www.tlm4all.com Tenth Class
Bit Bank
Physical Science
1. Heat Multiple choice questions 1. Which of the following is a warming process? A) Evaporation B) Condensation C) Boiling
[
]
2. Three bodies A, B and C are in thermal equilibrium. The temperature of B is 450C. Then the temperature of C is ______________ [ 0 0 0 B) 50 C C) 40 C D) Any tempterature A) 45 C
]
3. The temperature of a steel rod is 330 K. Its temperature in 0C is ______ A) 550C B) 570C C) 590C D) 530C
[
]
4. Specific heat S = __________ A) B) Q∆T ∆
[
]
[
]
[
]
[
]
[
]
[
]
C)
∆
D) All the above
D)
∆
5. When ice melts, its temperature is ___________ A) Remains constant B) Increases C) Decreases
D) Cannot say
6. Which of the following is a cooling process ? A) Evaporation B) Condensation
C) Boiling
D) All the above
7. C.G.S. unit of specific heat is _________ A) J/kg – k B) J/g – k
C) cal/g – oC
D) Cal/kg – oC
8. “Store Houses” for the earth areA) Animals B) Forests
C) Hills
D) Oceans
9. Boiling point of water at normal atmospheric pressure is _________ B) 100oC C) 110oC A) 0oC
o
D) -5 C
10. Rate of evaporation of a liquid depends on itsA) Surface area B) Temperature C) Amount of water vapour
[ D) All the above
]
11. Rate of evaporation depends on ___________, ______________, ___________. [ A) Evopration, condemsation, dew B) Surface Area,Humidity, Temperature C) Melting, boiling, Humidity D) None of these
]
12. ‘Q’ is heat energy, ‘S’ is specific Heat ‘∆T’ is the temperature difference, ‘m’ is the Mass of the substance than Q = _________ A) ms ∆T B) ∆ C) ∆ D) ∆
[
]
13. The specific heat(s) of a substance depends on its_____________ A) Temperature B) Mass C) Nature
[
]
D) All the above
14. Which of the following which has more specific heat? A) Kerosene oil B) Iron C) Copper
[
]
D) Water
15. Which of the following determines the direction of heat flow. A) Thermometer B) Temperature C) Specific heat
[
]
D) Latent Heat [
]
17. Melting is a process in which solid phase changes to ________________ A) Liquid phase B) Liquid phase at constant temperature C) Gaseous phase D) Any phase
[
]
18. Conservation of steam into liquid is called ________ A) Sublimation B) Boiling C) Evoparatin
[
]
16. What happens to the temperature during evaporation? A) Falls B) Rise C) Constant
D) Not linear
D) Condensation
Prepared by :- Gali Sreekar M.Sc, M.Sc, B.Ed Chirala mandal, Prakasam.
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Physical Science
19. C.G.S. unit of latent heat of vaporization is ____________ A) J/kg B) J – kg C) Cal/g
[
]
20. The water droplets condensed on cold surfaces is called _______________ A) Dew B) Fog C) Humidity D) Condensation
[
]
21. When ice melts, it’s temperature is ___________________ A) Remains constant B) Increases C) Decreases
[
]
[
]
23. The temperature of a steel rod is 330k. Its temperature in 0oC is ________ B) 570C C) 590C D) 530C A) 550C
[
]
24. 1 Calorie = ________ joule. A) 4.82 B) 4.18
[
]
[
]
[
]
[
]
28. The process of converting solid into a liquid is called ___________ [ A) Melting B) Boiling C) Freezing D) None of the above
]
29. During the process conversion from liquid to solid, the internal energy of water is ___ [ A) Remains constant B) Increases C) Decreases D) None of the above
]
30. The temperature of a steel rod is 330K. Its temperature ºC is ________ B) 560C C) 580C D) 590C A) 570C
[
]
31. Melting is a process in which solid phase changes to_________ A) Liquid phase B) Liquid phase at constant temperature C) Gaseous phase D) Any phase
[
]
[
]
33. What would be the final temperature of a mixture of 60 g of water at 40oC temperature and 60 g of water at 80oC temperature? [ o o o o A) 70 C B) 50 C C) 60 C D) 65 C
]
22. The value of Latent heat of fusion of ice is _________ A) 80 cal/gm B) 80j – k/gm C) 80 j/kg
D) Cal – kg
D) Cannot say
D) 100 cal /gm
C) 4.28
25. Which of the following is a warm process? A) Evaporation B) Condensation
C) Cooling
26. Boiling point of water at 1 atm is ________________ A) 100K B) 2730C C) 3073K
D) 4.326
D) All the above
D) 373 K
27. Which of the following is increase when heat energy supplied to the ice? A) Temperature B) Volume C) Internal energy D) All the above
32. How much energy is transferred when 1gm of boiling water at 100oC condenses to water a 100oC? A) 540 Cal B) 80 Cal C) 60 Cal D) 720 Cal
34. If there is a thermal equilibrium between two bodies, then________ A) Two bodies have different temperatures. B) Two bodies have same temperatures C) The masses of two bodies are equal D) The volume of two bodies are equal
[
]
35. 1 cal/g- oC = ___________________ A)1kcal /kg B) 1cal /kg-K
[
]
[
]
[
]
C) 1 kcal /K
D) 1 kcal /kg-K
36. Which of the following is a surface phenomenon? A) Evaporation B) Condensation C) Freezing
D) Melting
37. Latent heat of fusion of ice is ________________cal/ gm. A) 80 B) 100 C) 500
D) 540
Prepared by :- Gali Sreekar M.Sc, M.Sc, B.Ed Chirala mandal, Prakasam.
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Physical Science
38. Latent heat of vaporization of water is _________________ cal/ gm. A) 80 B) 100 C) 500 D) 540
[
]
39. Boiling point of water is ____________ A) 273 K B) 373 K
[
]
40. The amount of water vapour present in air is called ____________ A) Humidity B) Fog C) Dew D) Latent heat
[
]
41. Which of the following is used as a coolant ____________ A) Air B) Ice C) Water
[
]
[
]
[
]
[
]
[
]
[
]
[
]
[
]
[
]
50. The heat energy used to change the state of water from liquid to vapour is called_____ [ A) Latent heat of vapourisation B) Boiling point C) Latent heat of ice D) Freezing point
]
51. Which of the following is a form of energy? A) Heat B) Temperature
[ D) Condensation
]
52. _____________ is the energy that flows from a hotter to a colder body. A) Heat B) Temperature C) Thermal equilibrium
[ D) Condensation
]
53. Which of the following has greater specific heat values? A) Kerosene B) Oil C) Water
D) Diesel
54. Condensation is the reverse process of _______________ A) Evaporation B) Boiling C) Heating
D) All
C) 100 K
D) 0 K
D) Kerosene
42. Specific heat of ice is____________ A) 1 Cal/g-°C B) 0.21 Cal/g-°C
C) 0.12 Cal/g-°C
D) 0.5 Cal/g-°C
43. SI unit of temperature is____________ A) Celsius B) Kelvin
C) Fahrenheit
D) Calorie
44. 0°C = _____________ K A) 273 B) 0
C) 100
D) 80
45. Which of the following has greater specific heat____________ A) Ice B) Kerosene C) Water
D) Brass
46. 1 Calories = ____________ Joules. A) 4.2 B) 4.5
D) 4
C) 4.186
47. SI unit of specific heat is ____________ A) J/Kg-K B) Cal/g-°C
C) Joule
48. The SI unit of heat is ____________ A) Calorie B) Joule
C) erg
49. The phase change from gas to liquid is called ____________ A) Freezing B) Boiling C) Melting
D) erg
D) Watt
D) Condensation
C) Thermal equilibrium
55. When heat energy enters, our body we get a feeling of ___________ A) Hotness B) Coldness C) Remains same
D) All
56. The bodies possess _____________when they are in motion. A) Kinetic energy B) Potential energy C) Both A and B
D) None
57. Which of the following behave like heat store houses for the earth? A) Rivers B) Oceans C) Ponds
Prepared by :- Gali Sreekar M.Sc, M.Sc, B.Ed Chirala mandal, Prakasam.
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[
]
[
]
[
]
[
]
[
]
D) All
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58. The thick mist is called____________ A) Vaporization B) Fusion
Physical Science [
C) Dew
]
D) Fog
59. On freezing volume of the water _______________ A) Increases B) Decreases C) Remains same
[ D) None of these
]
60. Which of the following is a unit of temperature? B) Celsius C) Both A and B A) Kelvin
[ D) None of these
]
Multiple Choice Questions:1. B 2. A 3. B
4. C
5. A
6. A
7. C
8. D
9. B
10. D
11. B 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. D 19. C 20. A
21. A 22. A 23. B 24. B 25. B 26. D 27. A 28. A 29. C 30. A
31. B 32. B 33. C 34. B 35. D 36. A 37. A 38. D 39. B 40. A
41. C 42. D 43. B 44. A 45. C 46. C 47. A 48. B 49. D 50. A
51. A 52. A 53. C 54. A 55. A 56. A 57. B 58. D
59. A 60. C
Prepared by :- Gali Sreekar M.Sc, M.Sc, B.Ed Chirala mandal, Prakasam.
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Physical Science
2. Chemical Reactions and Equations Objective type questions 1. Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2 Fe. This reaction is an example of_____________ A) Combination reaction B) Decomposition reaction C) Displacement reaction D) Double decomposition reaction
[ C ]
2. What happens when dil. HCl is added to iron filings? Choose the correct answer? [ A ] A) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced. B) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced. C) No reaction takes place. D) Iron salt and water are produced. 3. 2 PbO(s) + C (s)→ 2Pb(s) + CO2 (g) Which of the following statements are correct for the above chemical reaction? A) Lead is reduced B) Carbon dioxide is oxidized C) Carbon is oxidized D) Lead oxide is reduced.
[
B ]
4. The chemical equation BaCl2 + Na2SO4→ BaSO4 + 2NaCl represents following type of chemical reaction. [ D ] A) Displacement B) combination C) decomposition D) double-displacement 5. The reaction of formation hydrogen chloride from hydrogen and chloride represents following type of chemical reaction [ C ] A) decomposition B) displacement C) combination D) double-displacement 6. Balance C3H8 + O2 → CO2 + H2O chemical equation, the coefficient of oxygen (O2) is __ [ A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
C ]
7. Choose the chemical combination reaction? A) Extraction of metal B) Electrolysis. C) Burning of metals D) Addition of more active metal to a solution of less active metal compound.
[
C ]
8. Zn + 2HCl → ____ + H2 ↑ A) ZnCl B) ZnCl2
[ B
]
[ B D) Double displacement
]
C) ZnH
9. Which one of the following change is not oxidation? A) Combination B) Corrosion C) Rancidity 10. Which of this is a chemical reaction? A) Coal is burnt B) Crackers are burnt
D) Cl2
[ D ] C) Milk is converted into curd D) All the above
11. Which of the following process does not produce decomposition reaction? A) Electrolysis B) Distillation C) Exposure to light D) Thermal.
[ B
]
12. On heating copper powder in air, the surface of copper becomes black. It is _______ A) Combination reaction B) Decomposition reaction C) Dissociation reaction D) Displacement reaction
[ A ]
13. Corrosion can be prevented by? 1) Painting 2) oiling 3) Greasing 4) galvanizing A) 1 B) 1&2 C) 1, 2&3 D) 1, 2, 3&4
[ D
14. Choose double displacement reaction. A) X +YZ → XY +Z B) X + Y → XY C) XYZ → YZX
[ D ]
]
D) XY + AB → XA +YB
15. When copper vessels are kept over a period of time, these coated with a green surface. [ D ] This is due to _____________ (i) Oxidation of copper (ii) Corrosion of copper (iii) Reduction of copper (iv) hydrolysis of copper A) (i) and (iii) B) (ii) and (iii) C) (ii) and (iv) D) (i) and (ii) 16. Identify the redox reaction from among the following reactions A) PbCl2 + H2SO4 → PbSO4 + 2HCl B) AgNO3 + HCl → AgCl +HNO3 C) Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 +2Fe D) NH3 +HCl → NH4Cl. Prepared by :- Gali Sreekar M.Sc, M.Sc, B.Ed Chirala mandal, Prakasam.
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[ C ]
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17. The chemical formula of marble is________________ A) ZnCO3 B) CaCO3 C) KCl
Physical Science [ B
]
18. When sodium sulphate (Na2 SO4) solution mixed with barium chloride (BaCl2) solution barium sulphate precipitate formed. What is the color of this precipitate? [ B A) Yellow B) white C) Blue D) Black
]
D) NaCl
19. What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron filings? A) Hydrogen gas and Iron chloride are produced B) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced C) No reaction takes place D) Iron salt and water are produced.
[ A
]
20. Which is the good preservative of food? A) Cuso4 B) BaCl
[ C ] C) Vitamin C and E D) vitamin A
21. The symbol of precipitate reactions are _______________ A) ↑ B) ↓ C)→
[ B
]
D) ⇒
22. Light yellow coloured silver bromide exposed to sunlight, yellow colour changes to____ [ C ] A) White B) Black C) Gray D) Red 23. The color of copper oxide ( Cuo ) is? A) Blue B) Light red
[ D ] C) Bluish green
24. In a chemical reaction ‘∆’ represents ___________ A) Heating B) Exothermic C) Precipitate
D) Black [ A ] D) Endothermic
25. Chemical changes may be_________________ A) Exothermic B) Endothermic C) Both A and B
[ C ] D) None
26. All the decomposition reactions are ___________ A) Exothermic B) Endothermic C) Both A and B
D) None of these
27. Metal oxide is electric_____________ A) Conductor B) good conductor
C) Semi conductor
D) insulator
28. Na2SO4 + BaCl2 → _________+ 2 NaCl A) BaO B)Ba(OH)2
C) BaCl2
D) BaSO4
[ B
]
[ D ]
[ D
]
29. Which enzyme is caused for the change the color on the cut surface of the fruits like apples, pears, bananas, potatoes etc? [ D ] A) Inverts B) Zymase C) Glycerol D) Tyrosinase 30. ____________is a very good method of improving properties of metal. A) Galvanizing B) Alloying C) Painting D) Oxydation
[ B
31. Which of the following is not an alloy? A) Brass B) Bronze
[ D ] C) Steel
D) Iron
32. Rusting does not occur in ___________free water or ____________ A) Oxygen, dry air B) Nitrogen, dry air C) Oxygen, polluted air 33. Metals + Acid → ______________ A) Hydrochloride B) Hydrogen
]
[ A ] D) None of these [ B
]
34. In a chemical equation the molecular masses are expressed in __________ A) Molar mass B) Unified Masses(U) C) Milli gms D) Micro grams
[ B
]
35. Iron is mixed with carbon, nickel and chromium to get an alloy_____________ A) Brass B) Bronze C) Copper D) Stainless steel
[ D ]
C) Oxygen
D) Ammonia
Prepared by :- Gali Sreekar M.Sc, M.Sc, B.Ed Chirala mandal, Prakasam.
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Physical Science
36. When iron nail chipped in copper sulphate solution and left undisturbed for some time, the iron nail becomes brown due to formation of? [ A ] A) FeSO4 B) FeO C) SO2 D) FeS 37. Rancidity is a __________ reaction. A) Reduction B) Oxidation
[ B C) Redox
]
D) Displacement
38. Which of the following types of medicine is used for treating indigestion? A) Antibiotic B) Analgesic C) Antacid D) Antiseptic
[ C ]
39. Which of the following is a mineral acid? A) Oxalic acid B) Citric acid
[ D ] C) Acetic acid
D) Phosphoric acid
40. C(s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) is which type of reaction? A) Exothermic reaction B) Endothermic reaction C) Decompose reaction D) Displacement reaction
[ A
]
41. To prevent the potato chips from getting oxidization flush bags of chips are filled with? [ A A) Nitrogen gas B) Oxygen C) Hydrogen gas D) Fluorine
]
42. Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe. This equation is example of ________ A) Combination reaction B) Decomposition reaction C) Displacement reaction D) Double displacement reaction
[ C
]
43. The chemical formula of a ferric oxide is _________ B) Fe2O3 C) FeO A) Fe2O
[ B
]
44. The decomposition of vegetable into compost is an example of _____________reaction. [ B A) Reduction B) Oxidation C) Redox D) Rancidity
]
D) FeO2
46. 2Fe2O3 + 3C → 4Fe + 3CO2. This chemical reaction is an example of? A) Oxidation reaction B) reduction reaction C) Redox reaction
[ C ] D) None
47. C(s) + O2(g)→ CO2(g) + Q is an example of____________________ [ B ] A) Endothermic reaction B) Exothermic reaction. C) Redox reaction D) Oxidation reaction 48. Which of the following is a example of alloy? [ D ] A) Brass B) Bronze C) Steel D) All 49. The Color of copper oxide(CuO) _____________ A) Block B) Green C) Red
[ D ] D) Yellow
50. Galvanizing is a method o protecting iron form _______________ A) Rancidity B) Rusting C) Both A and B D) None of these
Prepared by :- Gali Sreekar M.Sc, M.Sc, B.Ed Chirala mandal, Prakasam.
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[ B
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Physical Science
3. Reflection of Light by Different Surfaces Multiple Choice questions 1. The mirror used by ENT specialists is ____________ A) Plane B) Concave C) Convex
[ B D) None of these
2. If an object is placed at C on the principal axis in front of a concave mirror, the position of the image is_________________ [ C A) at infinity B) between F and C C) at C D) beyond C 3. ______________ Mirrors are used in solar cookers. A) Convex B) Double Convex
]
]
[ C ] C) Parabolic
D) Spherical
4. We get a diminished image with a concave mirror when the object is placed_______ [ D ] A) at F B) between the pole and F C) at C D) beyond C 5. The focal length of a spherical mirror of radius of curvature 30cm is ______ A) 10cm B) 15cm C) 20cm D) 30cm 6. The centre of mirror is called ____________ A) Focus B) Radius of curvature
C) Vertex
[ B
[ D ] D) Centre of curvature
7. We get a virtual image in a concave mirror when the object is placed _______ [ B A) at F B) between the pole and F C) at C D) beyond C 8. The image of an object formed by a plane mirror is ___________ A) Virtual B) Real C) Diminished
]
]
[ A ] D) Upside-down
9. A ray which seems to be travelling through the focus of a convex mirror passes______ after reflection. A) Parallel to the axis B) Along the same path in opposite direction C) Through F D) Through C
[
10. The ratio of the focal length of spherical mirror to its radius of curvature is ________ A) 1 : 2 B) 2 : 1 C) 1 : 3 D) 1 : 4
[ A ]
11. The object distance ‘u’, image distance ‘v’ and focal length ‘f’ for a spherical mirror are related as __________ A) = − B) = − C) = + D) = +
[ C ]
12. The scientist who burned ships using mirrors is ____________ A) Archimedes B) Pierced de format C) Snell
[ A ]
13. The image formed by a concave mirror A) is always real B) is always virtual
A ]
D) Newton
[ C ] C) both real & virtual D) none of these
14. The image formed by a convex mirror is always ____________ [ D ] A) real, magnified B) real, diminished C) virtual, diminished D) virtual, magnified 15. The mirror which has a wide field of view must be ______________ A) concave B) convex C) plane
[ B D) none of these
]
16. The angle of incidence between the plane of a mirror and light ray is 450. The angle of reflection is _________ B) 450 C) 600 D) 900 A) 300
[
17. The angle of reflection is equal to the angle of incidence _________ A) Always B) Sometimes C) Under special condition
[ A ]
Prepared by :- Gali Sreekar M.Sc, M.Sc, B.Ed Chirala mandal, Prakasam.
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B ]
D) Never
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Physical Science
18. A real and inverted image of the same size is formed by a concave mirror when the [ C ] object is placed at ____________ A) between the mirror and focus B) between the focus and the centre of curvature C) at the centre of curvature D) beyond the centre of the curvature 19. Magnification produced by a convex mirror is always ___________ [ C ] A) More than 1 B) Less than 1 C) Equal to 1 D) All of the above 20. A concave mirror always forms real and inverted image except when the object is placed[ D ] A) at infinity B) between F and C C) at F D) between F and P 21. We get a virtual image in a concave mirror when the object is placed__________ [ B A) At F B) between the P & F C) At C D) beyond C
]
22. An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. [ A ] The image will be _____________ A) real and same size B) real and magnified C) real and diminished D) virtual and magnified 23. The mirror which can form a magnified image of an object is ______ A) Convex mirror B) Plane mirror C) Concave
[ C ] D) Both convex, concave
24. If an object is placed at C on the principal axis in front of a concave mirror, the position of the image is ___________ [ A) at infinity B) between F and C C) at C D) beyond C 25. A ray which seems to be travelling through the focus of a convex mirror passes_____ after reflection. A) parallel to the principal axis B) along the same path C) through F D) through C
C ]
[ C ]
26. We get a diminished image with a concave mirror when the object is placed _________ [ D ] A) At F B) between the P& F C) At C D) beyond C 27. The driver's mirror used in automobiles is ___________ A) convex B) concave C) plane
[ A ] D) none of these
28. If an object is placed at ‘c’ on the principle axis in front of a concave mirror, the position of the image is _________ [ C ] A) At infinity B) between F and C C) At C D) beyond C 29. Magnification m = ___________ A) B)
[ D ] C)
D)
30. The mirror which is bent inwards is known as __________ mirror. A) Concave B) Convex C) Plane
[ A ] D) Magic
31. A ray which seems to be travelling through the focus of a convex mirror passes_____ after reflection. A) parallel to the axis B) along with the same path in opposite direction C) Through F D) through C 32. ___________ burned ships using mirrors. A) Fermat B) Archimedes
[ A ]
[ B C) Lewis
]
D) Newton
33. Light selects the path which takes least time to travel. This principle was given by _____ [ A ] A) Pierre de Fermat B) Archimedes C) Newton D) Sommerfeld 34. A light ray travelling in the direction of the centre of curvature will on reflection on a convex mirror, travel in opposite direction and appears to be coming from____________ [ C A) Focus B) Pole C) Centre of curvature D) Any point Prepared by :- Gali Sreekar M.Sc, M.Sc, B.Ed Chirala mandal, Prakasam.
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Physical Science
35. The mirror used as a rear view mirror in vehicles is _____________ A) Convex mirror B) Concave mirror C) Plane mirror
[ A ] D) Parabolic mirror
36. The image in this mirror suffers lateral inversion_________ A) Concave mirror B) Convex mirror C) Plane mirror
[ C ] D) Parabolic mirror
37. When parallel rays are incident on a concave mirror, on reflection, they meet at____ [ C A) Pole B) Centre of curvature C) Focus D) Beyond C 38. ENT specialists use this mirror____________ A) Convex mirror B) Plane mirror
C) Concave mirror
]
[ C ] D) Parabolic mirror
39. We get a diminished image with a concave mirror when the object is placed_________ [ D ] A) At F B) Between the pole and F C) at C D) Beyond C 40. Which type of image cannot be caught on a screen_________ A) real image B) inverted image C) enlarged image
[ D ] D) virtual image
41. Which type of image is used as a shaving mirror__________ A) Concave mirror B) Convex mirror C) Plane mirror
[ A ] D) Parabolic mirror
42. Image and object will be of the same size, if the object is placed at _________of a concave mirror. A) Focus (F) B) Between F and C C) Beyond C D) At C
[ D ]
43. The mid point of a spherical mirror is called ________ of the mirror. [ B A) Focus B) Pole C) Centre of curvature D) Principal axis
]
44. The image that we got by extending the rays backwards is called a ___________ A) Real image B) Virtual image C) Real & Virtual D) None
]
[ B
45. According to rules for sign convention, the distances measured in the direction of opposite to the incident light, to be taken____________ [ B ] A) Positive B) Negative C) A and B D) None 46. According to rules for sign convention, the distances measured in the direction of incident light, to be taken____________ [ A ] A) Positive B) Negative C) A and B D) None 47. _____________ mirror is used as a security mirror. A) Convex mirror B) Concave mirror C) Both A and B
[ A ] D) None
48. The rays which passes nearer the principle axis is called _______________ A) Paraxial Rays B) Reflected rays C) Parallel rays
D) All
49. The distance between object and pole is called ___________ A) Object distance B) Image distance C) Center of curvature
[ A ] D) Focal length
50. The distance between Image and pole is called ___________ A) Object distance B) Image distance C) Center of curvature
[ B ] D) Focal length
Prepared by :- Gali Sreekar M.Sc, M.Sc, B.Ed Chirala mandal, Prakasam.
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[ A ]
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Physical Science
4. Acids, Bases and Salts Multiple Choice Questions 1. The colour of methyl orange indicator in acidic medium is ____________ A) yellow B) green C) orange D) red
[ D ]
2. The colour of phenolphthalein indicator in basic solution is ____________ A) orange B) yellow C) Pink D) blue
[ B
]
3. The Colour of methyl orange in alkali conditions? A) orange B) yellow
[ B
]
C) red
4. A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be ____________ A)1 B) 4 C) 5
D) blue [ D ] D) 10
5. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime-water milky the solution contains ____________ A)NaCl B) HCl C) LiCl D) KCl
[ B
]
[ B
]
7. Which of the following substances when mixed together will produce table salt? [ B A) Sodium thiosulphate and sulphur dioxide B) Hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide C) Chlorine and oxygen D) Nitric acid and sodium hydrogen carbonate
]
8. The aqueous solution of ______________ conducts electricity. A) Ethyl alcohol B) acetic acid C) acetone
]
6. N2 + O2 →2NO–Q in this reaction indicates ___________ A) Exothermic reaction B) Endothermic reaction C) Electro chemical reaction D) All of the above
[ B D) ether
9. Methyl orange are added to a soap solution. The colour of the solution becomes________ [ B ] A) Orange B) Yellow C) Pink D) Remains colourless. 10. What colour would hydrochloric acid (pH=1) turn universal indicator? A) orange B) purple C) yellow
[ D ] D) red
11. Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion? [ C ] A) antibiotic B) analgesic C) antacid D) antiseptic 12. Which of the following is the most accurate way of showing neutralization? A) Acid + base→ acid-base solution B) Acid + base→ salt + water C) Acid + base →sodium chloride + hydrogen D) Acid + base→ neutral solution
[ B
]
13. Which of the following indicators is not an acid – base indicator? A) Phenolphthalein B) Vanilla C) Litmus
[ B D) Methyl orange
]
14. If a base dissolves in water by what name is it better known? A) neutralization B) basic C) acid
D) alkali
15. The acid formed in stomach which help in digestion is ________. C) CH3COOH A) HCl B) H2SO4
[ D ]
[ A ] D) citric acid
16. When red litmus paper is dippled in X solution then the litmus paper changes to blue colour. The nature solution X is ___________ [ C ] A) Salt B) Acid C) Base D) All of the above 17. The reaction between sodium sulphate and barium chloride gives barium sulphate. The colour of the product is ___________ A) Yellow B) White C) Brown D) Black
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[ B
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18. Which of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion? [ C ] A) Anti biotic B) Analgesic C) Antacid D) Anti septic 19. Which of the following elements forms an acidic oxide? A) Mg B) Na C) P 20. At STP condition 2 grams of H2 Occupies _____________ volume. A) 112 lit B) 22.4 lit C) 24.2 lit
D) 211 lit
21. What is reason for whitening of wall when wet lime is applied A) Ca(OH)2 B) CaO C) CO2
D) CaCO3
22. Which of the following substances is used as an anti chloral? A) CaOCl2 B)Na2S2O3 C) Na2SO4
[ C ] D) Al [ B
]
[ A
]
[ B
]
[ D
]
D) CuSO4
23. An aqueous solution of sodium acetate will turn into ______________ A) Methyl orange yellow B) Red litmus blue C) Pheno phthalein solution pink D) all of these
24. Take yellow coloured Silver bromide in a watch glass and keep it in sunlight. Then the colour changes to ash colour. State the type of reaction? [ D ] A) Chemical combination B) Decompositon C) Displacement D) Double displacement 25. The colour of Precipitate formed when potassium lodide is reacted with Lead Nitrate. A) Yellow B) White C) Brown D) Black
[ A ]
26. In a chemical reaction the reactants changes their positive and negative radicals mutually. The reaction is called _______________ [ D ] A) Chemical combination B) Decompositon C) Displacement D) Double displacement 27. Which type of reaction occurred in crakers ______________ A) Neutralization B) Oxidation C) Reduction
[ B D) Mixed reaction
]
28. Swarna pushpam anklets changes its colour to black after some days. What is reason for the formation of the _______________________ [ C ] A) AgO B) Ag(OH)2 C) Ag2S D) AgCl 29. Many salts absorb water from atmosphere. This property is called ______________ [ A ] A) Crystallization B) Hydration C) Deliquescence D) Efflorescence 30. An Apple slice changes it colour to brown immediately after cutting. The reason is____ [ C ] A) Double displacement B) Reduction C) Oxidation D) Decomposition 31. Wet yellow flowers are placed in chlorine gas. Then they losses their colour. The reason is___ A) Cl2 B) O2 C) H2O D) HCl [ B ] 32. Stainless steel is mixture off______________ [ A ] A) Iron mixed with Carbon, Nickel and Chromium B) Silver mixed with Carbon, Iron, NIckel C) Copper mixed with Carbon, Chromium and Iron D) Iron mixed with Copper, Carbon and Chromium 33. Which gas is filled in the pocket for long time storage of chips? A) Oxygen B) Nitrogen C) Carbon Dioxide
[ B
]
D) Air
34. Which of the following indicators is not acid – base indicator? A) pheno phthalein B) Vanilla C) Litmus
[ B D) Methyl orange
]
35. Take X substance and heat it with a Bunsen burner. In this reaction they give brown colour gas. State the gas realeased from the following A) Nitrous oxide B) Nitric Oxide C) Nitrogen dioxide D) Nitrogen
[ C ]
36. What gas is produced when magnesium is made to react with hydrochloric acid? [ A ] A) hydrogen B) oxygen C) carbon dioxide D) no gas is produced Prepared by :- Gali Sreekar M.Sc, M.Sc, B.Ed Chirala mandal, Prakasam.
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37. The natural indicator among the following is _____________ A) Phenophthalein B) Methyl orange C) Methyl red
[ D ] D) Litmus.
38. If the pH of a solution is 13. This means that it is _____________ A) Strongly acidic B) Strongly basic C) Weakly acidic
[ B D) Weakly basic
39. A solution turns red litmus blue; its PH is likely to be____________ A) 1 B) 4 C) 5
D) 10
40. Water soluble bases are known as ___________________ A) Neutral B) base C) acid
D) alkali
[ D ]
[ D ]
41. H2O + ______________ → H3O+ A) H+ B) OH-
C) H2O
42. Which of the following has pH =O. A) Pure water C) 1M HCl solution in water
B) 1M CH3COOH solution in water D) 1M NaOH solution in water.
+
[ A ]
D) H3O
[
43. In neutralization reaction ______________is formed with water. A) acid B) base C) salt
]
C ]
[ C
]
D) ice.
44. A solution when added to crushed egg shells, a gas is evolved that turns lime water milky. The solution contains_______________ [ A ] A) HCl B) NH4Cl C) NaCl D) KCl 45. Which of the following substance has the lowest PH value? A) Sugar B) Tomato juice C) Vinegar
[ C ] D) Washing soda
46. Sodium hydrogen carbonate is an ingredient in_______________ A) Sugar B) Antacids. C) Vinegar
[ B ] D) Washing soda
47. Substances whose odour changes in acidic or basic are called ___________ [ C ] H A) p paper B) Synthetic indicators C) Olfactory indicators D) Litmus test 48. Bases which are soluble in water are called ______________ A) Alkalies B) Acidic C) Basic
[ C ] D) Neutral
49. The process of dissolving an acid or a base in water is an ______________ A) Exothermic process B) Endothermic process C) A and B
[ A ] D) None of these
50. Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth is lower than _____________ A) 5.2 B) 5.3 C) 5.4
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[ B
]
D) 5.5
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5. REFRACTION OF LIGHT AT PLANE SURFACES Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is Shell’s law. A). n1 sin i = B) =
C).
=
n2
[ B ] D) n2 sin i = constant
2. A ray of light is incident on a plane surface of refractive index √ at certain angle. It is found that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other. Then the angle of incidence is? A) 300 B) 450 C) 600 D) 150 3. Which of the following absolute refractive index values is not possible? A) √2 B) √3 C) √2 + 1
[ C ] [ D ]
D) √2 -2
4. The refractive index of glass with respect to air is 2. Then the critical angle of glass-air interface is_____________ A). 0o B) 45o C) 30o D) 60o
[ C ]
5. The refractive index of medium 1 relative to medium 2 is . Then the refractive index of medium 2 relative to medium 1 is? [ A ] . A) B) C) D) 6. Total internal reflection takes place when the light ray travels from_______ A) rarer to denser medium B) rarer to rarer medium C) denser to rarer medium D) denser to denser medium
[ D ]
7. Twinkling of stars is due to? A) Total internal reflection C) Dispersion
[ D ] B) scattering D) atmosphere refraction
8. The angle of deviation produced by the glass slab is _________ A) 00 B) 200 C) 900
0
[ A ]
D) 40
9. The angle of deviation produced by the glass slab is _______ A) 0o B) 20o C) 90o D). depends on the angle formed by the light ray and normal to the slab
[ D ]
10. Which one of the following characteristics of light is not altered by refraction? A) Speed B) frequency C) wave length D) intensity
[ B
]
11. The relation between refractive index and optical density is ___________ A) Inversely proportional B)Directly proportional C) A and B D) None of these
[ B
]
12. When a pencil kept in a glass tumbler filled with water seen from the side of the glass it seems to bend. Due to _______ [ C ] A) Reflection B) Dispersion C) Refraction D) Slattering 13. 1 micrometer = _________ metres B) 10–9 A) 10–8
–4
C) 10
–6
D) 10
13. In medium water to air, rays of light_________ A) Bend away from the normal B) Travels in a straight line in the same direction C) Travels in a straight line in the opposite direction D) None of the above
Prepared by :- Gali Sreekar M.Sc, M.Sc, B.Ed Chirala mandal, Prakasam.
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[ D ]
[
A ]
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15. A coin is placed at a depth of 4cm in water. When seen from air it appears to be at a depth of ( nw = ) . Find the answer? A) 4cm
B) 3cm
C)
cm
D)
[ D ]
cm
16. At critical angle of incidence, the angle of refraction is ___________ A) 600 B) 900 C) 1200 D) 450
[ B
]
17. If speed of light were same in all the media, which of these processes is not possible? A) Reflection B) Refraction C) Dispersion D) All the above
[
18. Which one of the following is not an application of total internal reflection? A) Sparkling diamond B) Optical fibre C) Blue color of sky D) Mirage
[ C ]
19. The unit of refractive index is _______________ A) m/s B) m/s2 C) kg/m3
[ D ]
B ]
D) No units
20. The absolute refractive index of water and glass are and respectively. Then the relative ! refractive index of glass with respect of water is? [ A ] " A) B) C)2 D) 21. _________ is used for visual examination of in accessible regions in the human body. A) Vacuum B) Water C) Light pipe D) None
[ C ]
22. Total internal reflection takes place when the light ray travels from _________ A) Rarer to denser medium B) Rarer to rarer medium C) Denser to denser medium D) Denser to rarer medium
[ D ]
23. The refractive index of glass with respect to air is 2. Then the critical angle of glass-air interface is ___________ [ C ] 0 0 0 0 A) 0 B) 45 C) 30 D) 60 24. The basic cause of refraction is? A) When light is incident on a boundary B) When the refractive indices of two media are equal C) The change in the speed of light in going from one medium to another D) None
[ C ]
25. A ray of light travels from a medium of refractive index ‘n1’, to medium of refractive index n2. #$% $ If angle of incidence is ‘i’ and the angle of refraction is ‘r’. Then is equal to? [ D ] #$% & A) n1 B) n2 C) n12 D) n21 26. Which of the following is Snell’s law? A) n1 sin i = sin r/n2 B) n1/n2 = sin r/sini C) n2/n1 = sin r/sin i D) n2 sin i = constant 27. A plane glass slab is placed over different colored letters. The color that appears to be raised by least amount is? A) Violet B) Yellow C) red D) Green 28. A ray of light passes from vacuum into a medium of refraction index if the angle of incidence is twice the angle of refraction, then angle of incidence is? B) Sin-1 ( ) C) 2 Cos-1 ( ) D) 2 Sin-1 ( ) A) Cos-1 ( ) '
'
'
[ B
]
[ C ]
[ C ]
'
29. The net deviation produced by a rectangular glass slab is? A) Equal to angle of incidence B) Greater than angle of incidence C) Less than angle of incidence D) Zero, always
[ C ]
30. If the temperature is decreases then the result density of air ______________ A) Decreases B) Increases C) Same D) None of these
[ B
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31. Relative refractive index, ( n21 ) =_______________ ()*+,-./0)/12)34*5)-4126)2/76 ( 1' ) ()*+,-./0)/12)34* :/+5. 6)2/76 ( 1 A) B) ()*+,-./0)/12)34*:/+5.6)2/76 ( 1 )
C)
;)<4-/.= 4* .>) :/+5. 6)2/76(0 ) ;)<4-/.= 4* .>) 5)-412 6)2/76 (0')
)
[ A ]
()*+,-./0)/12)34* 5)-412 6)2/76 ( 1' )
D) None of these.
32. When
a light ray propagates through one medium to another medium is expressed in terms of ________________ A) Refractive index B) Snells law C) Fermat principle D) All
[ A ]
33. The critical angle of a diamond is ______________ A) 24.1o B) 24.2o C) 24.3o
D) 24.4o
[ D ]
34. The shining of diamond is due to ______________ A) Refraction B) Optical illution C) Reflection
[ D ] D) Total internal reflection
35. The distance between the parallel rays in a glass slab is called ______________ A) Lateral shift B) Vertical shift C) Refractive index D) All 36. Mirages form because of the _____________ A) Refraction B) Optical illution C) Reflection
[ A ]
[ D ] D) Total internal reflection
37. At critical angle of incidence, the angle of refraction is ___________ A) 900 B) 800 C) 700 D) 600
[ A ]
38. Refractive index value of ruby is ______________ A) 1.70 B) 1.71 C) 1.72
[ B D) 1.73
39. A bunch of optical thin fibers form a _______________ A) Plastic pipe B) Rubber pipe C) Fiber optics
D) Light pipe
]
[ D ]
40. The ratio of speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in that medium is defined as__[ A ] A) Refractive index B) Snells law C) Fermat principle D) All 41. The refractive index of Ice is _____________ A) 1.31 B) 1.33 C) 1.44 42. The refractive index of Water is ______________ A) 1.31 B) 1.33 C) 1.44 43. The refractive index of Kerosene is_________________ A) 1.31 B) 1.33 C) 1.44
[ A ] D) 1.52 [ B
[ C ] D) 1.52
44. The refractive index of Crown glass is__________________ A) 1.31 B) 1.33 C) 1.44
D) 1.52
45. The refractive index of air is _________________ A) 1.0003 B) 1.54 C) 1.47
D) 2.42
46. The refractive index of Rock salt is ________________ A) 1.0003 B) 1.54 C) 1.47 47. The refractive index of Turpentine oil is ____________________ A) 1.0003 B) 1.54 C) 1.47
[ D ]
[ A ]
[ B
]
D) 2.42 [ C ] D) 2.42
48. The refractive index of Diamond is _______________________ A) 1.0003 B) 1.54 C) 1.47
D) 2.42
49. Radius of curvature = ___________ × focal length. A) 3 B) 2 C) 4
D) '
50. For a concave mirror, the focal length is _________________ A) Positive B) Negative C) Zero
D) None
[ D ]
Prepared by :- Gali Sreekar M.Sc, M.Sc, B.Ed Chirala mandal, Prakasam.
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]
D) 1.52
[ B
]
[ B
]
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6. REFRACTION OF LIGHT AT CURVED SURFACES Objective type Questions 1. Which one of the following materials cannot be used to make a lens? A) water B) glass C) plastic
[ D ] D) clay
2. Which of the following is true? [ B A) The distance of virtual image is always greater than the object distance for convex lens B) The distance of virtual image is not greater than the object distance for convex lens C) Convex lens always forms a real image D) Convex lens always forms a virtual image
]
3. Focal length of the plano-convex lens is ___________ when its radius of curvature of the surface is R and n is the refractive index of the lens. [ C ] A) f = R B) f = R/2 C) f = R/(n–1) D) f = (n–1)/R 4. The value of the focal length of the lens is equal to the value of the image distance when the rays are, [ D ] A) passing through the optic centre B) parallel to the principal axis C) passing throught he focus D) in all the cases 5. Which of the following is the lens maker’s formula A) 1/f = (n-1)(1/R1+1/R2) B) 1/f = (n+1)(1/R1-1/R2) C) 1/f = (n-1)(1/R1-1/R2) D) 1/f = (n+1)(1/R1+1/R2)
[ C ]
6. The distance between focus and 'Optic centre' is ________________ A) Focal length B) Principal axis C) Radius of curvatureC
[ A ] D) None
7. The rays which passes away from the principle axis is _______________ A) Parixial rays B) Marginal rays C) Parallel rays
D) All
8. The focal length of a lens has _________ in water. A) Decreased B) Increased
[ B
]
[ B ] C) Either increase/ decrease D) Not charge
9. On what factors does the focal length of a lens depends? A) Radius of curvature B) Material C) Surrounding medium
[ D ] D) All above
10. The line that joins the center of curvature and the pole is called _______________ [ C ] A) Focal length B) Radius of curvature C) Principal axis D) None 11. The ray that travels along the principal axis is _______________ [ B A) Deviated B) un deviated C) Passing parallel to Principal axis D) None
]
12. The formula for formation of image in the case of a curved surfaces is_______________ [ D ] ? A A ? A) + = @ B) - = @ C) + = @ D) - = @ 13. The formula for formation of image in the case of a plane mirror is _______________ [ A ] A) - = 0 B) + = 0 C) - = 0 D) + = 0 14. The distance between the focal point and optic centre is called the _______________ [ A ] A) Focal length B) Radius of curvature C) Principal axis D) None 15. Lens formula is _______________ A) = +
B) = -
[ B C) - =
16. The lens which can form real and virtual images is _______________ A) Convex B) Concave C) plano-convex
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D) None [ A ] D) Concavo convex
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17. The lens which always form virtual images is _______________ A) Convex B) Concave C) plano-convex
[ B D) Concavo convex
]
18. If the focal length is positive then the lens is _______________ A) Convex B) Concave C) plano-convex
[ A ] D) Concavo convex
19. If the focal length is negative then the lens is _______________ A) Convex B) Concave C) Plano-convex
[ B D) Concavo convex
]
20. For drawing a ray diagrams, we represent convex lens with a symbol ___________ [ B A) B) C) D) None of these
]
21. For drawing a ray diagrams, we represent concave lens with a symbol ___________ [ A ] A) B) C) D) None of these 22. The air bubble in water behave like a _______________ A) Diverging lens. B) Converging lens C) Mirror 23. The convex lens is used in __________ A) Telescope B) Binoclars
[ A ] D) None of these [ D ]
24. During refraction, ________ will not change. A) Wavelength B) Frequency
C) Microscope
D) All
C) speed of light
[ B D) all the above
25. Which of the following can acts as converging lens? A) Biconvex lens B) Plano-convex C) Concavo convex
]
[ A ] D) All of the above
26. The light ray gets refracted twice through glass slab. The perpendicular distance between incident ray and final emergence ray is called [ C ] A) Reflection B) Refraction C) Lateral shift D) Angle of deviation 27. The convex lens behaves like a _________ lens when it is kept in a transparent medium with greater refractive index than that of the lens. [ C ] A) Converging B) Conversing and diverging C) Diverging D) All the above 28. The convex lens behaves as a _________ lens, if it is kept in a medium with refractive index less than the refractive index of the lens. [ A ] A) Converging B) Conversing and diverging C) Diverging D) All the above 29. The rays from the distant object, falling on the convex lens pass through _________ [ C ] A) Pole B) Center of curvature C) Focus D) Focal length 30. The ray passing through the ____________ of the lens is not deviated. A) Pole B) Center of curvature C) Focus
[ D ] D) A and B
31. If the rays move very close to the principal axis, the rays can be treated as parallel and are called ______________ rays. [ D ] A) Focal rays B) parallel rays C) Undeviated rays D) Parixial rays 32. ___________ image cannot be seen by eyes. A) Real B) Virtual
[ A ] C) Both A and B
D) None of these
33. ________________ image is captured on screen. A) Real B) Virtual C) Both A and B
D) None of these
34. ______________ lens is called converging lens. A) Concave B) Convex C) Plano concave
D) Plano convex
35. The ray that travels along the principal axis is ______________ A) Deviated B) Undeviated C) Reflected
D) All
[ A ]
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[ B
]
[ B
]
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36. The ray that travels along the pole is ______________ A) Deviated B) Undeviated C) Reflected
Physical Science
37. Which of the following image is observed by our eyes? A) Real
B) Virtual
C) Both A and B
38. S.I unit of the power of a lens is ___________________ A) cm B) Metre C) Diaptor
[ B
]
[ B
]
D) All
D) None of these [ C ] D) Decibel
39. The rays passing parallel to the principal axis converge at the focus in the case of____ [ B A) Concave lens B) Convex lens C) Plano concave lens D) Plano convex lens
]
40. The rays passing parallel to the principal axis diverge from the focus in the case of ___ [ A ] A) Concave lens B) Convex lens C) Plano concave lens D) Plano convex lens 41. Every lens has ___________ focal points. A) 1 B) 2
[ B
]
[ B
]
43. When a refracted ray is distracted from its original path this displacement is called___ [ B A) Reflection B) Refraction C) Dispersion D) Lateral
]
C) 3
D) Infinite
42. The power of a concave lens is ___________________ A) Positive B) Negative C) A (or) B
44. The power of a convex lens is ___________________ A) Positive B) Negative C) Neutral
D) None
[ A ] D) None
45. Which of the following lens act as converging lens? A) Biconvex B) Plano Convex C) Concave Convex D) All
[ A ]
46. When light ray travels from denser to rarer medium, the relation between r and i is __ [ B A) r = i B) r > i C) r < i D) r > i 47. Speed of light of a medium depends upon ____ of the medium. A) Medium B) Optical Density C) Material
]
[ C ] D) Volume
48. A lemon kept in a glass of water appears to be __________________ [ A ] A) Bigger B) Smaller C) Same size D) Bigger and Smaller 49. The angle of refraction for critical angle is _______________ A) 60º B) 90º C) 80º
[ B
]
[ B
]
D) 45º
50. In a glass slab, refraction takes place _______________ times. A) 5 B) 2 C) 3
D) 4
51. Refractive index of a medium depends on _______________ A) Nature of material B) Wavelength of light used C) A and B
D) None
52. n1 sin i = n2 sin r is called____________________ A) Snell’s law B) Boyle’s law
C) Pascal’s law
[ A ] D) Charles’s law
53. Speed of light in vacuum is nearly equal to ___________ A) 2×108 m/sec B) 0.3×108 m/sec C) 3×108 m/sec
[ C ] D) 4×108 m/sec
54. The brilliance of diamond is due to _________________ A) Refraction B) Total internal Reflection C) Reflection
[ B D) Interference
[ C ]
55. ___________ image cannot be seen by eyes. A) Real
B) Virtual
]
[ A ] C) Both A and B
D) None of these
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7. Human eye and Colourful world Multiple choice Questions 1. The size of an object is perceived by an eye depends primarily on? A) Actual size of object B) Distance of the object from the eye C) Aperture of pupil D) Size of image formed on retina
[ B
2. The adjacent figure shows which eye defect ? And how it will correct ?
[ D ]
A) Hypermetropia, bi-concave lens C) Hypermetropia, bi-convex lens
]
B) Myopia, bi-convex lens D) Myopia, bi-concave lens
3. When objects at different distances are seen by eye, which of the following remain constant? A) Focal length of lens B) Object distance from eye lens C) The radii of curvature D) Image distance of eye lens
[ D ]
4. Rainbow is formed due to ___________ A) Reflection of sunlight from air C) Refraction of light
[ B
]
[ B
]
[ B
]
B) Dispersion of light D) Scattering of light
5. During refraction, ____________will not change? A) Wave length B) Frequency C) Speed of light
D) All the above
6. The wave lengths corresponding to violet, yellow, red lights are ______________ A) λv>λy > λr B) λv< λy<λr C) λy< λv<λr D) λy < λr<λv
7. A ray of light falls on one of the lateral surface of an equilateral glass prism placed on a horizontal surface of a table as shown in figure for minimum deviation of a ray. Which of the following is true [ B ] A) PQ is horizontal B) QR is horizontal C) RS is horizontal D) Either PQ or RS horizontal
8. The process of remission of absorbed light in all directions with different intensities by an atom or molecule is called? [ A ] A)Scattering of light B) Dispersion of light C) Reflection of light D) Refraction of light
9. The muscle iris control the _____________ A) Optic nerve C) Focal length of eye lens
[ B
]
B) Opening of pupil D) Shape of crystalline lens
10. The number of surfaces bounding a prism is ___________________. A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
[ C ]
11. When the focal length of lens is 50Cm, then power of lenses is _________. A) 1D B) 2 D C) 0.25 D D) 0.5 D
[ D ]
12. A camera employs a ________lens to form ________ images. [ B A) Divergent, real B) Convergent, real C) Divergent, virtual D) Convergent, virtual
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13. The sky looks blue and clear on sunny day because__________. A) Dispersion of light B) scattering of light C) Reflection light
Physical Science [ B
]
[ B
]
D) refraction of light
14. The angle of minimum deviation for an equilateral triangle prism is found to be 300. Its refractive index is _____________ A) 2 B) √2 C) ' D) √' 15. The power of accommodation of normal eye is? A) 4 D B) 40 D C) 44 D
[ A ] D) 400 D
16. Which part of retina identify the colour? A) Rods B) Cones
D) None of the above
[ B C) A and B
17. Natural example of dispersion of light is? A) Scattering B) Blue colour of sky C) Rainbow
]
[ C ] D) none of these
18. The size of an object as perceived by an eye depends primarily on ___________ A) actual size of the object B) Distance of the object from the eye C) Aperture of the pupil D) size of the image formed on the retina 19. When objects at different distances are seen by the eye which of the following remain constant? A) Focal length of eye-lens B) Object distance from eye-lens C) The radii of curvature of eye-lens D) Image distance from eye-lens
[ B
]
[ D ]
20. The maximum and minimum focal lengths of eye lens are_____________ A) 24 cm / 22.7 cm B) 2.5 cm / 2.27 cm C) 25 mm/22.7 mm D) B and C
[ B
]
21. During refraction__________ will not change? A) Wave length B) frequency C) speed of light
[ B
]
D) all the above
22. Far point of person is 5m in order that he has normal vision what kind of spectacles should he use? A) Concave lens with focal length 5m B) Concave lens with focal length 10m C) Concave lens with focal length 5m D) Concave lens with focal length 2.5m
[ A ]
23. The process of re-emission of absorbed light in all directions with different intensities by the atom or molecule is called______________ [ A ] A) Scattering of light B) dispersion of light C) reflection of light D) refraction of light 24. The size of an object as perceived by an eye depends primarily on__________ [ B ] A) Actual size of the object B) Distance of the object form the eye C) Aperture of the pupil D) size of the image formed on the retina 25. When objects at different distances are seen by the eye which of the following remain constant? A) focal length of eye – lens. B) object distance from eye lens. C) the radii of curvature of eye – lens. D) image distance from eye lens. 26. The reason for the blue colour of the sky is______________ A) Reflection B) Refraction C) Dispersion
[ D
]
[ D ] D) Scattering
27. Eye lens adjust its focal length according to distance of object. Which helps for this ? A) Carnia B) Retina C) Ciliary muscles D) Rods and Cones
[ C
]
28. The colour which has least wavelength in visible spectrum VIBGYOR? A) Violet B) Red C) Green D) Blue
[ A ]
29. The process of re-emission of absorbed light in all directions with different intensities by the atom or molecule is called____________ [ A ] A) scattering of light B) dispersion of light C) reflection of light D) refraction of light Prepared by :- Gali Sreekar M.Sc, M.Sc, B.Ed Chirala mandal, Prakasam.
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30. Power of lens, P = ______________ A) ' ( B ) B) ( B )
C)
(
Physical Science
)
D)
[ B
' (
]
)
31. An equilateral triangle prism is arranged in minimum deviation position for an angle of incidence of 450. The angle of minimum deviation is___________ B) 600 C) 300 D) 00 A) 450
[ C ]
32. The vision defect when the ability of accommodation of the eye usually decreases with increasing the ageing is? A) Hypermetropia B) Myopia C) Presbyopia D) Blindness
[ C
]
33. If power of lens is + 0.5 D then that lens is _______________ A) Concave lens of focal length 50 cm B) Convex lens of focal length 50 cm C) Convex lens of focal length 200 cm D) Concave lens of focal lengeth 200 cm
[ C
]
34. If power of lens of 2D then focal length of that lens is _______________ A) 100 cm B) 50 cm C) 200 cm D) 25 cm
[ B
]
[ C
]
36. The splilting of white light into seven colours is due to _______________ A) dispersion B) scattering C) reflection D) refraction
[ A
]
37. Refractive index of material of prism _______________
[ C
]
38. A ray of light falls on one of the lateral surface of an equilateral glass prism placed of [ B the horizontal surface of a table. For minimum deviation of ray. Which of the following is true?
]
35. Some time a person may suffer from both myopia and hypermetropia with agening. Then he need to use _______________ A) bi-concave lens B) bi-convex lens C) bi-focal lens D) cooling lens
A) n =
(
CDE C
)
( )
CFE
B) n =
(
(
CFG
) )
CFE
C) n =
(
)
( H)
D) n =
(
CFE
)
C
( )
A) PQ is horizontal B) QR is horizontal C) RS is horizontal D) either PQ or RS is horizontal 39. Blue colour of the sky is due to _____________ A) dispersion B) scattering C) reflection D) refraction
[ B
]
[ A
]
[ B
]
42. The distance between the eye lens and retina is about___________ A) 2.5cm B) 25cm C) 2.27cm D) 2cm
[ A
]
43. Change in the focal length of the eye lens is due to ___________ A) Iris B) Cornea C) Ciliary Muscles
[ C
]
D) Cones
44. Myopia can be corrected by using ___________ lens. A) Biconvex B) Bi Concave C) Plano Convex
[ B
]
D) Plano Concave
40. Rainbow is formed due to _____________ A) dispersion B) scattering
C) reflection
41. The value of least distance of distinct vision is about? A) 2.5cm B) 25cm C) 100cm
45. Hypermetropia can be corrected by using ___________ lens. A) Bi convex B) Bi concave C) Plano Convex
D) refraction
D) 2.277cm
[ A ] D) Plano Concave
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Physical Science
46. The splitting of white light into different colors is called ___________ A) Deviation B) Dispersion C) Scattering D) Refraction
[ B
]
[ A
]
[ B
]
[ B
]
50. The reason for the blue color of sky is due to the molecules of _______ and ___________ [ B A) H2O, CO2 B) N2, O2 C) O2, CO2 D) H2, O2
]
47. The process of reemission of absorbed light in all directions with different intensities by atom or molecule is called ____ of light? A) Scattering B) Dispersion C) Reflection D) Refraction 48. ____ is the essential part of the eye act as a sensitive screen? A) Cornea B) Pupil C) Iris
D) Retina
49. ____ can relax and contract, there by adjusting the size of an aperture ___________ A) Iris B) Pupil C) Yellow Spot D) Blind Spot
Prepared by :- Gali Sreekar M.Sc, M.Sc, B.Ed Chirala mandal, Prakasam.
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Physical Science
8. Structure of Atom Multiple Choice Questions 1. An emission spectrum consists of bright spectral lines on a dark back ground. Which one of the following does not correspond to the bright spectral lines? [ D ] A) Frequency of emitted radiation B) Wave length of emitted radiation C) Energy of emitted radiations D) Velocity of light 2. The maximum no. of electrons that can be accommodated in the L–shell of an atom is __ [ C ] A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 16 3. If l = 1 for an atom then the number of orbitals in its sub-shell is _______________ A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 0
[ C ]
4. The quantum number which explains about size and energy of the orbit or shell is______ [ A A) n B) l C) ml D) ms 5. Shape of s –orbital is _________________ A) Dumbell B) Double dumbel
C) Spherical
D) No shape
6. Shape of p –orbital is _________________ A) Dumbell B) Double dumbel
C) Spherical
D) No shape
7. Shape of d –orbital is _________________ A) Dumbell B) Double dumbel
C) Spherical
D) No shape
]
[ C ]
[ A ]
[ B
8. Shape of f –orbital is _________________ A) Dumbell B) Double dumbel
C) Spherical
D) Forefold dumbel
9. Quantum theory was proposed by? A) Bohr B) Max Planck
C) Sommerfeld
D) Erwin Schrodinger
]
[ D ]
[ B
]
10. Splitting of spectral lines in electric field is known as___________ [ B A) Zeeman Effect B) Stark Effect C)Electric effect D) Photoelectric Effect
]
11. The lowest energy state of the electron is known as _________________ State. A) Excited B) Stationary C) Ground D) Higher energy
[ C ]
12. Name the orbital for l = 1 is______________ A) s B) p C) d
[ B
13. The number of electrons in a shell is limited to? A) 2l + 1 B) 2(2l + 1) C) 2n2
]
D) f [ C ]
2
D) n
14. If there are no sharp boundaries in between colours, then the spectrum is called as ____ [ C A) Line spectrum B) Band spectrum C) Continuous spectrum D) None
]
15. ________ Quantum number explains about the size and energy of the orbital. A) Principal B) Orbital C) Magnetic D) Spin
[ A ]
16. Quantum mechanical model of atom was developed by ___________ A) Bohr B) Max Planck C) Erwin Schrödinger D) Somerfield
[ C ]
17. Splitting of spectral lines in magnetic field is known as ___________ A) Zeeman Effect B) Stark Effect C) Photo Electric Effect
[ A ] D) None
18. The region of space around the nucleus where the probability of finding an electron is [ C ] minimum is called? A) Orbit B) Node C) Orbital D) Energy level
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19. Planck's constant value is _____________ A) 6.626 × 10–32 JS B) 6.626 × 10–34 JS
Physical Science
–27
C) 6.626 × 10
JS
[ B D) 6.626 × 10 JS 39
]
20. Hydrogen spectrum is ______________________ A) Line spectrum B) Band spectrum C) Green spectrum
[ A ] D) Violet spectrum
21. Quantum mechanical model of an atom was proposed by __________ A) Neil Bohr B) Sommerfeld C) Max Planck
[ D ] D) Erwin schordinger
22. Size and energy of the main shell was given by ___________________ A) n B) l C) m
[ D) s
23. The 'l' value of 'f' orbil is _______________ A) 1 B) 2
D) 4
A ]
[ C ] C) 3
[ C ] 24. Magnetic quantum number (ml) values can be known from_____________ I I A) n B) n – 1 C) 2l + 1 D) + and !
!
25. Maximum number of electrons that can be accomded in 'd' sub shell is____________ A) 7 B) 5 C) 10 D) 14
[ D ]
26. In the equation c = νλ the letter that represents the frequency is___________________ [ C ] A) C B) λ C) ν D) h 27. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4 is the electronic configuration of __________ A) Potassium B) Phosphorus C) Sulphur
D) Argon
28. 'P' orbital starts from ________________orbit. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3
D) 4
[ C ]
[ B
29. Velocity of light in vacuum is __________________ A) 3 x 108 m/s B) 3 x 107 cm/s C) 3 x 103 m/s
D) 3 x 10 m/s
30. Elliptical orbits are introduced by_____________ A) Neils Bohr B) Heisen Berg C) Sommer Field
D) Plank
5
[
]
A ]
[ C ]
31. The quantum number which explains the size and energy of the orbit is _________ A) n B) l C) ml D) ms
[ B
]
32. If l = 1 for an atom then the no of orbital’s in its sub shell is _________ A) 1 D) 2 C) 3
[ C ] D) 0
33. The maximum no of electrons that can be accommodated in the L shell of an atom is __ [ C ] A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 16 34. Which quantum is gives the the shape of a sub shell _________ A) n B) l C) ml
[ B
]
D) ms
35. Among the following which colour has the highest wave length _________ A) Red B) Violet C) Green D) Blue
[ A ]
36. Bohr’s model explains all the line spectra observed in the case of ___________ atom. A) Hydrogen B) Helium C) Boron D) Carbon
[
A ]
37. Bohr’s model failed to account for splitting of_____________ A) Atomic spectra B) Absorption spectra C) line spectra.
[
A ]
D) None of these
38. The quantum number which is related to the size and energy of the main shell is ? A) Principle B) Angular momentum C) Magnetic D) Spin Prepared by :- Gali Sreekar M.Sc, M.Sc, B.Ed Chirala mandal, Prakasam.
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[ A ]
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39. The quantum number which is related to the shape of the sub shell. A) Principle B) Angular momentum C) Magnetic 40. Principal quantum number was introduced by ________________ A) Neils Bohr B) Sommerfeld C) Rutherford 41. Azimuthal quantum number was introduced by ________________ A) Neil’s Bohr B) Sommerfeld C) Lande 42. Magnetic quantum number was introduced by ________________ A) Neil’s Bohr B) Sommerfeld C) Lande
Physical Science
[
B ]
D) Spin
[ A ] d) J.J Thomson
[
B ]
d) J.J Thomson
[ C
]
D) J.J Thomson
43. Spin Quantum Number (ms) was introduced by _______and ___________ [ D ] A) Neil’s Bohr B) Sommerfeld C) Lande D)Uhlen beck,Goldsmith. 44. Quantum mechanical model of atom was developed by________________ [ D ] D) Erwin Schrodinger. A) Neil’s Bohr B) Sommerfeld C) Lande 45. Planks equation is _______________________________ A) E=hυ B) h=Eυ C) E=υ
[ A ] D) None of these
46. The total number of electrons that can occupy various shell or orbit was_____________ [ A ] A) 2n2 B) 2n C) n-1 D) n+l 47. The lowest energy of the orbital was given by the formula_________ B) 2n C) n-1 A) 2n2
[ D ] D) n+l
48. For a given n value the angular momentum quantum numbers are _________ A) 2n2 B) 2n C) n-1 D) n+l
[ C ]
49. Quantum theory is proposed by ______________ A) Max Planck B) J J Thomson
[ A ] C) Rutherford
D) Mosley
50. The maximum number of electrons in a sub-shell (s, p, d or f) is equal to ________ A) 2(2l -1). B) 2(2l+1). C) 2l+1 D) 2l-1
Prepared by :- Gali Sreekar M.Sc, M.Sc, B.Ed Chirala mandal, Prakasam.
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[ B
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Physical Science
9. Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table Multiple Choice Questions 1. Number of elements present in period – 2 of the long form of periodic table A) 2 B) 8 C) 18 D) 32
[ B
]
2. Nitrogen (Z = 7) is the element of group V of the periodic table. Which of the following is the atomic number of the next element in the group? [ C A) 9 B) 14 C) 15 D) 17
]
3. Electron configuration of an atom is 2, 8, 7 to which of the following elements would it be chemically similar? [ B A) nitrogen(Z=7) B) fluorine(Z=9) C) phosphorous(Z=15) D) argon(Z=18)
]
4. Which of the following is the most active metal? A) lithium B) sodium C) potassium
[ D ] D) rubidium
5. Number of elements present in 1st period of modern periodic table ___________ A) 2 B) 8 C) 18 D) 32
[ A ]
6. Which of the following is the most active element? A) lithium B) sodium C) potassium
[ A ] D) rubidium
7. The element with electronic configuration 2, 8, 8, 3 belongs to --- block A) s B) p C) d D) d
[ C ]
8. The incompletely filled period is ____________________ A) 5 B) 7 C) 4
[ B D) 6
9. Mandeleeff’s eka – aluminum is _______________ A) Scandium B) Zinc C) Gallium
D) Germanium
]
[ C ]
10. S and p- block elements are called _______________ A) Representative elements B) Transition elements C) Inner transition elements D) Zero group elements
[ A ]
11. Elements with electronic configuration ns2 np6 are called_______________ A) Representative elements B) Transition elements C) Inner transition elements D) Zero group elements
[
D ]
12. Name given to IV group element family is _______________ A) ns2 B) ns2 np2 C) ns2 np4
[
B
D) ns1
13. Most electro negative element is _______________ A) chlorine B) Nitrogen C) Flourine
D) oxygen
14. Units for Ionization energy_______________ A) Ergs B) KJ C)KJ mole-1
D) Moles
15. IE2 ____________IE ____________ 1 A) <
[ C ]
[ C ]
[ B) =
C) >
C ]
D) None
16. d- block elements are called _________________ A) Transition B) Inner transition C) Alkali metals 17. f- block elements are called _________________ A) Transition B) Inner transition
]
]
[ B D) Alkaline matals
]
D) Alkaline metals
C) Alkali metals
Prepared by :- Gali Sreekar M.Sc, M.Sc, B.Ed Chirala mandal, Prakasam.
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[ A
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Physical Science
18. Ionization energy is expressed in ____________ (or) ___________ A) kJ mol-1 (or) ev. B) k mol-1 (or) ev. C) J mol-1 (or) ev.
D) k J (or) ev.
19. Metals are ____________ elements. A) Electronegative B) Ionization
[ C ] D) Electron affinity
C) Electropositive
20. Electro negativity was measured in _________ Scale. A) Pauling scale B) Meter scale C) PH scale
[ A ]
[ A ] D) None of these
21. The ‘4f’ elements are called ______________ A) Lanthanoids B) Actinides
[ A ] C) s- block elements D) p- block elements
22. The ‘5f’ elements are called ______________ A) Lanthanoids B) Actinides
[ B ] C) s- block elements D) p- block elements
23. The group of elements is also called ____________ or ________________ A) element family or chemical family. B) Noble gas family C) s- block family D) p- block family
[ A
]
24. Group1 (IA) elements are called ___________ A) Alkali metal family B) Alkali earth metal family C) Boron family
[ A ] D) Carbon family
25. Group2 (IIA) elements are called ___________ A) Alkali metal family. B) Alkali earth metal family C) Boron family
[ B ] D) Carbon family
26. Group 13 (IIIA) elements are called _________________ A) Alkali metal family. B) Alkali earth metal family C) Boron family
[ C ] D) Carbon family
27. Group 14 (IVA) elements are called _________________ A) Alkali metal family. B) Alkali earth metal family C) Boron family
[ D ] D) Carbon family
28. Group 15 (VA) elements are called ____________ A) Nitrogen family.
[ A
B) Chalcogen family
D) Noble gas family
C) Halogen family
D) Noble gas family
29. Group 16 (VIA) elements are called ____________ A) Nitrogen family.
[ B
B) Chalcogen family
30. Group 17 (VIIA) elements are called ____________ A) Nitrogen family. B) Chalcogen family
C) Halogen family
D) Noble gas family
C) Halogen family
D) Noble gas family
[ D ]
B) Chalcogen family
32. Mandeleeff periodic table is based on _____________ A) Atomic weight
B) Atomic radius
[ A ]
C) Size of the element
D) None of these
33. Modern periodic table is based on _____________ A) Atomic weight
]
[ C ]
31. Group 18 (VIIIA) elements are called ____________ A) Nitrogen family.
]
C) Halogen family
B) Atomic radius C) Size of the element
[ D ] D) Atomic number
34. In his honour of Mendeleeff the 101th element was named as _____________ A) Mendelevium B) Scandium C) Germenium
D) Gallium
35. The predicted properties of elements namely eka-boron as_____________ A) Scandium B) Gallium C) Germanium
[ A ] D) Mendelevium
36. The predicted properties of elements namely eka-aluminium as_____________ A) Scandium B) Gallium C) Germanium
[ B ] D) Mendelevium
37. The predicted properties of elements namely eka-silicon as_____________ A) Scandium B) Gallium C) Germanium
[ C ] D) Mendelevium
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[ A ]
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Physical Science
38. Electron affinity of an element is also called ______________of that element. A) Electron gain enthalpy B) Electropositive enthalpy
C) Ionization potential
[ A ]
D) None of these
39. Li, Na, K are examples for_______________ A) Dobereiner traid B) Newland law of octaves
C) Mendeleeff law
[ A ] D) None of these
40. Law of octaves was proposed by ______________ A) Newland B) Dobereiner
C) Mendeleeff
[ B ] D) J.J Thomson
41. The incomplete period of the modern periodic table is ____________ A) 2th period B) 5th period C) 6th period
[ D ] D) 7 period th
42. The distance between the nucleus and outer most shell is known as ____________ [ A ] A) Atomic radius B) Atomic weight C) Valence D) Atomicity 43. __________ is the most electronegative element. A) Flourine B) Chlorine
C) Bromin
[ A ] D) Iodinm
44. Mandeleeff periodic table is based on ____________________ A) Atomic number B) Atomic weight C) Valence
[ B ] D) Atomicity
45. Electronegitivity is measured in ________________scale. A) Pauling scale B) Ordinary scale
[ A ] D) None
C) Both
46. How many groups are present in long form of periodic table? A) 15 B) 14 C) 17
D) 18
[ D ]
47. 5f elements are called ________________ A) Rare gases B) Actinides
[ B D) None
C) Lanthanides
48. Modern periodic table is based on ______________ A) Atomic Volume B) Atomic Weight C) Ionization potential D) Electronic Configuration
[ D ]
49. 101 element was named as in honour of a scientist _______________ A) Mendelevium B) Einsteinium C) Rutherfordium 50. The element with highest electro negativity is _______________ A) F B) Cl C) Ca
]
[ A ] D) Bohr [ A ]
D) Ar
51. General electronic configuration of Noble gases _______________ A) ns1 B) ns2np5 C) ns2np6 D) ns2np6, nd5
[ C ]
52. The longest period in the periodic table is ______________ A) 4 B) 7 C) 5
[ D ] D) 6
53. Predicted properties of Eka-Silicon is close to the observed property of _____________ [ A ] A) Germanium B) Scandium C) Gallium D) Sodium 54. 1 Pm = ___________ A) 10-8 m
-10
B) 10
m
55. Who proposed law of Octaves? A) Dobereiner B) New Land
-12
C) 10
m
-14
D) 10
[ C ] m [
C) Bohr’s
D) Mendeleev
Prepared by :- Gali Sreekar M.Sc, M.Sc, B.Ed Chirala mandal, Prakasam.
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B ]
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Physical Science
10. Chemical Bonding Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following elements is electronegative? A) Sodium B) Oxygen C) Magnesium
[ B
]
D) Calcium
2. An element 11X23 forms an ionic compound with another element ‘Y’. Then the charge on the ion formed by X is [ A ] A) +1 B) +2 C) -1 D) -2 3. An element ‘A’ forms a chloride ACl4.The number electrons in the valence shell of ‘A’is_ [ D ] A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 4. Which one of the following is an ionic compound? A) HCl B) CO2 C) H2O 5. In N2 molecule the atoms are bonded by ____________ A) 1σ, 3Π B) 1σ, 2 Π C) 3, σ2 Π
[ D ] D) CaO [ B
]
6. Covalent compounds are soluble in __________ A) polar solvants B) Non–polar solventsC) Concentrated ions D) All solvents
[ B
]
7. The bond angle in NH3 molecule is __________ A) 1090281 B) 900 C) 1070481
D) 1050
[ C
]
8. Polar covalent bond is present in __________ A) HCl B) NaCl C) MgO
[ A
]
D) Na2O
9. Valency of Noble gases is __________ A) 0 B) 1
[ A
]
D) 5
10. The number of unpaired electrons in oxygen atom is __________ A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3
[ D
]
11. The number of valency electrons in carbon atom is __________ A) 0 B) 2 C) 4
[ C
]
D) 6
12. Among the following electron deficinet molecule is __________ A) NaCl B) MgO C) CH4
[ D
]
D) BeCl2
13. Ionic bond is formed between atoms of elements with electro negitivity difference equal to or greator than ______________ [ C A) 0.1 B) 1.0 C) 1.9 D) 9.1
]
C) 3
D) 2σ, 1 Π
14. Except ___________ all the Noble gases have eight electrons in their outer most shell. A) Helium B) Argon C) Neon D) Radon
[ D
]
15. The number of covalent bonds in Methane molecule___________ A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
[ D ]
16. Hybridisation of atomic orbitals was proposed by___________ A) Linus pavling B) Moseley C) Mendaleeff
[ A ] D) Cosal
17. Bond angle between BeCl2 atoms is ________________ A) 1800 B) 1200 C) 1100
D) 1040, 31I
18. The chemical formula of common salt is ____________ A) Na2Cl B) NaCl C) NaCl2
D) Na2Cl2
[ A ]
[ B
]
19. Which of the following elements exists as atoms but not molecules? [ C A) Hologens B) Metals C) Inergt gases D) Alkaline earth metals
]
Prepared by :- Gali Sreekar M.Sc, M.Sc, B.Ed Chirala mandal, Prakasam.
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Physical Science
20. Which of the following are responsible for the formation of bonds between an atoms? A) Lone electrons B) All electrons C) Valence electrons D) No electrons
[ C ]
21. Which of the following ions lose electrons to form stable positive ions? A) Anions B) Cations C) Both A & B D) None
[ A ]
22. The valency of chlorine is____________ A) 1 B) 2
[ A ] C) 3
D) 4
23. Nitrogen forms a ________ covalent bond. A) Single B) Double
C) Triple
D) None
24. The formula of Methane is ____________ A) C2H2 B) CH4
C) C4H4
D) C2H5
25. The bond angle in a H2O molecule is _______________ B) 104O28I C) 104O29I A) 104O27I
O
D) 104 26
[ B
]
[ B
]
[ A ]
I
26. General electronic configuration (valence shell) of inert gas is______________ A) ns2 np4 B) ns2 np3 C) ns2 np5 D) ns2 np6
[ D ]
27. Ionic bond is formed between atoms of elements with EN difference is _______________ [ C ] A) > 1.7 B) < 1.7 C) > 1.9 D) < 1.9 28. 1 nanometer = ____________ meter. B) 10-8 meter A) 10-9 meter
[ A
]
29. Elements with more electropositive character form______________ A) Anions B) Cations C) Both A and B D) None of these 30. 1Ao = _______cm. A) 10-5 cm B) 10-6 cm C) 10-7 cm D) 10-8 cm
[ A
]
[ D
]
31. 1 nanometer = _______________ m. B) 10-7 meter A) 10-6 meter
[ D
]
[ A
]
-7
C) 10 meter
C) 10-8 meter
32. The shape of the water molecule is ________________ A) V-shape B) Linear C) Pyramidal 33. The shape of the CO2 is ________________ A) V-shape B) Linear
-6
D) 10 meter
D) 10-9 meter
D) Tetrahedral [ A ]
C) Pyramidal
34. The shape of BeCl2 is ___________________ A) V-shape B) Linear C) Pyramidal
D) Tetrahedral [ B
]
D) Tetrahedral
35. The shape of BF3 is ___________________ A) V-shape B) Linear
[ D ] C) Pyramidal
D) Trigonal planar
36. The shape of CH4 is ___________________ A) V-shape B) Linear
C) Pyramidal
D) Tetrahedral
37. The shape of NH3 is ___________________ A) V-shape B) Linear
C) Tetrahedral
[ D ] D) Trigonal Pyramidal
38. The shape of PCl3 is ___________________ A) V-shape B) Linear
C) Tetrahedral
[ D ] D) Trigonal Pyramidal
39. The shape of PCl5 is ___________________ A) V-shape B) Linear
C) Tetrahedral
[ D ] D) Trigonal bi Pyramida
[ D ]
40. Valence bond theory was proposed by _______________ A) Sidgwick B) Powell C) Linus pouling
[ D ] D) A and B
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41. Shape of ammonia molecule is ______________ A) Linear B) Angular C) Pyramidal
Physical Science
[ C ] D) Tetrahedral
42. An element ‘A’ forms chloride ACl4. The no. of electrons in the valence shell of A. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
[ D ]
43. An element 11X23 forms an ionic compound with another element Y. Then the charge on the ion formed by X is _________________ [ A ] A) +1 B) +2 C) -1 D) -2 44. Bond angle in methane is _________________ A) 170° B) 104.50 C) 1090 281
D) 180º
[
45. Which of the following elements is electronegative? A) Sodium B) Oxygen C) Magnesium
D) Calcium
[ B
46. The valence shell fill with eight electrons is called ______________ A)Octant configuration B) Oxygen configuration C) Magnesium configuration D) Calcium configuration 47. Electronic theory of valence was given by ____________in 1916. A) Lewis B) Kossel C) Sommerfeld
C ]
]
[ A ]
[ B
]
D) Neils Bohr
48. The valence shell separated by the angle 1800 .Thus, the molecule would be __________ [ A) Lineat B) v-shape C) Pyramidal D) Trigonal-planar.
A ]
49. The valence shell separated by the angle 1200 . The shape of the molecule is __________ [ A) Lineat B) V-shape C) Pyramidal D) Trigonal-planar.
D ]
50. Hybridization of atomic orbital’s’ was proposed by ______________ A) Lewis B) Kossel C) Sommerfeld D) Linus Pauling
D ]
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[
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Physical Science
11. ELECTRIC CURRENT Objective Type Questions 1. A uniform wire of resistance 50Ω is cut into five equal parts. These parts are now connected in parallel, then the equivalent resistance of combinations is? [ A ] A) 2 Ω B) 12 Ω C).250 Ω D) 6250 Ω 2. The obstruction of the flow of electrons is called? A) Current B) Resistance C) Potential difference
D) Voltage
[ B
]
3. If two or more resistors connected in parallel, then ____ is same in them. A) Heat B) Current C) Resistance
[ D ] D) Potential difference
4. Ohm’s law was introduced by German Physicist,___________ A) Mohan Babu B) Chandra Babu C)Mahesh Babu
[ D ] D) George Simon Ohm
5. A uniform wire of resistance 100 Ω is cut into 5 equal parts. These parts are now connected in parallel. Then the equivalent resistance of the combination is ___________ [ A ] A) 4 Ω B) 20 Ω C) 50 Ω D) 500 Ω 6. Electricity conducts freely in? A) Conductor B) Insulator
C) Semiconductor
7. 1Joule/ Coulomb is same as__________ A) Watt B) 1 volt
C) 1 ampere
8. Kilowatt hour is the unit of? A) Potential difference C) Electrical energy
B) Energy D) Electrical resistance
[ A ] D) None of these [
B
]
D) 1 Ohm [ C ]
9. A change is moved from a point A to a point B. The work done to move unit charge during this process is called_______________ [ C ] A). Potential at A B). Potential at B C). Potential difference between A and B D). Current from A to B 10. If two or more resistors are connected in series, then ____ flows through them is same? [ B A) Potential difference B) Current C) Resistance D) Heat 11. 1coulomb/sec is the same as? A). 1 watt B). 1volt
[ C).1 ampere
]
B ]
D). 1 ohm
12. Consider following statement. [ A ] A: In series connection, the same current flows through each element B: In parallel connection, the same potential difference gets applied across each element A) Both A and B are correct B) A is correct but B is wrong C) A is wrong but B is correct D) Both A and B are wrong 13. A charge is moved from point A to point B. the work done by a chemical force is called-[ A) Potential at A B) EMF C) Potential difference between A and B D) Current from A to B 14. The current in the wire depends on _____________ A) Only on the potential difference applied B) Only on the resistance of the wire C) On both of them D) None of them
B ]
[ C ]
15. Consider the following statements. [ A ] A: In series connection the same current flows through each elements B: In parallel connection the same potential difference gets applied across each element A) Both A & B are correct B) A is correct but B is wrong C) A is wrong but B is correct D) both A and B are wrong Prepared by :- Gali Sreekar M.Sc, M.Sc, B.Ed Chirala mandal, Prakasam.
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Physical Science
16. The electric potential of the earth is ______________ A) –ve B) +ve C) 0
D) ∞ infinite
17. Potential difference is also called ___________ A) Voltage B) Current
C) Both A and B
[ A ] D) None of these
C) 1 Ampere
[ D ] D) 1 Joule/1 Coulomb
18. 1 Volt = ______________ A) 1 Joule/Kelvin B) 1 Joule/ Kg
[ D ]
19. The device used to measure the current in the circuit is _________ A) Voltmeter B) Barometer C) Calorimeter
[
D ]
D) Ammeter
20. The obstruction of motion of electrons in a conductor called ______________ [ B A) Voltmeter B) Resistor C) Resistance D) Ammeter
]
21. The bulb filament made up of _____________ A) Copper B) Tungsten
]
22. Electric current, I = KLKMN&$M MOP&QK A) N$RK $%NK&SPL
____________ KLKMN&$M MOP&QK B) TULNPQK
[ B C) Tin
C)
23. 1 Ampere = ______________ A) 1 Coloumb/1 Second C) 1 Coloumb/1 Ampere
D) Titanium
KLKMN&$M MOP&QK VRWK&K
[
KLKMN&$M MOP&QK
D)
A ]
KRX
[ A ] B) 1 Coloumb/1 Joule D) 1 Coloumb/1 Calorie
24. The number of charges present in the conductor in a unit volume is called _________ [ D ] A) Electric charge B) Coloumb C) Drift velocity D) Charge density 25. The SI unit of electric current is _____________ A) Volt B) Coloumb
C) Ampere
]
[ A
]
D) Ohm
26. The power delivered by battery of emf, 10V is 10W. then the current delivered by the battery is _____________ A) 1A B) 2A C) 3A D) 4A 27. Kilo Watt Hour is the unit of ______________ A) Electrical power B) Electrical energy
[ A
C) Potential difference
[ B ] D) Electric current
28. The device which converts the chemical energy into electrical energy is _________ [ C A) Generator B) Electrical bulb C) Battery D) Electric fan
]
29. Battery has a chemical is called ______________ A) Electrode B) Iron plate
[ D
]
[ D
]
[ A
]
32. The material which transfers energy from battery (source) to the bulb is called a _____ [ A A) Conductor B) Insulator C) Semiconductor D) All
]
33. The material which can’t transfer energy from battery(source) to the bulb is called a___[ B A) Conductor B) Insulator C) Semiconductor D) All
]
34. The arrangement of the positive ions in a conductor is called ________ A) Conductor B) Insulator C) Semiconductor D) Lattice
]
C) Graphite
D) Electrolyte
30. The magnitude of electric charge ‘e’ is ____________ A) 1.602 x 10-16 C. B) 1.602 x 10-17 C. C) 1.602 x 10-18C.
D) 1.602 x 10-19 C.
31. The device which converts chemical energy into electrical is? A) Battery B) Motor C) Generator
D) Cooker
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[ D
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Physical Science
35. The ordered motion of electrons in a conductor is called ________ [ A A) Electric current B) Electric power C) EMF D) Potential difference
]
36. S.I. unit of potential difference is______________ A) Volt B) Ampere C) Watt
[ A
]
[ B
]
[ C
]
[ D
]
41. The device which converts electrical energy into mechanical energy is? A) Battery B) Motor C) Generator D) Cooker
[ B
]
42. In the battery chemical energy is converted in to __________ Energy. A) Mechanical B) Electrical C) Magnetic D) Heat
[ B
]
43. The material which offers resistance to motion of electrons is called ____________ A) Insulator B) Conductor C) Resistor D) Semi Conductor
[ C ]
44. The S.I unit of Specific resistance (or) resistivity is _____________ A) ohm/metre B) ohm-metre C) ohm D) Ohm-Metre
[ B
45. Specific resistance depends upon _______________ A) Temperature B) Nature of Material C) Both A and B
[ C ]
37. S.I. unit of current is ______________ A) Volt B) Ampere
C) Watt
D) Ohm
D) Ohm
39. S.I unit of electric energy ______________ A) Volt B) Ampere
C) Watt
D) Ohm
40. S.I unit of resistance is ________________ A) Volt B) Ampere
C) Watt
D) Ohm
]
D) Length of Material
46. Semi-conductors are used to make the following devices. A) Diodes B) Transistors C) Integrated Circuits D) All of These
[ D ]
47. The obstruction to the flow of current is called______________ A) Current B) Voltage C) Resistance 48. The S.I unit of power ______________ A) Volt B) Ampere C) Watt
[ C ]
D) KW
49. A thick wire has ______________ resistance than a wire. A) More B) Less C) Equal
D) None
50. The reciprocal of resistivity is called as _________________ A) Conductivity B) Resistance C) Current
D) Voltage
D) None [ C ]
[ B
[ A ]
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]
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Physical Science
12. ELECTROMAGNETISM Objective Type Questions 1. Which of the following coverts electrical energy into mechanical energy? A) Motor B) Battery C) Generator D) Switch
[ A ]
2. Which of the following coverts mechanical energy into electrical energy? A) Motor B) Battery C) Generator D) Switch
[ C ]
3. The magnetic force on a current carrying wire placed in uniform magnetic field if the wire is oriented perpendicular to magnetic field is _________________ [ B A) 0 B) ILB C) 2ILB D) ILB/2 4. Electric power p =_________ YΦ YΦ B) p = [ . YZ A) p =I. YZ
C) I = p.
YΦ YZ
]
[ A ]
\[
D) dΦ = Y]
5. Relation between flux linked with the coil (ε) and no of turns (N) is ___________ YΦ YΦ YΦ YΦ A) ε = B) ε =^ . YZ C) ε =N. YZ D) N = ε. YZ YZ
[ C ]
6. Magnetic field is a ____________ quantity. A) Vector B) Scalar
[ A ] C) Dimension less
7. The magnetic field inside a ________ is uniform. A) Magnet B) Solenoid C) Coil 8. Magnetic field lines are ____________. A) Closed loops B) Open loops
D) unit law [ B ] D) Current carrying conductor [
C) Parallel
D) None of these
9. The relation between Weber and teals is _________. A) Weber.m2 = Tesla B) wb = Tesla × m2 C)1Tesla = 1m2/ wb 10. _______ law gives direction of induced current. A) Faraday’s law B) Kirchhoff’s law C) Lenz’s law
A ]
[ B
]
D) wb = Tesla [ C ] D) Lorentz law
11. The magnetic lines are formed around the magnet is technically called_______ [ A) Closed loops B) Electrical field lines C) Open loops D) Magnetic field lines
12. Which finger gives the direction of current in Ampere’s right hand rule? A) Thumb B) Fore C) Index D) All
D ]
[ A ]
13. Magnetic field induction at a point nearer a straight current carrying conductor depends on __________________ [ C ] A) Distance B) Current C) Both D) None 14. A current carrying wire produces ________ A) An electric field B) A magnetic field
[ B C) A and B
]
D) Neither electric nor magnetic field
15. Which of the following rule is used in the working of motor? A) Fleming’s left hand rule B) Fleming’s right hand rule C) Faraday law of electromagnetic induction D) Lenz’s law
[
B ]
16. A device used for producing current is ________ A) Generator B) Volt meter C) Ammeter
[ A ] D) Galvanometer
17. A soft iron bar is introduced inside a current carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid is ______ [ A ] A) No change B) Will decrease C) Will increase D) Uncertain
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18. The metallic half rings in a motor are called _____ A) Carbob brushes B) Commutator C) Shaft
Physical Science [ B
]
D) Galvenometer
19. Magnetic flux(Φ Φ ) is the product of magnetic field induction(B) and _____________ [ A) Area B) EMF C) Current D) Potential difference
A ]
20. Weber/ (meter)2 _____________ A) Gauss B) 1Volt/Ampere
C ]
[ C) Tesla
D)Joule / Coloumb
25. The magnetic force on the charge moving parallel to a magnetic field is _______ _` A) Bqv sinθ B) Bqv C) Zero D) a
[ C ]
26. The current in the wire depends_______ A) Only on the potential difference applied C) On both of them
[ C
]
[ A
]
[ C
]
29. The charge is moving along the direction of magnetic field. Then force acting on it is __ [ C A) strong B) weak C) zero D) unknown
]
B) Only on the resistance of the wire D) None of these
27. The SI unit of magnetic field induction is_______ A) Tesla B) Weber C) Henry
D) No units
28. Magnetic flux is the product of magnetic field induction and _______ A) length B) volume C) area D) height
33. A current carrying wire of length L is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B. Then the force acting on the wire with current ‘i’ is F = _________ [ B _ A) BL sin θ B) Bi L C) Bi L tan θ D) b 34. Faraday's law of induction is the consequence of _______ [ B A) energy B) conservation of energy C) conservation of mass D) energy-mass 35. Generators works on the principle of _____________ A) Electromagnetic induction B) Mutual Induction C) Conservation of mass D) energy-mass 36. The S.I unit of magnetic field induction is _________________ C) Coulomb A) Weber B) Weber/m2
] ]
[ A ]
[ B
]
37. Magnetic field is produced by the flow of current. Thisphenomenon was discovered by__[ B A) Coulomb B) Oersted C) Faraday D) Maxwell
]
D) N/m
38. Which of the following instruments works by electromagnetic induction? __________ A) Dynamo B) Moving Coil Galvanometer C) Telephone Receiver D) Simple Motor
[ A ]
39. For making strong electromagnet, the material of the core should be____________ A) Brass B) Laminated Steel Strips C) Soft Iron D) Steel
[ C
]
40. A device for producing electric current is called_____________ A) Generator B) Voltmeter C) Galvanometer
[ A
]
D) Ammeter
41. A magnetic filed is a ______________ quantity. A) Vector B) Scalar
[ A D) Both A and B
]
[ B
]
43. The device based on the principle of electromagnetic induction is ___________ [ A A) Electric Generator B) Voltmeter C) Voltmeter D) Ammeter
]
C) Tensor
42. ______________ Law gives direction of induced current. A) Newton’s B) Lenz’s C) faraday’s
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D) Nobel
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44. Magnetic flux is the product of magnetic field induction and____________ [ A A) Area B) Intensity C) Flux D) None of these
]
45. Which of the following is required to reverse the current in the electric motor? A) Split rings B) Commutator C) Magnets D) All
]
[ B
46. The direction of the field due to solenoid is determined by using _____________ [ A ] A) Right hand rule B) Left hand rule C) Both A and B D) None of these 47. One end of the solenoid behaves like a north pole and other behaves like a ___________ [ B ] A) North pole B) South pole C) Both A and B D) None of these 48. A _______________is a long wire wound in a close packed helix. A) Solenoid B) Closed coil C) Straight wire
[ A ] D) None of these
49. The magnetic field lines are ___________ A) Open loops B) Closed loops
C) Both A and B
[ B D) None of these
50. The current carrying wires produce ___________ A) Magnetic field B) Electric field
C) Both A and B
[ A ] D) None of these
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13. Principles of Metallurgy Multiple Choice Questions 1. The impurity present in the ore is called as _________ A) Gangue B) flux C) Slag 2. Which of the following is a carbonate ore? A) Magnesite B) Bauxite
[ A ] D) Mineral [ A ]
C) Gypsum
D) Galena
3. Which of the following is the correct formula of Gypsum A) CuSO4. 2H2O B) CaSO4.½ H2O C) CuSO4.5H2O
D) CaSO4. 2H2O
[ D ]
4. The oil used in the froth floatation process is __________ A) kerosene oil B) pine oil C) coconut oil
D) olive oil.
[ B
]
5. Froth floatation is method used for the purification of ______ore. A) sulphide B) oxide C) carbonate D) nitrate
[ A ]
6. Galena is an ore of ———————— A) Zn B) Pb
[ B
]
[ B
]
[ B
]
C) Hg
7. The metal that occurs in the native form is __________ A) Pb B) Au C) Fe
D) Al
D) Hg
8. The most abundant metal in the earth’s crust is —————— A) Silver B) Aluminium C) zinc
D) iron
9. The reducing agent in thermite process is ___________ A) Al B) Mg C) Fe
D) Si
10. The purpose of smelting an ore is to __________ it. A) Oxidise B) Reduce C) Neutralise
D) none of these
11. The reducing agent used in thermite process is____________ A) Al B) Mg C) Fe
D) Si
12. The purpose of smetting an ore is to ____________ it A) 4Oxidse B) Reduce C) Neutralise
[ A ]
[
B ]
[ A ]
[ D ] D) None
13. The dprocess used to convent sulphise ore into oxide ore is____________ A) Roasting B) Calcination C) Smetting D) None
[ D ]
14. The substance added to remove the impurity is____________ A) Gangue B) Flux C) Fuel
[ A ] D) None
15. The most abundent metal in he earth's crust is ____________ A) Silver B) Zinc C) Aluninium
[ C ] D) Iron
16. ____________group elements are called chalcogens. A) 16th B) 15th C) 14th
D) 13th
17. Low boiling metals are purified by ____________ method. A) Poling B) Distillation C) Liquation
D) Electro refining
[ A ]
[ B
18. The part of Furnace where we keep Fuel for burning is_____________ A) Hearth B) Fire box C) Chimney D) None 19. During corrosion ____________ process takes place. A) Oxidation B) Reduction C) Both D) None
]
[ A ] [ C ]
20. ____________ is the place inside the furnace where the ore is kept for heating purpose. [ A ] A) Fire box B) Hearth C) Chimney D) None Prepared by :- Gali Sreekar M.Sc, M.Sc, B.Ed Chirala mandal, Prakasam.
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21. _____________is an alloy of copper and tin. A) Bronze B) Steel C) Brass
[ A ] D) Nickel
22. The impurities like clay in a ore is called______________ A) Slag B) Gangue. C) Ore
D) Flux
[ B
]
23. _______________ process involves the reaction of metal oxides with aluminium. D) Smelting A) Roasting B) Calcination C) Thermite
[ C ]
24. The chemical formula of cinnabar is____________ A) HgS. B) Pbo C) Fe2O3
[
A ]
D) Pb(NO3)2
25. The substance added to the ore to remove gangue from it is called ______________ A) Slag B) Gangue C) Ore D) Flux
[ D ]
26.____________are a process of heating the ore strongly in the absence of air or oxygen. D) Smelting A) Roasting B) Calcination C) Thermite
[ B
27. ___________ is a process of heating the ore strongly in a free supply of air or oxygen. A) Roasting B) Calcination C) Thermite D) Smelting
[ A ]
]
28. A metallic compound occurring in the earth crust along with impurities is called ______ [ D ] A) Gangue B) Flux C) Fuel D) Mineral 29. A mineral from which a metal can be extracted economically and conveniently is called [ C ] A) Gangue B) Flux C) Ore D) Mineral 30. Blister copper is purified by ______________ A) Poling method. B) Calcination C) Thermite
[ A ] D) Smelting
31. The substance added to the ore to remove gangue from it is called______________ A) Flux B) Gangue C) Ore D) Slag
[ A ]
32. Bronze is an alloy of _______________ A) copper and lead B) copper and Silver C) copper and gold
[ D ] D) copper and tin
33. The most abundant metal in earth crust is____________ A) Oxygen B) Aluminium C) Zinc
D) Iron
[ B
]
34. The chemical process in which one is heated in the absence of air is called__________ [ C ] A) Roasting B) Smelting C) Calcination D) Distillation 35. Smelting is carried out in ____________ Furnace. A) Reverberatory B) Blast C) Retort
[ B D) Clay
36. The impurities present in the ore is called______________ A) Slag B) Forth C) Flux
D) Gangue
]
[ D ]
37. ____________ is a process of heating the ore strongly in the presence of oxygen. A) Smelting B) Roasting C) Calcination D) Distillation
[ B
]
38. The method suitable for purification of low boiling metals is___________________ [ B A) Poling B) Distillation C) Liquation D) Electrolytic Refining
]
39. The oil used in the froth floatation process is__________________ A) Kerosene B) Pine Oil C) Coconut Oil D) Olive Oil
[ B
]
40. Which of the following element occurs in free state? A) Phosphorus B) Sulphur C) Silicon
[ D ] D) Gold
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www.tlm4all.com Tenth Class 41. Galena is an ore of________________ A) Zn B) Pb
Bit Bank
C) Fe
42. The purpose of smelting an ore is to _________________ A) Oxidize B) Reduce C) Neutralize
Physical Science [ B
]
[ A
]
D) Al
D) None of these
43. Forth floating is a method for the purification of _____________ ore. A) Sulphide B) Oxide C) Carbonate D) Nitrate
[ A ]
44. Roasting is carried out in ______________ Furnace. A) Reverberatory B) Blast C) Retort
[ A ] D) Clay
45. During calcinations, carbonate is converted to its ______________ A) Oxide B) Sulphite C) A and B D) None of these
[ A
46. Chemical formula of a Cinnabar is _____________ A) HgS B) AgCl C) PbS
[ C ] D) NaCl
47. Chemical formula of a Horn silver is _____________ A) HgS B) AgCl C) PbS
D) NaCl
48. Chemical formula of a Gelena is _____________ A) HgS B) AgCl C) PbS
D) NaCl
[ B
]
[ C ]
49. Chemical formula of a Rocksalt is _____________ A) HgS B) AgCl C) PbS
D) NaCl
50. How many water molecules are present in Epsom salt? A) 4 B) 5 C) 6
D)7
[ D ]
[ D ]
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14. Carbon and its Compounds Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the four test tubes containing the following chemicals shows the brisk effervescence when dilute acetic acid was added to them? [ B iii) K2CO3 iv) NaCl i) KOH ii) NaHCO3 A) i& ii B) ii & iii C) i & iv D) ii & iii
]
2. Which of the following solution of acetic acid in water can be used as preservative? A) 5-10% B) 10-15% C) 15-20% D) 100%
[ A ]
3. The suffix used for naming an aldehyde is A) -ol B) -al
[ B C) -one
]
D) –ene
4. Acetic acid, when dissolved in water, it dissociates into ions reversibly because it is a, A) Weak acid B) strong acid C) weak base D) strong base
[ A ]
5. Which one of the following hydrocarbon can show isomerism? B) C2H6 C) C3H8 A) C2H4
[ D ] D) C4H10
6. Combustion of hydrocarbon is generally accompanied by the evolution of A) Heat B) Light C) both heat and light D) Electric current.
[ C ]
7. 2ml of ethanoic acid was taken in each of the three test tubes A, B and C and 2ml, 4ml and 8ml water was added to them, respectively. A clear solution is obtained in: [ D ] A) Test tube A only B) Test tubes A & B only. C) Test tubes B and C only D) All the test tubes. 8. If 2 ml of acetic acid was added slowly in drops to 5ml of water then we will notice [ C ] A) The acid forms a separate layer on the top of water. B) Water forms a separate layer on the top of the acid. C) Formation of a clear and homogenous solution. D) Formation of a pink and clear solution. 9. A few drops of ethanoic acid were added to solid sodium carbonate. The possible results of the reactions are___________ [ C ] A) A hissing sound was evolved B) Brown fumes evolved. C) Brisk effervescence occurred. D) A pungent smelling gas evolved. 10. When acetic acid reacts with ethyl alcohol, we add conc. H2SO4, it acts as___________and the process is called___________ [ B ] A) Oxidizing agent, Saponification B) Dehydrating agent, Esterification C) Reducing agent, Esterification D) Acid & Esterification 11. Bond angle in CH4 is ______________ A) 109° 28' B) 107° 48'
C) 104° 31'
12. Which of these is not a crstalline form of carbon? A) Diamond B) Coal C) Graphite
[ A
]
[ B D) Buckminster fullerence
]
D) 120°
13. The functional group indicates carboxylic acid is ______________ A) – COOR B) –COOH C) –CHO D) –C = 0
[ B
14. The suffix used for naming an aldehyde is______________ A) –0l B) –al C) –One
[ D) –ene
15. Which one of the following hydrocarbon can show isomerism ? B) C2H6 C) C3H8 A) C2H4
D) C4H10
B ]
[ D ]
16. The general formula of homologous series of 'Alkenes' is______________ A) Cn H2n+2 B) CnH2n C) Cn H2n – 2 D) C2n Hn + 2
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[ B
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17. When acetic acid reacts with ethyl alcohol, we add conc. H2SO4, it acts as _______ and the process is called______________ [ B ] A) Oxidizing agent, saponification B) Dehydrating agent, esterification C) Reducing agent, esterification D) Acid & esterification 18. A few drops of ethanoic acid were to solid sodium carbonate. The possible results of the reactions are ______________ [ C ] A) A hissing sound was evolved B) Brown funes evolved C) Brisk effer vescence occurred D) A pungent smelling gas evolved 19. Which of the following solution of Acetic acid in water can be used as preservative? A) 5 – 10% B) 10 – 15% C) 15 – 20% D) 100%
[
A ]
20. Which are of the following hydrocarbon can shown isomerism? A) C2H4 B) C2H6 C) C3H8
[ D ] D) C4H10
21. A fens drops of ethanoic acid were added to solid sodium carbonate the possible results of the reactions are ______________ [ C ] A) A hissing sound was evolved B) Broun‟s fames evolved C) Brisk effervescence occurred D) A pungent smelling gas evolved. 22. The suffix used for naming an aldehyde is______________ A) -0l B) –al C) –One
[ B
]
D) –ene
23. When acetic acid reacts with ethyl alcohol, we add Con. H2SO4 it acts as _______ and the process is called ___________________ [ B ] A) Oxidizing agent, sapanification B) Dehydrating agent, esterification C) Reducing agent, esterification D) Acid, esterification 24. The general formula of a alkane is ______________ A) Cn H2n+2 B) Cn H2n-2 C) CnH2n 24. Which of the following is Marsh gas? A) Methanal B) Methanol
[ A ] D) Cn H2n+1 [
C) Methanoic Acid
D ]
D) Methane
25. The amorphous allotrope of carbon is ___________ A) Diamond B) Graphite C) Coal
[ C ] D) Buck Minster fullerene
26. The bond angle in Acetylene molecules is _____________ B) 1800 C) 1200 A) 1090.281
D) 900
[ B
]
27. The first organic compound synthesized in the laboratory is ____________ A) Ammonia B) Alcohol C) Urea D) Acetic Acid
[
28. A spherical aggregate of soap molecules in water is called___________ A) micelle B) Dirt C) Suspensions D) Colloidal
[ A ]
29. Which of the following is used as a preservative in pickels? A) Vinegar B) Ammonia C) Hydrochloric acid D) Nitric acid Acid
[ A
]
30. Which of the following is a dehydrating agent? B) C2H6 C) C3H8 A) C2H4
[ D
]
D) H2SO4
31. Hybridisation deals with____________ A) Electrons B) Orbitals
[ B
]
D) None of them [A
]
C) Both
32. Soaps give a true solution at particular concentration known as _______________ A) CMC B) Dirt C) Suspensions D) Colloidal
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C ]
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33. 10% ethanol in gasoline is known as _______________ A)Gasolin B) Gasohol C) Glycerin
Physical Science [
B ]
[
C ]
D) None of these
34. A spherical aggregate of soap molecules in water is called ________________ A) CMC B) Dirt C) Micelle D) Colloidal
35. A sweet odour substance formed by the reaction of an alcohol and a carboxylic acid ___ [ D ] A) CMC B) Dirt C) Suspensions D) Ester 36. Valence of carbo atom is __________________ A) 1 B) 2 C) 3
[ D ] D) 4
37. The different forms of the element are called_______________ A) Allotropes B) Catination C) Isomerism
[ A D) Isomers
38. Spherical fullerenes are also called_______________ A) Graphene B) Buckyballs C) Nanotubes
D) Isomers
39. Which of the following is a bad conductor of electricity? A) Diamond B) Graphite C) Iron
D) None of these
[
]
B ]
[ A ]
40. The chemical formula of Ammonium cyanate is _______________ A) NHCNO B) NH2CNO C) NH3CNO D) NH4CNO
[ D ]
41. The chemiclal formula of urea is _______________ A) CO (NH2)2 B) CO (NH2)3 C) CO (N32)2
[ A ]
42. The chemical formula of stearic acid is _________ A) C17H35COOH B) C17H34COOH C) C17H33COOH
D) CO (NH4)2 [ A ] D) C17H30COOH
43. Hydrocarbons having the general formula CnH2n + 2 are called ______________ A)Alkanes B) Alkenes C) Alkynes D) Alkyles
[ A ]
44. The hydrocarbons that contain –OH group are called______________ A) Alcohols B) Amines C) Acids D) Aldehydes
[ A ]
45. Alkaline hydrolysis of tristers of higher fatty acids producing soaps is called ______ A) Estarification B) Saponification C) Fatty acids D) Fatty alcohols
[
46. The hydrocarbons with functional group –CHO are called ______________ A) Alcohols B) Amines C) Acids D) Aldehydes
[ D
47. The hydrocarbons with functional group C=O are called ____________ A) Alcohols B) Amines C) Ketones D) Aldehydes
[
C ]
48. The common system of the Butane is ____________ A) n-butane B) Iso-butane C) Methyl butane
[
A ]
D) Ethyl butane
49. The common system 2-methyl propane is ____________ A) n-butane B) Iso-butane C) Methyl butane
[
B ]
D) Ethyl butane
50. Type of reactions shown by alkanes is ____________ A) Substitution B) Addition C) Both A and B
D) None of these
[ B
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B ]
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