) TEfrt fadc l÷q

(2)

(3) k1

(4)

°M14-111 t" f-*71k gRI c4 I TrZirt :

lieft

agrlauI t :

67.

(1) t-Olplzrf

(2) thaTui Treff

(3)

(1) 3f (2)

(4)

T1-

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(1) 1:0",

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1rF, 11-F-4-a

m, cr;444,4-r, tt1T, t1:17? tr-4-4 (4) *-1 .14

(3)

69. toy{ t-iv,icif 31-1k14 (TI1.7.371.) 1:111N4if 1-iqq cbof t :

(2)

(1)

(3)

70.

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t

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(1)

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fiii

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FQ-R

(4) 311-4W1 Tr*

I LRE t :

(2)

1,1

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if

(4) *-144 c6.1

23

P.T.O.

71. Public Law 94 - 142 is known as : (1)

Education for All Handicapped Children Act

(2)

Special Education Act

(3)

Mental Health Act

(4)

None of the above

72. Visual acuity can be measured on : (1) Nellen chart

(2) Snellen chart

(3) Sellen chart

(4) None of the above

73. ADHD is : (1)

Attention Deficit Hyperactive Disorder

(2)

Attention Deficit and Hyperactivity Disorder

(3)

Attention Deficit Disorder

(4)

None of the above

74. Programme Of Action (POA) came in : (1) 1990

(2) 1991

(3) 1992

(4) 1986

75. Resource room teaching is more useful for children with : (1) Visual Impairment

(2) Learning Disabilities

(3) Mental Retardation

(4) both (2) and (3)

MEDSE/2011

24

71.

94 - 142 3tfF1Tcf 14 ,s11•11 \RU t :

clo (1)

f(-7-1ff is

-A *r 9 f 31-TF

(2) 114-VM A4)qi-i tc-7-4

(3) (4)

72. 'SFr thvg-d-r Trrcrr (1)

ITT

(2)

1:479 mud. TR

741 Tr{

(4)

*-1 '14

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73. ADHD t : kid t1711 Ta ftTiaff-A7

(1)

74.

(2)

Air- Li, d

(3)

3T'd-- 79

(4)

Tiif '14

frq3411-{ -0

opcp-IT ?

-514+,iiii afilF -cr4q17 (POA) (1) 1990

75.

7-4-7 'fa '1'1 ftTl3litT

(2) 1991

(3) 1992

(4) 1986

kikilzT9 •.1fqR-TTIT rffq131:rzhill. t : (1)

•Iftz

(2)

(3)

4-111R-1ch

(4)

MEDSE/2011

25

mf r fs,

(ci e.1,4

(2) 3R (3) P.T.O.

PART - B SECTION - II DISABILITY SPECIALISATION (i) : MENTAL RETARDATION 76.

Mental Retardation is a : (1)

77.

78.

Disease

80.

81.

82.

(4) None of the above

Mental Retardation can be cured by : (1) Marriage

(2) Institutionalisation

(3) Admitting the child in school

(4) None of the above

One of the cause of Mental Retardation : (1) Karma

79.

(3) Illness

(2) Condition

(2) Jaundice (3) Attitude

(4) Ototoxity

Normalisation was first popularised by : (1) Sigmund Freud

(2) J. B. Watson

(3) Wolfensberger

(4) Maria Montessori

Down's syndrome is due to : (1) Heredity

(2) Chromosomal abnormality

(3) Pre - Maturity

(4) None of the above

Mental Retardation can be identified when the child is : (1) Around 2 years old

(2) Around 6 years old

(3) Around 12 years old

(4) Around 18 years old

Intelligence test

to identify a person with mental retardation.

(1)

Is the only criteria

(2)

Is one of the tool

(3)

Never helps

(4)

Is not reliable at all

MEDSE/2011

26

14PT —

taus - II aTaTirdt fag troil (i) : 4-111 76.

77.

qi-iNch 4-Kof t : (1)

trr

(2)

"FMr

(3)

4T{I•

(4)

374-1?[ 141

(2)

*211•4uf girl

(4)

ZE*F14

enli

(3)

111

41-1 rich Hoar E a1cn fakir (1)

"TFU- T

cb4

(2)

TrWfT

(4)

•qlf

cntuT t14Mig14 cl)ctati (char 1T T :

79. (1)

kl1 li•\S $t)T4M

(3)

(14-*Itsiiik gRI

fficrt-14

80.

RT

(2)

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iiimp-1-4 fq--*-17

t:

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(2)

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(4)

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t 371,1771

(1)

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td

(3)

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MEDSE/ 2011

clidfl-ft T11

(4)

(1)

81.

82.

t :

4-IN .-ict) 4-iqc-ii (1)

161

:

f447 girl

(3)

78.

n Hqcii

1 ,1Tal t

urtrwr 14

: (2)

6 74 t 317FM

(4)

18 'qti

4WcIlit 164 116 TIN-Tut

fgEdt

31ITFITR

t?lcl t I

(2)

111 3-ftT t

(4)

if

27

P.T.O.

83. IQ score that indicates mental retardation : (3) (2) Below 80 (1) Below 70

Below 90

(4)

Below 100 checklist

84. Functional Assessment Checklist for Programming (FACP) have into it : (4) (3) 8 (2) 5 (1) 3

7

85. The first step in programming is : (2) Setting goals (1) Assessment

Evaluation

86. Marriage among close relatives (1) Always (3) Never 87. (1) (2) (3) (4)

(2) (4)

(3)

Teaching skills

(4)

causes mental retardation. Sometimes None of the above

during pregnancy may cause mental retardation. Nutritional Deficiency Exposure to X - rays Attack of Rubella in the first trimester All of the above

88. One of the cause for mental retardation is : (1) RH blood incompatibility (2) Anemia (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Headache cause mental retardation : 89. Delayed birth cry will (1) Sometimes (2) Always (3) Never (4) None of the above 90. Vocational Training for persons with mental retardation can begin : (3) 6 years (4) 18 years (1) from birth (2) 3 years 91. The last step in learning process is : (1) Acquisition (2) Maintenance (3) Generalisation (4) None of the above

MEDSE/ 2011

28

83.

Hi-IN.* He

cm4 T 91

70 74

(1) 84.

r

80

(2)

tf

(3)

(4)

100 tf

.4

16m4e..

1:1'N

(2)

(3) 3TT

(4)

ti ld

(3) f7TWIT 17T7

(4)

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c6v 969-i-i -eT312114 174kui t : 31T cif

(1) 86. W{It

(2) 3-0zE ffftTiTuT -1794 -7Trt

4-11-1ftLIch

(1) t

Ti

iio614-c11 1 chitui

1-11Rdcficlf

(2)

(3) 312,17 ?drift

1.1,1-(4-A rcirchiuf

31.1{.7. 1-Wf 3T4Trfq

(2) 791-1 1:RE1

(3)

(1) 21T (2)

(4)

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1 :119f7TW (1)

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f'ff(q-

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(2)

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A ch) if

t:

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-t I

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4cI.1 f 31#TI14E (1)

85.

TifaT 7eRt :

(3)

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tI (4)

3IT 1 t

uftRivr

3 iiIrf 74

tic6al

31:14W1 14 "4 1

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(3)

6

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(114-11-60crwif

tilts

(4)

18 FiiCI

t: (2)

31

TUT

29

r,

(4) 3171-Ti -44

q, P.T.O.

92. The first step in introducing number concept is : (2) Matching (1) Labeling (4) Two - choice situation (3) Verbatizing 93. Young children should be trained in : (2) Home based setting (1) Centre based setting (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) Sheltered workshop 94.

Early Intervention improves (1) Intelligence (3) Language skills

of children with mental retardation. (2) Motor skills (4) All of the above

95. Operant conditioning method was developed by : (2) Skinner (3) Kohler (1) Pavlov 96.

(4) Piaget

Persons with mental retardation are good in : (2) Challenging jobs (1) Routine jobs (4) None of the above (3) Complicated jobs

97. The first step in implementing the programme using behavioural approach is : (2) Selecting the reinforcers (1) Defining the behaviour (4) Contract (3) Condition 98.

In India first systematic early intervention programme for poison with mental retardation was initiated in : (1) 1968 at Chennai (2) 1977 at Ahmedabad (3) 1986 at Hyderabad (4) 1989 at Trivendrum

99. The life span of persons with mental retardation is : (1) Relatively short (2) Very short (3) Relatively long (4) Same as that of others 100. When 'Time out' strategy is used, the child should be kept in : (1) A dark room (2) Isolation (3) Centre of the classroom (4) Out of the classroom

MEDSE/2011

30

92.

3 (1)

93.

yIcalu

34-111-1

97.

fg-1-- Tq -Effth.21fff

Itu1141(1

E

1-1171T -0qT

(4)

39-NTI

gRf (3)

.- ft07

(4)

fclzfT

(2)

-M T4

(4)

1p

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.1 (1) 721T

TT (2) 14

fa--*-R4 chtdi t I

(1)

(2)

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rachrwi cril 40. :

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t :

71-1VR-ITFTT 1-11.1R-ich 1:17

(1) 96.

f+-4 "qT

(4)

3711i1ft-a &i.-4T-2Tr

(3)

95.

4-101-11ci->uf (3)

(2)

cbtul

1;frqTfUd.

-iciTlch

(1)

94.

4 1:fritT4 ITO T 312,114 *IR t:

4 1 ci

(2)

(3)

ftzb7T

gRI

t:

HI1R-1.1, -4:fq

vii -r-41

(1)

r-iii4icr -1,413-V

(2)

-Vrt-

(3)

,Tire.c-f

(4)

3714ff 14 -A

cgolRicl-ich 6411144

t TAT

cbt 9hi-f 9r)qh-cigi

72iir tRur t :

(1)

oqavk f T LiroTrEri

(2)

(3)

#2,1t

(4) #1 -d7T

98. 1417U 14 HI-1RichTfq cqrch-Vii

fff4 721R

-139-4— d--

T -k911;1

14

(1) 1968,

1

1 ch149,14-1

(4) 1989, fq-

99. 1-111 tickTfq

cif

1. 14

:

(1) 314UTff

(2)

qp tth

'c

(4)

3-74 (-111-11.-i circtc1i)

314

`z-r--4-gr 31T-T' -nrci

loo. (1)

&1-) 34

(3)

-TVT -

MEDSE/ 2011

T

1211. :

(2) 1977, 3-7137-41q 14

(3) 1986, t7T-47

(3)

gIt1

f .51-tT1

r71N91 -91-ft-01 :

T

(2)

1:1b7 14

(4) 31

-T T4 *77T P.T.O.

PART - B SECTION - II (ii) : VISUAL IMPAIRMENT 101. In the human eye Macula is part of : (1) Lens (2) Cornea

(3) Sclera

(4) Retina

102. The ability to locate oneself in any environment is known as : (1) Daily living skill (2) Orientation (3) Sensory Training (4) Mobility 103. Pre - requisite skills can be imparted for the person with visual impairment from : (1) Adolescent period (2) Early days of childhood development (4) Late childhood period (3) Adulthood period 104. Braille mechanics is associated with : (1) Braille Reading (3) Reading Speed

(2) Braille Writing (4) Writing Speed

105. Three major limitations of visual impairment was given by : (1) Lal Advani (2) Louis Braille (4) Helen Keller (3) Berthold Lowenfeld 106. "DAISY" stands for : (1) Digital Automatic Information System (2) Digital Alternative Information System (3) Digital Accessible Information System (4) Digital Autonomous Information System 107. While teaching blind children, teacher should use : (1) 3 dimensional tactile teaching aid (2) 2 dimensional non - tactile teaching aid (3) Visual aid (4) None of the above 108. Louis Braille invented Braille script in : (1) 1781 (2) 1839

MEDSE/2011

(3) 1832

32

(4) 1921

WIT Wig - H (ii) : 101. HI-Icf

it

Ward-I

tf9T 1.171 t :

(1) c)-“ 1 102. ft it cildlcituf

(2) f'zi

ftir

(3) 1*- 1 T

TRITF7ff mta

df

(4)

t:

(1)

(2)

31IT21fff

(3)Ttk-1. -9-17R-T171

(4)

licinclf

3Trzfri--4a 1* --Tir lT

103. .si-tz-wfirff .44 ichvil fry 1-37,4fkiff (1) Tqwqr

(2)

(3) qzRzb7-4-4:21T

(4)

kichcif t :

T—LIT-4T-.2.11 fd-*-Ff t--qjairth k-11 '

t:

104. (1)

(4 -Taff 74

(2)

(3)

qd-r ft-dr tr

(4)

105. ftzqifird (1)

7114 *.1 4-moiaff

tf

aci itii :

rum 311-t-q-ruft

A

(2)

r10-i?nc-5

(3)

rf

(4)tvi•-it07 - A

106. 4 tit't:

107.

(1)

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isRie.(4

(3)

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(3)

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(1)

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(4)

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108.

MEDSE/2011

(2)

1839 14

(3) 1832 if

33

(4) 1921 14

P.T.O.

109. Screen Access for All (SAFA) can access : (2) 9 languages (1) 8 languages

(3) 10 languages

(4) 11 languages

110. Tactile diagrams used for individuals with visual impairment should be : (2) Simple and clear in shape (1) Motivating (4) All of the above

(3) Durable

111. Most persons with visual impairment have : (2) Learning difficulty (1) Communication difficulty (4) Mobility difficulty

(3) Memory difficulty

112. Training of listening skill of children with Visual Impairment include : (2) Sound discrimination (1) Sound localisation (3)

Sequencing the sound clues

(4)

All of the above

113. Trachoma is the cause of : (1)

Hearing Impairment

(2)

Visual Impairment

(3)

Autism

(4)

Cerebral Palsy

114. VAKT is : (1)

Multisensory approach

(2)

Unisensory approach

(3)

Writing technique

(4)

Reading technique

115. The configuration of dots for the letter 'W' in Braille is : (1)

2, 4, 5, 6

(2)

3, 4, 5, 6

(3)

1, 4, 5, 6

(4)

4, 5, 6

116. The ideal teacher - pupil ratio to teach children with visual impairment in special education set - up is : (1)

1 : 20

(2)

1:8

(3)

1 : 25

(4)

1 : 15

117. ADL of individuals with visual impairment does not include : (1)

Dressing

MEDSE/2011

(2) Cooking

(3) Toileting 34

(4) Singing

109.

fi-Th-T -crTt#E CO

(t-11411) .1714-10

8 9-T1-61T4

(2)

tictcii

9 'TITO

:

110. srvTiqu c.ir1974 gt(r TrzirFrff 1zT 37t7 (1) (3)

fa--*-T-

alfi--ichiW fitZ4Trtl7 o ►rctiLii (1)

.(-1

(3)

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(4)

11 `4717P4

(4)

4, 5, 6

: (2)

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TRTZ

(4)

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(2)

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t :

T1117=EIT

NAT

(4)

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10 17151T4

(3)

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:

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(2) tqfi f41)

(3) t4fff 74-qITT sto-i014 (=KOJI

(4) 3crtfT1 1:14#

-{111

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(2)

qUT

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(4) TITt7113351717411717

(3) *L-iril-R-11

114. t.7.t..t. ( VAKT ) t (2) to)clii

(1) WO:ftt d`11414 ctcb-11m1 (3)

(4)

115. c)c-1-143 (1)

31UT 'W' tf 2, 4, 5, 6 (2)

116. fq'ATI fqTATT (1) 1:2;1 117. fliCr-41f*Tff (1) cR-ilefr(uf

MEDSE/ 2011

1T t : 3, 4, 5, 6

iT 14 OZ-4TitTd -ccif (2)

Lidi aim-nchl

(3)

1, 4, 5, 6

fff-4 31TO f4MTW-gof 31-TiTu t

1:8

(3)

fibit4 .H1I4-{icid (2) tg1-11G1-11-11

(3)

35

1 : 25

(4)

1 : 15

(4)

Th—lIFT

t: 171:ET

P.T.O.

118. Which of the following is not the method of teaching Braille to individuals with visual impairment ? (2) Word Method (1) Letter Method (4) Lecture Method (3) Multi Method 119. According to PWD Act, 1995; in a blind person limitation of the field of vision substends an angle of : (2) 30 degree or worse (1) 35 degree or worse (4) 20 degree or worse (3) 25 degree or worse 120. Which of the following is not the principle of curriculum adaptation ? (3) Modification (4) Substitution (1) Duplication (2) Proportion 121. In integrated education programme children with visual impairment need : (1) The same curriculum meant for sighted (2) Special curriculum followed in special schools (3) Same curriculum with modified approach (4) A different curriculum 122. Direct service by a Resource Teacher to children with visual impairment is : (1) Sensory Training (2) Technical assistance to the regular teacher (3) Preparation of learning material (4) None of the above 123. Squaring off is a technique of : (1) Orientation and Mobility (3) Dressing

(2) Braille. reading (4) Sensory Training

124. Which of the following is not the form of Manneristic Behaviour in persons with visual impairment ? (2) Nail biting (1) Face Contortion (4) Reading Braille (3) Tongue Wagging 125. Children with Low vision would require : (1) Magnifier (2) Braille (3) Tactile geometry kit (4) Abacus

MEDSE/2011

36

fii-ur4

118. Fil-iirchd 14 74 ct) -17:ft RAT Iftz---4rfgu (1) 3T417 PIN (3)

f

dqT,tcr

(2) qic.q FIN (4)

ci§ raRT

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119. fi:q14-cicil 59 3f4r9-414, 1995 ;* 31-1737, ikm 3-TAT &frfqiill (1) 35 3# 7 T(114 -1:F

(2) 30 347T TIT WA "wri

(3) 25 347T 7 W#

(4) 20 317T 7 7:174

(1) fguiTF

(3) (1-cRuf

(2) 31-11:1171-*-77

sto-i7FlarTfil-ff 04-acif t c 3-1TqFTW

121. 7•- •-1fff fWaTT (1)

rzaTi'qQ' d4411'41d

(2)

-Wm ravoq okt

(3)

(c\Lii-ciRci

(4)

ri ,i2TT

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t:

4) -177 Luckistoi

120. r-i4-iirchcf

t:

(4) P-TRTTT

t:

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*7:1F2T

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122. *1149 fqTVWSRIfz---4Tf%rd

corn Mc W (4cif t : (2) I:14-1d ft4A1T

(1) 1,0-1(3) alftMrf 77TLit

fiqiuT

(4) ZEINTT 74 74

123. TEIVIT 3TTEF dcbl en t : (1)

31-P2Ifff

(3)

a 1 en till

(2)

m1 bujC11

err 4(3-1

(4)Itat irq1U0-1

124. 71-V-41•Fetff Wcwil 1:1+-iiichcr ti ct, -I TIT 3-17:EfriilfdT oicmt ITT Uch1( 161 t : (3) 125. 31. :r

(2)

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(1) `I.T I

(4)

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MEDSE/ 2011

t: (2) ci

(1) 31-ra4-

(3) Tcrell

-9F5ri cbld-11 49" 4q-if

icne.

(4) 31*-*-77 37

P.T.O.

PART - B SECTION - II (iii) : HEARING IMPAIRMENT All Questions are compulsory. Each question carries one mark.

126. Good observation, Development of gross and fine motor skills. Development of pattern • perception,Good eye - hand coordination are some prerequisites of : (1) Language

(3) Writing

(2) Speech

(4) Reading

127. Tympanic membrane is the part of : (1) Inner ear

(2) Middle ear

(3) Outer ear

(4) Auditory canal

128. We hear sounds ranging from : (1) 20 Hz to 2,000 Hz

(2) 200 Hz to 20,000 Hz

(3) 200 Hz to 2,000 Hz

(4) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz

129. The psychological attribute bute for frequency is : (1) Pitch

(2) Intensity

(3) Loudness

(4) Timbre

130. Atresia Causes : (1) Mixed hearing loss

(2) Conductive hearing loss

(3) Sensori - neural hearing loss

(4) Genetic hearing loss

131. Primary, secondary and tertiary prevention are three levels of prevention mentioned in document published in 1980 by : (1) UNICEF

(2) PWD ACT

(3) WHO

(4) None of the above

MEDSE/2011

38

- II (iii) : &qui' warm fq4 Tr4

Trift-sra.aTrwarzm

126. 3T 1-i4vur, j X11-1Ts.14 7:rif7W r tool flTr{i, -4E4 Q11 T fa-*-Rct, 3iitt T?T 3T1477-*--dT t : (1)

441711

(2)

.411111

(3) "F

,t14-1-aq

(4) I&-f

127. idqr-ich 44-1.=)-1 WTI 91ITT t : (2) Tivsf

(1) iftat

(3)

128. V:17,1

(1)

(4)

T-6ft

111JT

4.1%ff 'rut

Oft -4Tt : 20 Hz *1 2,000 Hz

(2) 200 Hz -4 20,000 Hz

(3) 200 Hz -# 2,000 Hz

129. TM" ciltci I td

(4) 20 Hz tf 20,000 Hz

1-1-1R01111 1itrI t :

(1) k-c1.0-11•

(2) tqUT

130. 3117-4{T Tff &MT

(3) d'ultif

(2)

(3) TOtcfT i111171

(4) \s1-1F-Ichal-1TM

41TuT 131. 1980 * -ft-ffk 711.47 31717 f9-

(3)

n7.31).

MEDSE/2011

-FTIR

t:

(1) riiku

(1) 11714T (UNICEF)

(4)

-clicichl

-RfT

0117I

t, 11-0, Te{

tTRT fTdMIT I

(2) PWD ACT (4)

39

.-1 44

P.T.O.

132. Estimated number of disabled persons in India as per NSSO, 2002, is : (1) 3.1 million

(2) 10 million

(3) 18.49 million

(4) 2.1 million

133. Press by cusis is a sensori - neural loss caused by : (1) Hereditary

(2) Degenerative changes of aging

(3) Infection

(4) Drugs

134. Early intervention includes : (1) Auditory fitness

(2) Rehabilitation planning

(3) Monitoring of hearing status

(4) All the above

135. Pure - Tone Audiometry is : (1) Informal hearing test (2) Fonnal subjective hearing test (3) Formal objective hearing test (4) None of the above

136. When air conduction threshold, levels are abnormal but bone conduction threshold levels are normal then it is said to be : (1) Conductive hearing loss

(2) Mixed hearing loss

(3) Sensorineural hearing loss

(4) Normal hearing

137. Hearing loss of 56 dB to 70 dB denotes : (1) Moderate hearing impairment (2) Severe hearing impairment (3) Moderately severe hearing impairment (4) Profound hearing impairment

MEDSE/2011

40

132. 79..71..311 2002

337 9.11T1 14 31-j1=11f1ff 3-171t

(1) 3.1 •4T

133.

-11'Gicilk-R-1

(2) 10 TqT4.1

Trqt

4:RY11 :

(3) 18.49 Tql- .T

cbituf

(4) 2.1 ?,'W-eiki

adi t :

(1) 3E-1-4-r-ww-d-r

(2)

sis 3T4T-2TT 14 3TEW3i-

(3) 491114-N1

(4)

qqieli

(1) 5PDT 4TrIT

(2)

Tjgr{ ,411 st-01

TduT ft-eifff

(4)

-674-WE TIA-

134. ON T71.04 .14

(3)

Trfrif— d-a t :

135. 10
t:

(1)

3T-11-ErArftw

(2)

474rft 3Trmr9-Ea 5p-rir lk.Tur

(3)

4TM- Ti-c *FF1145F-401

(4)

-crft?pr

tf

3-1.0-U14

136. 7-4

-1C1Q`f 3r4T2ral TAT 3lTITICIP4

(1) 14100h 4 turdT (3)

Ti

-7 tuRiT

137. 56 dB tf 70 dB

5f-4T 8,11uTM

(1) 341-g-ff 5ffur turd! (3)

(cis -I

.3-11-TRT tfTf9i1TTITTI *TM

MEDSE/2011

old t-CR 31#4

Sift- TTR

(2) fz:rfq.0 turaT (4)

kii 4-11-4

••zqiit : (2)

7T4T.s3rqUr tuTUT

(4) plzT 'aqui kfturdT

41

P.T.O.

138. Rinne's Test is one of the test used in (1) Pure Tone Audiometry

(2) Tuning Fork test

(3) Impedance Audiometry

(4) Speech Audiometry

139. Concha is the Type of hearing aid under the category of : (1) Body level hearing aid

(2) Behind the ear hearing aid

(3) In the ear hearing aid

(4) Spectacle hearing aid

140. The best mould used for body level hearing aid is : (1) Skeleton type

(2) Semi - Skeleton

(3) Shell type

(4) Half - Shell type

141. The speech banana is an area of an audiogram that covers. (1)

the frequencies of all vowels, sounds, as well as the intensities within which they can be heard by person having normal hearing sensitivity.

(2)

the frequencies of all vowel and consonant sounds with the intensities within which can be heard by person having normal hearing.

(3)

the frequencies of all consonant sounds, as well as the intensities within which they can be heard by person having normal hearing sensitivity.

(4)

the frequencies of all vowel and consonant sound.

142. The records, related to the audiogram and the hearing aids of the child with hearing impairment should be maintained by : (1) Resource Teacher

(2) Itinerant Teacher

(3) Class Teacher

(4) All the above

143. The type of the group hearing aid used is as option : (1) FM system

(2) Infrared system

(3) Loop Induction system

(4) All the above

MEDSE/2011

42

138. ft-i't q•ifF-Tuf -14 if Qsch II

TU1 -TT i-TFT

:

(1) (3)

9-ftriq1q1 f'&1-ci1121711

139. 51d-uT Traq

140.

f zl1

0111-1--k W1-#1 51-417 zi7

0+114

1,4114-11

q.fT

(2)

.

0111-1t

(4)

1:1WCit 1

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: (2)

3101-a64711

(4)

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(-11:11-1G1111) -4tt:

*Trift 'Tat fi- *La2T-Trrq r -F7T1-4 fat) tl

47114-11- css,-1 - 4 *LA-14

Trt2T-Tim- thvdT f4-44-4

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t r (3)

(2)

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(3)

(3)

141.

Bch 51-*-7

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(1)

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(2)

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t-14

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mtrur IT -afTi ItI

chl TqT chol t

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timif

oi-11-44

q.-14

wr-di clic;-74f-0 gRT

t, 14, t;i111tc-11 -OW-4T onkoi t Tq..4 -ff2IT

(4)

142. WI •E'TifW•

.511 31 - 11 2,TINquI Tiq TiciFerd.

4,t

(1) 7:1-ffrg9 PRTT

(2) fqt7 fgr

(3) 7TVTV

(4) 3-71* - E Tit

t:

143. lily 51-471TraTi 5Icb1t TraTT T face r : -

(1) (3)

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(114 1 7TT14*-c1Ikul WITTA.

MEDSE/2011

(2)

3-Tqc4Ti 71-11T

(4) 394-0 T`ift

43

P.T.O.

144. Voice, articulation , Rhythm are : (1)

Parameters of speech

(2)

Functions of speech

(3)

Characteristics of speech

(4)

All the above

145. Larynx is involved in : (1)

Breathing

(2)

Fixation of the chest cavity

(3)

Production of sound

(4)

All the above

146. The Broca's Area is an area responsible for motor speech located : on the side of the frontal lobe of the left cerebral hemisphere in the temporal lobe of the left cerebral hemisphere occipital lobe Parental lobe

147. This is an important point of contact by the tongue for sounds such as /t/in ten,/ d/ in dog, /n/ in nose : (1) Mandible

(2) Teeth

(3) Palate

(4) Alveolar

148. Manner of Articulation of consonants f, v, s, z, J, h is (1) Flap

(2) Affricate

(3) Fricative

(4) Lateral

149. No single method of education or one mode of communication can be followed with all children with deaf and hard of hearing due to : (1) Homogeneity

(2) Heterogeneity

(3) Scattered population

(4) All the above

150. The first school for the deaf was started in 1885 - 86 at : (1) Chennai MEDSE/2011

(2) Mumbai

(3) Calcutta 44

(4) Delhi

6=1101, clIci

144. (1)

al

(3)

31"-- 'Mt

:

=TTf

(2)

k-11-1

(2)

(3)

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(4)

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(1)

146.

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(4)

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t cbI4

145.

t

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(1)

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(2)

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(3)

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(4)

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147. /t/ d4-11d( /d/ 84184-i, /n/ -1Ich (1)

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148. f, v, s, z, f, (1)

(2)

21-At

3cTf

(1)

MEDSE/2011

t

(3)

dm

(4)

q—:f

TErTql

(4)

t4IN4ch

TItEfuT TIRzrzT

(2)

(3) fq-Ut A-RLitsql

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t:

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150. •qftu

(3)

.ch WITT01. z11

149. Tt:It cteltuf f7TVT ITT TrTt : (1)

qici

Tifq-zh-49 (2)

TT-6 1:fui

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(4) 31:1Wf

1885 - 86 if TO17P T2.111:FT zre (2)

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P.T.O.

PART - B SECTION - II (iv) : LEARNING DISABILITY 151. Hearing Disability with Mathematics is called : (1) Dysgraphia

(2) Dyscalculia

(3) Dyslexia

(4) None of the above

152. Characteristics identified as being widely prevalent in individuals with learning Disability are : (1)

Hyperactivity

(2)

Perceptual impairment

(3)

Disorders of memory and thinking

(4)

All of the above

153. Which of the following is not a part of Auditory Perceptual Deficits in LD ? (1) Auditory Discrimination

(2) Auditory Blending

(3) Auditory Memory

(4) Auditory Assimilation

154. Which of the following is not a part of Motor Deficiencies in LD ? (1) Gross Motor Skills

(2) Laterality

(3) Fine Motor Skills

(4) Directionality

155. Which of the following are seen in Dyslexic readers ? (1) Omissions

(2) Additions and Insertions

(3) Second Blending

(4) All of the above

156. Five stages of ready development includes all but one of the following : (1) Pre reading skills

(2) Rapid development of reading skills

(3) Refinement

(4) Narrow reading

MEDSE/ 2011

46

1.1PT - II (iv)

3TRPT1 aiaTirdT T,T7Tif t :

151. Tlfurff

5 -1,11 (-it

(1)

ct\LV-11

(3)

152. 3TRTITLE 3-1UI:fff aic rile 14 .1

(1)

: aftprrt 31VriaT

31-1 -- 1 -wzrai

(2)

f st (11-V111

(4)

-3-Erzlwr if

-ErR At4 aK4 7kTuTt : (2)

(3) Tifff 3T'lz fqqr-{ t1 i

fq-frff

(3)

154. alftinTr aivwdr (1) (3)

'TT WTI

fffP114

(4) WiTT

ci-f TIT

ITT ITT

1--ftlTd Alta,

:

T17T

(4)

cht-I1

t:

-1■ 11(4 1 TT -4-7r9 (2) iftff1=65

155. fffP1 -14

156.

3

(2) 77TT 311474 WT 3i0 711171 1TRT

TINT

la-iT7' zfrq

TrirOT -14 chi-1

(4) 311-4Wf Zit

153. 3Tf9TTli 31VirdT 14 f51;:i tf 41-1 Th. TiT7

(1) 139-T7 fdll'q chtil

4T1 -161

-t• W Tf TT 77411 (Laterality)

q1W1-1

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(2) Qs T AT we 4)- Q-4

(3)

Tztaici W-11 (*if

(4) 31171WITTIft

fq-TITE

Lik -ci(1-11 14 fii 4-ifrir(5c1

U)7T7 744ft

(1) TO-1

(2) 4d-f VR1-

(3)4f ttct,it

(4)

MEDSE/2011

47

T-0'

moils

T

:

ft-d f-4T-F1

3lif7TT 46-1 (Narrow reading)

P.T.O.

1.57. Which comorbidity is generally associated with learning disability ? (1) Depression

(2) Schizophrenia

(3) ADHD

(4) None of the above

158. Which of these is considered to be the most important index for testing LD ? (1) IQ

(2) EQ

(3) PQ

(4) All of the above

159. For an MR child, the IQ range is (1) Above Average

(2) Below Average

(3) Average

(4) Has nothing to do with IQ

160. Dyspraxia is a condition related to (1) Reading only

(2) Writing only

(3) Reading and Writing both (4) Fine Motor Skills

161. A child with LD well reflect a (1) Below Average IQ

(2) High language IQ

(3) All of the above

(4) None of the above

162. LD is a dysfunction of : (1) CNS

(2) PNS

(3) All of the above (4) None of the above

163. An 'IEP' stands for : (1)

Intelligence Educational Plan

(2)

Individual Emotional Plan

(3)

Individual Education Plan

(4)

None of the above

MEDSE/2011

48

157. 114 111

3TFIPP:f WIRT (

eft-MO

TITZT

(1) 3r4T-17 (fgrWF)

(2)

falrqTqaTeFai

(3) 3Trff

(4)

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(1)

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(4) 3111-4?1 -4 A *I•till 71-41

162. Rat. (LD)•cri-il (1)

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MEDSE; 2011

(2)

q ctoct) 14151-416T2+5 turil

(4) 374-4i1 14 "Ift 1

49

P.T.O.

164. Children with LD generally have : (2) Low self esteem

(1) High self esteem

(3) Nothing to do with self esteem (4) None of the above

165. One of the devices used for remembering and retrieving information is : (3) Mnemonic

(1) Phonetics (2) Semantics

(4) Problem Solving

166. Tick the correct order : (1)

Remediation - Assessment - School referral

(2)

Assessment - School referral - Remediation

(3)

Remediation - School referral - Assessment

(4)

School Referral - Assessment - Remediation

167. Which of these is not a provision given by CBSE to LD students ? (1)

Permission to script writer

(2)

Four hours instead of three hours

(3)

Permission to drop second language

(4)

All of the above

168. Psychological Assessment is the process by which a psychologist observes and evaluates ? (1)

Child's functioning

(2)

Social factors that appear to maintain the problems

(3)

What therapy is best suited for the child

(4)

All of the above

169. Which of the following is a prerequisite for diagnosis of LD ? (1) Normal IQ

(2) Borderline IQ

(3) Below Average IQ

(4) None of the above

MEDSE/ 2011

50

tc\q 14 41111 Am( t

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.qT4 t :

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51

t c1,1

-0

P.T.O.

170. Which of the following is a part of NIMHANS Index of specific learning disabilities ? (1) Attention test

(2) Language test

(3) Visual - Motor Skills

(4) All of the above

171. A student with learning disability will show : (1) Academic discrepancies

(2) Short attention span

(3) Socio - emotional problems (4) All of the above

172. Which of the following is not a standardized reading test ? (1) Woodcock reading mastery test (2) Gray oral reading test (3) Durrell analysis of reading difficulty (4) Cattels Retentivity Test

173. Which of the following is not known to be linked with occurrences of LD ? (1) Genetic Factors

(2) Environmental Deprivation

(3) Head Injury

(4) Mental retardation

174. Which of the following does not have a sub test which measures performance in spellings ? (1) WRAT

(2) PIAT

(3) TOWS

(4) TOWL

175. Which of the following is not a part of KOSC'S categories of dyscalculia ? (1) Verbal dyscalculia

(2) Pragmatic dyscalculia

(3) Lexical dyscalculia

(4) Graphical dyscalculia

-o0oMEDSE/ 2011

52

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MEDSE/2011

53

P.T.O.