TAMIL NADU TEACHER ELIGIBILITY TEST (TNTET) - 2012 TNTET khÂç édh¤jhŸ / Model Question Paper jhŸ - II - Paper – II INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES
1. The Test Paper contains a Booklet of Questions and an OMR Answer Sheet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully with blue/black ball point pen only. 2. The test is of one and half hours duration and consists of 150 questions. There is no negative marking. 3. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page / marking responses in the Answer Sheet. 4. The CODE for this Booklet is B. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and Answer Sheet No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. 5. This Test Booklet has five Parts, I, II, III, IV and V, consisting of 150 Objective Type Questions, each carrying 1 mark: Part I: Child Development and Pedagogy (Q. 1 to Q. 30) Part II: Language I - (Tamil/Telugu/Malayalam/Kannada/Urdu) (Q. 31 to Q. 60) Part III: Language II-(English) (Q.61 to Q.90) Part IV: Mathematics and Science (Q. 91 to Q. 150) OR Part IV: Social Studies (Q. 91 to Q. 150) 6. Candidates have to choose any ONE language under Part II Language I in accordance with their Language I studied in their Degree. In such case the candidates have to ask for the Question Booklet containing the languages other than Tamil. The languages being answered must tally with the languages opted for in your Application Form. 7. Part IV has options between (a) Mathematics and Science / (b) Social Studies. Candidates have to either answer (a) Mathematics and Science OR (b) Social Studies. 7. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the Test Booklet for the same. 9. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener is allowed for changing answers.
1
i.
FHªij nk«ghL« f‰Ã¤jš KiwfS« Child Development and Pedagogy
1. j‹bd¿¥gL¤J« m¿Îiu¥ gf®jiy Ãugy¥gL¤Âat® A fh®šnuh#®° B lh®é‹ C ily® D Non Directive councelling was advocated by A Karl Rogers B Darwin C Taylor 2.
gh›nyh
D
Pavlov
‘fdÎfŸ MŒÎ’ v‹w üiy btëæ£lt® éšèa« n#«° A #h‹ nlé B Á¡k©£ ÃuhŒL C v£t®L Ô¢r‹° D The book titled ‘Dream Analysis’ was published by A John Dewey B William James C Edward Tichenes D Sigmund Freud
3.
kd¥nghuh£l§fë‹ tiffŸ A 4 B 2
C 3
Types of Mental Conflicts are ___________ A 4 B 2 C 3 4.
f‰Ã¤jè‹ Kjš goãiy A kÂ¥ÕL brŒjš B jah® brŒjš First step in Teaching A Evaluation B Preparation
5.
D
8
D
8
C thÁ¤jš
C pursuing
D £läLjš D
Planning
jtwhd n#hoia F¿¥ÃLf a) E©z¿Î <Î nrhjid – Mšg®£ Ãnd b) bkhê¢ nrhjidbt¡°y® c) E.< - C.A. x 100 M.A. A a & b rçahd éil B a & c rçahd éil C c & a rçahd éil D b k£L« rç Find the odd pair out a) IQ test – Albert benae b) Verbal test-vexler c) I.Q - C.A. x 100 M.A. A a & b are correct C c & a are correct
B D
a & c are correct b alone is correct
2
6.
fUÎWjè‹nghJ MâläUªJ bgw¥gL« Fnuhnkhnrh« A Y B X C XY D XX During fertilization the chromosome received from the male partner is A Y B X C XY D XX
7.
E©z¿Î rh®ªj g‹Kf¡fhuâ¡ nfh£gh£oid msél jh©il¡ TW« tê ahJ? A CVAD B CAVD C CDAV D CDVA Name the test deviced by Thorndike in multiple theory of Intelligence A CVAD B CAVD C CDAV D CDVA
8.
9.
ö©lš-Jy§fš V‰gl¡ fhuz« A _is B K®¢Á C òy‹ cW¥òfŸ
D
Stimulus – response is due to A Brain B Maturity C Sense organs
D Experience
mDgt§fŸ
A B nkny fhQ« ÏU nfhLfëš ‘A’ v‹w nfhL ‘B’ ia él Ús« FiwªJ fhQ« fh£Áæid _____________ vdyh« A ghŒf‹lh®¥ Âçò¡ fh£Á B gL¡if ne®nfhL Âçò¡ fh£Á C nršd®° Âçò¡ fh£Á D Kšy®-ya® Âçò¡ fh£Á A B In the above figure the line ‘A’ is perceived to be shorter than the line ‘B’. This is due to _____________ A Poyendoffs illusion B Horizontal – Vertical line illusion C Zollener’s illusion D Muller-Lyer illusion
10. Fku¥ gUt« xU Á¡fyhd mikÂa‰w gUt« vd¡ T¿at® A î¡r‹ B nfhš C °lh‹è Ahš D éšèa« k¡^fš Adolescence is a period of storm and stress – said by A Brickson B Cole C Stanley Hall D William Mcdougall 11.
clš brašghLfŸ k‰W« cs¢ brašghLfŸ Ïu©oidÍ« Óuhf¢ brašgl cjΫ K¡»a ehsäšyh¢ Ru¥Ã ______________ A ãô£lç Ru¥Ã B ijuhŒL Ru¥Ã C ghuhijuhŒL Ru¥Ã D m£ßdš Ru¥Ã 3
The main ductless gland that regulates the physiological and psychological functioning of a person is ______________ A The pituitary gland B Thyroid gland C Para thyroid gland D Adrenal gland 12. e«Kila _jhija®fëläUªJ bjhl®ªJ tê têahf clš, cs¥g©òfŸ Ë rªjÂfS¡F É‹fë‹ _ykhf tUjiy ______________ vd miH¡»‹nwh« A gçzhk ts®¢Á B mL¤j rªj ãiy kh‰w« C cæçaš kuò ãiy D Ït‰¿š vJÎäšiy The transfer of physiological and genetic characters from parents to off springs through generations is called A Evolution B Transfer to next generation C Biological heridity D None of the above 13. xU fU Ïu£ila®fŸ xnu NHèš ts®ªjnghJ, Ït®fëilna E©z¿Î <Î (r) A r = 0.087 B r = 0.0870 C r = 0.87 D r = 8.7 The IQ correlation (r) of monozygotic twins, brought up in the same environment is A r = 0.087 B r = 0.0870 C r = 0.87 D r = 8.7 14. Ãahn#æ‹ m¿jš Âw‹ ts®¢Áæ‹ _‹wh« ãiy ______________ A kd¢ brašgh£L¡F Kªija ãiy B f©Tlhf gh®¥gij it¤J¢ ÁªÂ¤J brašgL« ãiy C bjh£L czU« gUt« D Kiwahf nahÁ¤J ÁªÂ¤J v©z§fë‹ mo¥gilæš brašgL« kdãiy According to piaget ________ is the 3rd stage in the cognitive growth of an individual A Pre-operational stage B Concrete operational stage C Sensory Motor stage D Formal operational stage 15. c£fh£Á _y« f‰wiy Kj‹ Kjèš és¡»at® A B.F. °»‹d® B nkç fή n#h‹° C gh›nyh D Learning through insight was first shown by A B.F. Skinner B Mary Kavur Jones C
nfhy®
Pavlov D Kohler
16. jtW brŒÍ« khztid ÂU¤j V‰wJ A j©lid B eštê fh£Ljš C gçRfŸ më¤jš D f©L bfhŸshkš é£L éLjš
4
The best way to change the wrong doing of a child is by A Punishment C by giving awards
B D
Teaching good moral values ignoring his behaviour
17. E©z¿Î K®¢Á bghJthf KGik bgU« taJ A 10-11 B 19-20 C 40-41
D
Intelligence attains its maximum level at the age of A 10-11 B 19-20 C 40-41 D
15-16 15-16
18. M¡fÂw‹ g‰¿a ä‹dnrhlh nrhjidæ‹ (bkhê k‰W« bkhêæšyh¢ nrhjid) cU¥gofŸ v¤jid A 10 B 14 C 12 D 19 State the total number of creativity tests (Verbal + Non verbal) in Minnesota test of thinking A 10 B 14 C 12 D 19 19. mfKf‹, òwKf‹ M»nahuJ Ïašòfis és¡»at® A nf£lš B Ir‹¡ C bf«¥ D
ͧ
Personality traits such as introvertism and extrovertism personality was explained by A Cattell B Eysenck C Kemp D Yung 20. MSikia msél¥ ga‹gL« äf¥ bghU¤jkhd Kiw A Rarçij B Ra kÂ¥ÕL C kWbkhê nfhUgit D kd¥gh‹ik msÎnfhš The most apt method of evaluating a person’s personality is through A Autobiography B Self rating C Questionnaire D Attitude scale 21. äif ãiy kd« v‹w ãiy vªj taÂdU¡F V‰gL»wJ A 1-3 B 3-6 C 6-9 D 9-12 Super ego stage occurs at the age of A 1-3 B 3-6 C 6-9
D
9-12
22. ò%° l¡khå‹ MÁça® ju msÎ nfhèid¥ ga‹gL¤Â Ñœ¡F¿¥Ãl¥g£LŸs v¥g©Ãid MÁçaçl« msÅL brŒayh« A MÁçaç‹ el¤ij k‰W« M¡f¥g©ò B MÁçaç‹ gçÎ k‰W« V‰ò C MÁçaç‹ Ïa§F« g©ò k‰W« el¤ij D Ïit mid¤J«
5
Which of the following can be evaluated using Bruce Tuckman’s Teacher Feedback form A Behaviour & Creativity C Dymanism & Organised demeanor
B D
Warmth & acceptance All the above
23. Aš° v‹gtuJ f‰wš bfhŸifæid F¿¡F« N¤Âu« ahJ A SER = DRXSH x K – I B RES = DXSRH x K - I E H C S R = XDSR R x K - I D SER = DXSHR x K - I Hull’s theory of learning formulae is A SER = DRXSH x K – I B C SER = XDSRHR x K - I D
RES = DXSRH x K - I SER = DXSHR x K - I
24. _isæš V‰gL« ãidé‰F äf K¡»a fhuzkhf Ïa§F« ntÂ¥bghUŸ fh®nghiAonu£ A o.v‹.V. B M®.v‹.V. C òuj« D The most potential chemical agent responsible for memory is A D.N.A. B R.N.A. C Proteins D Carbohydrates 25. fhy taJ 8, kd taJ 7 k‰W« fhy taJ 7, kd taJ 8 cŸs Ï›éUtç‹ E©z¿Î <Î ahJ? A 87.5 & 114.5 B 85.7 & 141.5 C 8.75 & 11.45 D 875 & 114 The Chronological age of one child is 8, Mental age is 7 and another child is with C.A. 7 & M.A. 8, find out their I.Q. Level. A 87.5 & 114.5 B 85.7 & 141.5 C 8.75 & 11.45 D 875 & 114 26. ïè v‹gt® 1909M« M©L ãWéa FHªijfŸ cs ey kU¤Jt éL v§F mikªJŸsJ A M°Ânuèah B ϪÂah C Á¡fhnfh D rΠmnuÃah In which country was the Juvenile Psychopathic Institute established in the year 1909 A Australia B India C Chicago D Saudi Arabia 27. ftd Å¢ir ms¡f cjΫ fUé A fiylh°nfh¥ B Motiu¢ nrhjid fUé C lhÁ° lh°nfh¥ D ãidÎ, cUis fUé The device used to measure the span of attention is A Kaliedascope B Mirror drawing apparatus C Tachistascope D Memory drum apparatus
6
28. uhg®£ fh¡nd v‹gtuJ T‰W¥go f‰wš v‹gJ ____________ goãiyfis bfh©lJ A 5 B 7 C 8 D 6 Robert Gagne’s theory of Hierarchial learning includes _________ types of learning A 5 B 7 C 8 D 6 29. ãidé‹ K¡»a Ïu©L tiffŸ A STM & LTM B ATM & GTM
C LTM & ATM
D ATM & STM
The two types of memory are A STM & LTM B ATM & GTM
C LTM & ATM
D ATM & STM
30. VIBGYOR v‹gJ ____________ v‹gj‰F xU Áwªj vL¤J¡fh£L A RU§f f‰wš B ãidÎ N¤Âu§fŸ C vëa f‰wš D nkhå¡° VIBGYOR is a good example of A abbrevation B Mnemonics
ii.
C
easy learning
D
monics
Language I – jäœ - Tamil
Ñœ cŸs g¤Âia¥ go¤J 1 Kjš 3 tiu cŸs édh¡fS¡F éilaë¡f. jäœ eh£oš r§f fhy¤Â‰F K‹dnu Xéa§fŸ tiua¥g£ld. jh« tiuªj
Xéa§fis
Kjèš
f©bzG¤J
v‹nw
tH§»d®.
jäœ
Ïy¡»a¤Âš vG¤J v‹gj‰F Xéa« v‹W« bghUŸ cŸsJ. ne®¡nfhL, nfhz¡nfhL, tisnfhL bfh©L tiua¥g£l Xéa§fŸ nfh£nlhéa§fŸ vd¥gL«. Xéa®fŸ v©z§fë‹ vG¢Áia gy t©z§fë‹ Jiz bfh©L vGJnthuhjè‹ f©QŸ éidP® vd¥g£ld®. M© Xéa® ‘Á¤juh§fj‹’ vdΫ, bg© Xéa® ‘Á¤Âunrdh’ vdΫ miH¡f¥gLt®.
31. tisnfhLfŸ bfh©L tiua¥gLtJ A vGjh Xéa« B nfh£nlhéa« C òidah Xéa« D ghit Xéa« 32. ‘f©QŸ éidP®’ v‹wiH¡f¥gLgt® A òyt® B ghlf® C eh£oa¡fhu® D Xéa®
7
33. `bg© Xéa®fŸ’ Ï›thW miH¡f¥gLt® A Á¤Âunrdh B Á¤Âuh§fj‹ Á¤Âu¥ghit C D Á¤Âu¡fhu¥ òè 34. ‘ÚLJæš Ú¡f¥ gho tªj ãyh’ v‹W ah® ahiu¥ ghodh® A ghuÂjhr‹ ghuÂia B ghu ghuÂjhrid thâjhr‹ ghuÂia C D ghu thâjhrid 35. ËtUtdt‰¿š rçahd tçiria¤ nj®Î brŒf. A ngij, k§if, klªij, bgJ«ig B ngij, klªij, bgJ«ig, k§if C ngij, bgJ«ig, k§if, klªij D ngij, k§if, bgJ«ig, klªij 36. j‹ fšyiwæ‹ ÛJ, ‘j‹id xU jäœ khzt‹’ v‹W vGj¢ brh‹dt® A fhšLbtš B ÅukhKåt® C í.ô. ngh¥ D Ínuå° ghuÂah® 37. fy«gf¤Â‹ cW¥òfŸ A 10 B 14
C 8
D 18
38. `Fok¡fŸ fh¥Ãa«’ v‹W miH¡f¥gL« üš A Áy¥gÂfhu« B kânkfiy C ÓtfÁªjhkâ
D tisahgÂ
39. ‘Áwªj g¤ij’ j‹df¤nj bfh©l üš A K¤bjhŸshæu« B KJbkhê¡ fhŠÁ C mil¡fy¥ g¤J D g‰W¥g¤J 40. fhy§fuªj bgabu¢r« A éidK‰W B
D
Rujh
42. “jhd« th§»l¡ TÁLth‹ jUtJ nkš vd¥ ngÁLth‹” – v‹D« tçfis¥ ghoat® A fékâ B ehk¡fš féP® òu£Á¡ féP® C D ctik¡ féP® 43. y, H, s – Ï«_‹W vG¤JfS« xnu khÂç xè¥gJ A ka§bfhè¥ ÃiH B rªÂ¥ ÃiH C vG¤J¥ ÃiH D xè¥ò¥ ÃiH 44. ‘öu¤J xë’ v‹D« ÁWfijæ‹ MÁça® A ehŠÁš ehl‹ B th.nt.R. Ia® C fh.bfs. K¤jHf® D Á.R. bršy¥gh 8
45. ‘ehŸnjhW« cl‰gæ‰Á brŒ’ v‹gJ v›tif¤ bjhl® A f£lis¤ bjhl® B brŒÂ¤ bjhl® C cz®¢Á¤ bjhl® D cl‹gh£L¤ bjhl® 46. Kjš guâ üš A ghrtij¥ guâ C fè§f¤J¥guâ
B D
Ïuâatif¥ guâ j¡fahf¥guâ
47. ‘Âiu¡fé¤ Âyf«’ v‹W eh« ahiu¡ F¿¥ÃL»nwh« A cLkiy ehuhaz fé B F.kh. ghyR¥Ãukâa« m.kUjfhÁ C D ghgehr« Át« 48. K¢Óuhš tU« mo A Fwso B msto
C Áªjo
D
beoyo
49. gÂbd© Ñœ¡fz¡F üšfëš cŸs òwüš A Ï‹dh eh‰gJ B fstê eh‰gJ C Ïåait eh‰gJ D fh® eh‰gJ 50. ‘Nshkâ’ v‹D« üè‹ MÁça® A bga® bjçaéšiy B C njhyhbkhê¤ njt® D
ehj¡F¤jdh® ÂU¤j¡f¤njt®
51. bgçaòuhz¤Â‰F nr¡»Hh® Ï£l bga® A ÂU¤bjh©l® bjhif B nr¡»Hh® òuhz« C ÂU¤bjh©l® ÂUtªjh D ÂU¤bjh©l® òuhz« 52. ‘kh®fê ó¤jJ’ A bjhêyhF bga® C ÁidahF bga®
B ÏlthF bga® D fhythF bga®
53. v£L¤bjhif üšfëš mfK«, òwK« fyªj üš A beLªbjhif B g‰W¥g¤J C gçghlš
D
FWªbjhif
54. `mur‹’ v‹gij `miur‹’ v‹W TWtJ A Ïy¡fzKilaJ B k%c C Ïy¡fz¥ nghè D Ïl¡ful¡fš 55. ‘bgh‹dfu«’ v‹w ÁWfijæ‹ MÁça® A b#afhªj‹ B òJik¥Ã¤j‹ C ÃugŠr‹ D F.gh. uh#nfhghy‹ 56. `jäœ ehlf¥ nguhÁça®’ v‹wiH¡f¥gLgt® A r§fujh° RthäfŸ B ngu¿P® m©zh M®.v°. kndhf® C D g«kš r«gªj Kjèah®
9
57. òfnHªÂ¥ òytiu Mjç¤j tŸsš A rªÂu‹ Rt®¡» B rila¥g tŸsš Ój¡fh C D ghç 58. ‘fW¥ò ky®fŸ’ v‹gJ A kuò¡ féij B iA¡T
C òJ¡féij
59. `fhto¢ ÁªJ’ ghoat® A m©zhkiyah® C murŠr©Kfdh®
D èkiu¡T
B kfhfé ghuÂah® D mUz»çehj®
60. t©z« fythkš fç¤J©Lfshš tot« tiutJ A t£oif¥ gyif B òidah Xéa« t£oif¢ brŒÂ C D eLfš tz¡f« iii.
M§»y« - English
61. Choose the correct phrase to fill in the blank in the sentence. She ____________ living in Chennai since 1989. A have been
B
had been
C
have being
D
has been
Fill in the blank with correct Homophone. 62. I thought it might ______________ A reign
B
rein
C
ruin
D rain
63. Change the given verb into noun form : Imagine A imagination
B imagined
C imaginative
D imaginary
In each of the following sentences, an idiomatic expression or a proverb is highlighted select the alternative which best describes its use in the sentence. 64. The police will leave no stone unturned to discover the murderer A turn every stone C make no excuse
B investigate thoroughly D be indifferent
65. The concert was brought to a close with a display of fire works A concluded
B interrupted C announced
D
cancelled
10
In the following passage, there are blanks each of which has been numbered. Against each number, four words are suggested find out the appropriate word in each case A rich land owner was on his deathbed, gasping for breath. He told his three sons to dig under his bed when he was gone, and he died. Some days later, the sons dug at the spot and unearthed three pots, (66) one above the other. The first pot contained mud, the middle contained dried cow dung and the (67) pot contained straw. Below this pot there was a silver coin. The brothers were puzzled. “Obviously, father meant to (68) some message to us through the pots and their contents, said the eldest brother. They (69) for a while but (70) of them could come up with an explanation. Finally they decided to (71) their doctor, who was also a family friend. The doctor laughed when he, heard about their problem. ‘Your father loved puzzles,’ he said, ‘The interpretation is simple. The topmost pot contains mud you say, that (72) he wants his eldest son to have his fields. The second pot contains cow dung. It means he wants his second son to have his (73) of cattle. The last pot contains straw. Straw is golden coloured that means he wants his youngest so to have all his gold.’ The brothers were happy with the way their father had divided his wealth and appreciated the doctor’s (74). ‘The silver coin at the bottom of the pots? What does it mean?’ asked the youngest brother. ‘Your father knew you would come to consult me,’ smiled the doctor, ‘The coin is my (75). 66. A only
B stand
C stood
D
placed
67. A least
B lowest
C less
D
deep
68. A tell
B request
C order
D
teach
69. A think
B thought
C relaxed
D
taught
70. A one
B either
C some
D
none
11
71. A go
B told
C consult
D
take
72. A meaning
B telling
C suggesting D
means
73. A herd
B flock
C gathering
D
school
74. A effort
B wisdom
C brilliant
D
wit
75. A friendship
B pot
C fee
D
keep
Rearrange the following sentences in proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, and answer the given questions. A)
The farmer called his neighbours and asked them to help him put mud into the well but the mule thought that he was calling the neighbours to help him get out of the well.
B)
A farmer wanted to get rid of his old mule and buy a new one but the mule always came back from wherever the farmer left him.
C)
He walked away from his cruel master and never returned.
D)
One day the mule fell into the well and the farmer thought, ‘Why not bury it there so that I don’t have to worry about getting rid of it?’
E)
The mule started shaking off all the mud that fell on him and kept climbing on the leap of mud as it fell into the well, soon he was on top of the mud heap and he easily got out of the well.
F)
When they started putting mud in the well the mule realized his master’s plan and started thinking of ways to say himself.
Choose the correct order of the sentences from the list given below: 76) A ABDCEF
B BDAFEC
C DFEABC
D
BDEFC
12
In each sentence below one word has been underlined. Of the four words suggested under each sentence, one can replace the underlined word without changing the meaning of the sentence. Find out the appropriate word in each case. 77. It was a useless attempt on her part to participate in the competition. A fruitful
B future
C last
D
futile
D
unsatisfied
78. He is reluctant to ask for permission o leave early. A unhappy
B
ungrateful
C unwilling
Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word given. 79. Polite A angry
B sheepish
C offended
D
rude
B exhibit
C conceal
D
prohibit
80. Reveal A show
81. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters OTE using each letter once? A none
B two
C one
D
three
The following sets of ideas / objects have some common feature / function. Spot the odd one out eg: bag, basket, hat, bucket Ans: hat – the others are used for carrying things. 82) A bite
B chew
C suck
D
nibble
83) Choose the appropriate word and fill in the blank I do not know what _____________ my father choose that particular school A happened
B
controlled
C asked
D
made
13
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. It there is 84) while he was walking along the road (A) / a speeding car (B) / knocked down to him (C) / no error (D) 85) Everybody know that his failure can (A) / be attributed to (B) / his lack of practice (C) / No error (D) 86) Do you wanted to discuss this (A) / project today or can (B) / we do it tomorrow (C) / no error (D) 87) What animal is found, by taking the fifth letter of the second word, the ninth letter of the first word, the sixth letter of the fourth word and the fourth letter of the third word? PARTICIPATION SHOULDER SYMBOLICALLY SALESMAN A TOAD
B LAMB
C BULL
D
MARE
88) A horse is tied to a 30 feet rope. A haystack lies 40 feet away, but the horse is able to eat it. How is this possible? A B C D
The The The The
horse is very smart. other end of the rope is not tied to anything. distance is not measured correctly. wind blew and brought the haystack close to the horse.
89) In the Active Learning Method (ALM) Mind map is drawn to check the ________________ of the students. A drawing Skill C understanding of the content
B D
writing Skill to while away the time
14
90) Identify the compound sentence : A B C D
He is too tired to walk After he had done the sums he went to bed. As she worked hard she completed the work. The farmer was old and he could not plough the field himself
15
iv. (a)
Mathematics and Science
91. fiy¤Â£l¤ij ã®zæ¥ngh® A ghl¤Â£l FGéd® C fšé tšYe®fŸ
B D
tF¥ò MÁça®fŸ jiyikahÁça®fŸ
Curriculum is designed by A Syllabus Committee C Educational Experts
B D
Class Teachers Headmasters
92. ËtUtdt‰WŸ rh®gfh v© vJ? A (7, 21)
B (3, 15)
C (3, 5)
D
(6, 2)
D
(6, 2)
D
-7
D
-7
Which one of the following is relatively prime? A (7, 21)
B (3, 15)
C (3, 5)
93. kÂ¥ò fh©f (2 3 + 5 ) ( 5 - 2 3 ) A –9 B 12 C -1 Evaluate (2 3 + A –9
5) ( 5- 2 3) B 12
C -1
94. bfhL¡f¥g£l n v©fëš (n>1), xU v© 1 -
1 k‰w v©fŸ n
mid¤J« x‹WfŸ våš, n v©fë‹ ruhrç. A
1-
1 n
2
B
n-
1 n
C 1
n-
1 2
n
Given n numbers (n>1), of which one is 1The mean of the n numbers is A B 1 1 1- 2 nn n
D
C 1
1 and all others are 1’s. n
D
n-
1 n
2
95. M®¤Âæl« 1 Kjš 9 tiu vGj¥g£l v© m£ilfŸ ÏUªjd. mtŸ 3 v© m£ilfis vL¤J mik¡F« v© 280-¡F« 300-¡F« Ïilæš ÏU¡f nt©Lbkåš ÑnH cŸst‰¿š vij vL¡f nt©L«. 16
A
B
2
3
6
2 7
9
C
D 3
5
8
7 2
1
Arthi has number cards with numbers 1 to 9, if she wants to choose three cards to form a number between 280 and 300, then she has to choose ____ option. A
B
2
3
6
7
9
C
D 3 8
5
96. 2 (2x-1) = 8(3-x), våš, x ‹ kÂ¥ò A -1 B -2 If 2 (2x-1) = 8(3-x), then the value of x is A -1 B -2
7 2
1
97.
2
C 2
D
3
C 2
D
3
D
X 100
329.728 329728 = X våš ‹ kÂ¥ò 0.00297 297 A 10 x B 100x C
X 10
17
Find the value of A 10 x
329728 239.728 if =x 297 0.00297 B 100x C
X 10
D
X 100
98. (x-1) v‹gJ x3 + 5x2 – x – 5 ‹ xU fhuâ våš, k‰w fhuâfŸ A (x-1) (x+5) B (x-1) (x-5) C (x+1) (x+5) D (x+1) (x-5) One of the factors of the expression x3 + 5x2 – x – 5 is (x-1). The other factors are (x+1) (x-5) A (x-1) (x+5) B (x-1) (x-5) C (x+1) (x+5) D 99. X® <çy¡f v©â‹ Ïy¡f§fë‹ TLjš 6. mªj v©âèUªJ 18I fê¤jhš Ïy¡f§fŸ Ïl« khW« våš mªj v©. A 51
C 33
B 24
D
42
Sum of the digits of a two digit number is 6. If 18 is subtracted from the number its digits are interchanged. The number is A 51
C 33
B 24
D
42
100. . “ o°by¡îah” thš f‰wèš V‰gL« ÏayhikfŸ ________cl‹ K¡»a bjhl®òilaJ. A nf£lš k‰W« vGJjš C ngRjš k‰W« go¤jš
B go¤jš k‰W« vGJjš D ngRjš k‰W« nf£lš
Dyslexia is associated mainly with difficulties in ____________ A Hearing and Writing B Reading and Writing C Speaking and Reading D Speaking and Hearing 101) VnjD« _‹W K¡nfhz§fë‹ _‹W nfhz§fë‹ TLjš Ñœ¡f©l tifæš miktij c‰Wneh¡»a khzt‹ 300 + 450 + 1050 = 1800 300+ 600 + 900 = 1800 450+ 550 +800 = 1800 mt‰¿‹ TLjèèUªJ “vªj xU K¡nfhz¤Â‹ _‹W nfhz§fë‹ TLjš 1800” v‹w KoΡF tU»wh‹. Ϫj f‰wš KiwahdJ. A gF¥ò Kiw C éÂtU Kiw
B D
brŒJ f‰wš Kiw éÂés¡F Kiw
18
A Student observes the angles of any three triangles as follows. 300 + 450 + 1050 = 1800 300 + 600 + 900 =1800 450 + 550 + 800 = 1800 He concludes that “Sum of three angles of any triangle is 180 0 ” . This method of learning is A Analytical B Learning by doing C Inductive D Deductive 102) 500 br.Û. + 50 Û + 5 ».Û = A 500 Û
B 555 Û
500 cm + 50 m + 5 km= A 500 m B 555 m
C 5055 Û
D
55 Û
C 5055 m
D
55 m
103) 11 ngdh¡fë‹ ml¡f éiy 10 ngdh¡fë‹ é‰w éiy¡F rk« våš Ïyhg mšyJ e£l rjÅj¤ij¡ fh©f. A 11%
B 1%
C 21%
D
10%
The cost price of 11 pens is equal to the selling price of 10 pens. Find the loss or gain percent. A 11% B 1% C 21% D 10% 104)
CAI ‹ ga‹ghL
A f‰Ã¤jY¡fhf C jåeg® f‰Ã¤jY¡fhf CAI is used for A Instructional purpose C Individualized Instructions 105)
B têfh£LjY¡fhf D brašÂw‹ nk«gh£o‰fhf B Guidance purpose D Performance appraisal
NHiy¡ ifahS« Âwid khzt®fëila ts®¡F« Kiw
A éçÎiu Kiw C MŒtf Kiw
B tuyh‰W Kiw D éçÎiu k‰W« brŒJfh£L« Kiw
The method that helps in developing manipulative skills among the students is A Lecture method B historical method C Laboratory method D Lecture cum demonstration method 106) xU khzt‹ -5 -3 = 8 v‹W fz¡»L»wh‹. ÃiH V‰gLtj‰fhd fhuz«. A KG¡fë‹ bgU¡fiy¥ g‰¿a fU¤J mtD¡F òçahjjhš B mtDila ftdä‹ikahš C KG¡fë‹ T£liy¥ g‰¿a fU¤J mtD¡F òçahjjhš D Ïnj khÂç fz¡Ffëš mtD¡F gæ‰Á njit¥gLtjhš 19
A student solves -5 -3 = 8. The reason for the error is A He has understood the concept of multiplication of integers. B He is careless. C He is not clear about the concept of addition of Integers. D He needs to practice solving problems of similar type. 107) 120 g¡f§fis¡ bfh©l xU ò¤jf¤Âš, x›bthU g¡f¤ÂY« 45 tçfŸ cŸsd. xU g¡f¤Â‰F 24 tçfŸ k£L« ÏUªjhš ò¤jf¤Âš________ g¡f§fŸ ÏU¡F« A 150 B 165 C 275 D 225 In a book there are 120 pages with 45 lines in each page. If the number of lines in a page are reduced to 24, the total number of pages will be _______ A 150 B 165 C 275 D 225 108) xU gâahs® %.11,250-I C¡f¤ bjhifahf¥ bgW»wh‹. ÏJ mtç‹ M©L tUkhd¤Âš 15% våš mtç‹ khj tUkhd«. A %. 75000
B %.7250
C %.6250
D
%.6000
An employee gets Rs.11250 as bonus. If this amount is 15% of his annual income, then the monthly income of the employee is A Rs. 75000 B Rs.7250 C Rs.6250 D Rs.6000 109) xU bjhiy¡fh£Á¥ bg£o 10% k‰W« 20% M»a bjhl® jŸSgofŸ bfhL¤jË %.5760 ¡F é‰f¥gL»‹wJ våš Ïj‹ F¿¤j éiy v‹d? A %. 6000
B %. 8000
C %. 7000
D
%. 5000
A television set was sold for Rs.5760 after giving successive discounts of 10% and 20% respectively. What is the marked price? A Rs. 6000 B Rs.8000 C Rs.7000 D Rs.5000 110)
eh‰fu« ABCD ‹ gu¥ò
2 A 65 br.Û .
2 B 56 br.Û .
2 C 150 br.Û
D
90 br.Û2
20
Area of the quadrilateral ABCD is
A 65 cm2 111)
B 56 cm 2
C 150 cm 2
D
90 cm 2
xU js¤ij Ô®khå¥gj‰fhd mo¥gil¡ f£L¥ghL
A 1 òŸë B 3 òŸëfŸ ne®¡nfh£oyikahj 3 òŸëfŸ D
C
2 òŸëfŸ
The necessary condition for the determination of a plane is A One point B Three points C Two points D Three non-collinear points 112) A B C D
éÂtU Kiw v‹gJ. gšntW vL¤J¡fh£LfëèUªJ bghJ é jhnd – f‰wš Kiw FG f‰wš Kiw fU¥ bghUëèUªJ gU¥bghUis neh¡»¢ bršYjš
Induction method is A From various examples to general concepts. B Self learning method C Group learning method D Moving from abstract to concrete 113) xU t£l toéyhd jhäu f«Ãæ‹ Mu« 35 br.Û. ÏJ xU rJukhf tis¡f¥g£lhš, m¢rJu¤Â‹ g¡f msÎ A 220 br.Û.
B 55 br.Û.
C 35 br.Û.
D
70 br.Û.
A copper wire is in the form of a circle with radius 35cm. If it is bent into a square then the side of the square will be A 220 cm 114) A B C D
B 55 cm
C 35 cm
D
70 cm
fâj MŒÎ¡ Tl¤jhš V‰gL« e‹ik ghl¡ F¿¥ò jahç¡F« Âw‹ ts®»wJ f‰Ã¤jš cgfuz« jahç¡f cjλwJ Âw‹fis g£oaèl cjλwJ fh£Á¥bghU£fŸ _y« f‰gjhš f‰wš és§F»wJ.
bghUŸ
ãiwªjjhf
21
Use of mathematics laboratory is A Develops the ability to prepare notes of lesson B Helps to prepare teaching aids C Helps to list out the competencies D In it learning becomes meaningful because learning is done by visual aids 115) 6, 6, 9, 14, 8, 9, 9, 8 v‹w étu§fS¡fhd Ïilãiy, KfL k‰W« Å¢R M»at‰¿‹ ruhrç A 8.5
B 10.5
C 8.8
D
10.3
The mean of the median, mode and range of the observations 6, 6, 9, 14, 8, 9, 9, 8 is A 8.5
B 10.5
C 8.8
D
10.3
ËtU« glkhdJ xU FL«g¤Â‹ gšntW bryéd§fë‹ rjÅj¤ij¡ F¿¡»wJ. mt‰iw¥ go¤J ËtU« édh¡fS¡F éilaë¡fΫ. A – czΡF, B – Jâ¡fhd bryÎ, C - gaz¢ bryÎ, D - nrä¥ò E - Å£L thlif, F - Ïju bryÎfŸ
The following diagram represents the percentage various expenditure of a family . Based on the data answer the following questions.
A – Food, B – Spend on Clothing, C – Conveyance, D – Saving, E – House Rent, F – Miscellaneous
22
116) khj tUkhd« %.3080. khj tUkhd¤Âš nrä¥Ã‰fhf xJ¡f¥gL« bjhif v›tsÎ? A
510
B 616
C 620
D
712
The monthly income is Rs.3080. How much amount is spent on saving per month A 510 B 616 C 620 D 712 117) gl¤Âš Å£L thlifahš milg£l t£l nfhz¥ gFÂæ‹ ika¡ nfhz« v›tsÎ A 560 B 340 C 540 D 360 How many degrees should be there in the central angle of the sector for House Rent? A
560
B 340
C 540
D
360
118) Ma¤bjhiy toéaiy m¿Kf¥gL¤j cjΫ cfªj mQFKiw A B C D A A B C D
Á¡fiy¤ Ô®¤jš éçÎiu Kiw g§nf‰W eo¤jš bjhêš E£g¤Â‹ _y« brŒJ fh£lš suitable approach to introduce coordinate Geometry is Solving Problems Lecture Method Role Play Demonstration using technology integration
119) 20 v©fë‹ ruhrç 59 v‹f. x›bthU v©QlD« 3-I¡ T£odhš »il¡F« v©fë‹ ruhrç. A
56
B 62
C 177
D
196
The mean of 20 Number is 59. It 3 is added to each number the new mean will be A 56 B 62 C 177 D 196 120)
Ñœ¡f©lt‰¿š vJ rç? A 9 + 3 x 2 - 4 2 = 10 B C 4 x 3 + 4 2 = 14 D Which is correct? A 9 + 3 x 2 - 4 2 = 10 B C 4 x 3 + 4 2 = 14 D
6 + 42 – 1 = 4 27 3 – 2 x 3 = 21 6 + 42 – 1 = 4 27 3 – 2 x 3 = 21 23
121. »£l¥gh®it FiwghL V‰gLtj‰F fhuz« A éê¡nfhs« RU§FtJ B éêby‹Á‹ Féa bjhiyÎ Ú©oU¤jš C D
éê¡nfhs« ÚŸtJ Ïitaid¤J«
Myopia – defect may arise due to The eyeball becoming too small B Elongation of the eyeball The focal length of the eye lens D all the above becoming too long
A C
122. A B C D A B C D
iA£u#‹ F©o‹ mQ¡fU ÏizÎ éid 3 4 1 + M‰wš 1H + 1H 2He + on 2 3 4 1 H + H He + 2 n + M‰wš 1 1 2 o 2 2 4 1 1H + 1H 2He + on + M‰wš 2 2 4 1 1H + 1H 2He + 2on + M‰wš 2
The Fusion reaction in the hydrogen bomb is 2 3 4 1 1H + 1H 2He + on + Energy 2 3 4 1 1H + 1H 2He + 2on + Energy 2 2 4 1 1H + 1H 2He + on + Energy 2 2 4 1 1H + 1H 2He + 2on + Energy
123. f®ŢÁ‹ msÎ ___________ myfhš msél¥gL« A f® B blÁgš C ~bg®ä D uh©£#‹ Radiation Exposure is measured by _____________ unit A ray B Decibel C Fermi D Roentgen 124. xU thdéaš myF (AU) A 1.986 x 102 Û B 2.8 x 108 Û/é C 1.496 x 1011 Û One Astronomical unit (AU) 1.986 x 102 m B 2.8 x 108 Û/é
A
C 1.496 x 1011 m
D
9.467 x 1015 Û
D
9.467 x 1015 m
125. ä‹dG¤j ntWgh£o‹ S.I. myF A X« B nthš£ C M«Ãa®
D
TY«
The S.I. unit of potential difference Ohm B Volt C Ampere
D
Coulomb
A
126. Ñœ¡f©lt‰¿š vªj x‹W fhy¤Â‹ myF mšy M©L A B xë M©L C ehŸ D beho
A
Which one of the following is not a unit of time? year B light year C day D second
24
127.
khW»‹w ä‹jilæ‹ F¿pL
A
B __ (.) __
C
D
The symbol of variable resistance is B __ (.) __
A
C
D
128. ekJ Å£oš »il¡F« khWÂir ä‹ndh£l¤Â‹ m®bt© A 240 Hz B 100 Hz C 10 Hz D 50 Hz Frequency of our household alternating current is A 240 Hz B 100 Hz C 10 Hz D 50 Hz 129. A C A C
óäæš fyªJŸs ie£u#‹ bjé£oa fiurš B bjé£lhj fiurš D
Nitrogen in earth’s soil is Saturated Solution B Unsaturated Solution D
130. A C
mÂbjé£oa fiurš Ïitaid¤J« Super Saturated Solution all the above
6C13
k‰W« 7N14 mQ¡fis v›thW miH¡fyh« Inrhgh®fŸ B Inrhlh‹fŸ Inrhnlh¥òfŸ D fh®gå‹ Inrhnlh¥ò
The atoms 6C13 and 7N14 can be described as A Isobars B Isotones C Isotopes D Isotopes of Carbon 131. Ñœ¡f©lt‰WŸ vJ nt‰W mQ _y¡TW? A O2 B H2 C NH3
D
H2 SO4
Which one is hetero atomic molecules? A O2 B H2 C NH3
D
H2 SO4
132.
A C
Ñœ¡f©lt‰WŸ vªj x‹W M¡ì#nd‰wkhfhJ iA£u#id V‰wš B M¡ì#id V‰wš iA£u#id Ú¡Fjš D vy¡£uh‹fis ÏH¤jš
Which one is not in oxidation? A Gain of hydrogen B Gain of oxygen C Loss of hydrogen D Loss of electrons 25
Ïu¤j¤Â‹ pH kÂ¥ò A 6 B 8.4 C 7.4
133.
The pH value of blood is A 6 B 8.4 134.
A C
D
C 7.4
5.5 D 5.5
Áç¥ó£L« thÍé‹ ntÂæaš bga® ie£u° M¡i[L B fhšÁa« ršng£ fhšÁa« M¡i[L D ie£u° il M¡i[L
The chemical name of laughing gas is A nitrous oxide B calcium sulphate C calcium oxide D nitrous dioxide 135. cnyhf¥ nghè¡F cjhuz« Ãsh£od« A B b#®khåa« C »uhig£
A
Example of Metalloids Platinum B Germanium
D
C Graphite
D
btŸë
Silver
136. òj®¢ brofS¡F vL¤J¡fh£L A beš B nuh#h C KŸs§»
D
nt«ò
Example for shrubs A Paddy B Rose
D
Neem
137. ãy Ú® thœtdt‰¿‰fhd vL¤J¡fh£L A irf° B igd° C kh°
D
òš
Example for Bryophytes A Cycas B Pinus
D
Grass
C Radish
C Moss
138. ghÁfis F¿¤j m¿éaš A gh¡Oçahyí B clèaš C bršèaš The study of algae is called Bacteriology B Physiology
A
C Cytology
D D
ig¡fhyí Phycology
139. beh¤jè‹ nghJ ______________ thÍ btëah»wJ M¡ì#‹ A B ie£u#‹ C fh®g‹ilM¡i[L D Fnshç‹
A
The Gas liberated during fermentation is ________________ Oxygen B Nitrogen C Carbon dioxide D Chlorine
140.
xëæ‹ ö©LjY¡F V‰wthW jhtu ghf¤Â‰F V‰gL« mirÎ xërh®girÎ A B òérh®girÎ ntÂrh®girÎ D Ú®rh®girÎ C 26
The movement of a plant part in response to light is called A Phototropism B Geotropism C Chemotropism D Hydrotropism 141. mäy kiH cUthf¡ fhuzkhd thÍ vJ? A M¡ì#‹ B ie£u° M¡i[L C Fnshç‹
A
Which gas causes Acid Rain? Oxygen B Nitrous Oxide
142.
A
D iA£u#‹
D Hydrogen
C Chlorine
Úç‹ _y« fåfS« éijfS« guÎjY¡F vL¤J¡fh£L mtiu B bj‹id C gyh D f¤jç
Example of Fruits and seeds dispersed by water. A Bean B Coconut C Jack D Brinjal 143. éy§F bršfëš k£Lnk fhz¥gL« brš cW¥ò A ãÍ¡ëa° B Ãsh°khr›Î C çnghnrh« D br‹£nuhnrh«
A
Which cell organell is found only in animal cell? Nucleus B Plasmamembrane C Ribosome D Centrosome 144. gh¡Oçahit mséL« myF A »uh« B Û£l® C bt®åa®
D ik¡uh‹
Bacteria are measured in _____________ Unit A Gram B Meter C Vernier 145.
A
é¥çnah gh¡Oçahé‹ tot« fhšòŸë B RUŸ C F¢Á
The shape of Vibrio Bacteria is A Comma B Spiral C Rod 146. A
Ït‰¿š itu° nehŒ vJ? nghènah B bl£ld° C bjhGnehŒ
Which one is viral disease? A Polio B Tetanus C Leprosy 147. kuÃaè‹ jªij rªÂunrf® A B bk©lš Father of genetics A Chandrasekar B Mendel
D Micron
D nfhs«
D Spherical
D knyçah
D Malaria
C ny©£°bl‹d®
C Landstenner
D vk®r‹
D Emerson 27
148.
A
bgU§Flè‹ Ús« 2 Û£l® B 3 Û£l®
Length of large intestine A 2 meter B 3 meter 149.
C 1.5 Û£l®
C 1.5 meter
D 6 meter
njå ts®¥ò¡F cfªj Ïd« A Vð Ï©ofh B Vð ònshçah C Vð lh®nr£lh D Vð bkšèbguh
Best Breed for Apiculture A Apis indica C Apis dorsata 150.
D 6 Û£l®
A
B Apis florea D Apis mellifera
gªÂ¥ó® njÁa ó§fhé‹ ÏU¥Ãl« F#uh¤ B f®ehlfh C m°[h«
Bandhipur National Park is in A Gujarat B Karnataka
C Assam
D nfush
D Kerala
-----------------------------------------
28
iv. (b)
Social Science TET khÂç édh¤jhŸ / TET Model Question Paper r_f m¿éaš Social Science jhŸ – II - Paper – II
91. Au¥gh ehfßf¤Âš ‘bgU§Fs«’ ÏUªjJ v‹gJ cz®¤JtJ A Úç‹ K¡»a¤Jt« B Úç‹ òåj¤j‹ik C Úç‹ nrä¥ò D Úç‹ ga‹ghL The significance of the presence of ‘Great bath’ in Harappan Civilization A Importance of water B Holiness of water C Water Harvest D Utility of water 92. cy»nyna äf¤ bjh‹ikahdbjd tuyh‰w¿P®fshš fUj¥gLtJ vJ? A f§if¢ rkbtë B éªÂa kiy¡F¤ bj‰»YŸs gF C tlnk‰F ϪÂa¢ rkbtë D ϪÂahé‹ tl»H¡F gF Which is considered as the most ancient part of the world by historians? A Gangetic Valley B Southern part of Vindhya Mountain C North Western Indian Valley D North Eastern part of India 93. ntj fhy bg© féP®fŸ A Ãu#hgÂ, éRtgÂ, rjkhdh B ãZfh, ghŠrhè, Rt®zh C fh®», ik¤nuæ, xsit D mgyh, nfhrh, nyhgK¤uh The A B C D
Female poets of Vedic period Prajapathi, Viswapathi, Sadamana Niska, Panjali, Swarna Garki, Maithreyi, Avvai Abala, Kosa, Lobamudra
29
94. bgs¤j Jwéfë‹ éfhu§fŸ äFªj khãy« A f®ehlf« B Õfh® C #h®f©L D xorh The State that comprises more number of Buddhist Viharas is A Karnataka B Bihar C Jharkhand D Oddisa 95. rªÂuF¥j bksçaç‹ M£Á¡ fhy« A ».K. 298-273 B ».K. 324-299 C ».K. 261-236 D ».K. 280-255 The reign of Chandragupta Mauriya A B.C. 298-273 B B.C. 324-299 C B.C. 261-236 D B.C. 280-255 96. Áuht°Â v‹gJ A e B ntjüš ‘Siravasthi’ means A River B Holy book
C efu«
D nfhéš
C Town
D Temple
97. A®õ® tlbkhêæš vGÂa üš A fnuh°Â B j®k é#a« C K¤uuh£rr«
D u¤dhtë
The book written by Harsha in Sanskrit A Karosthi B Dharma Vijayam C Mudraratshasam D Ratnavali 98. Á-ô-» v‹D« üš TWtJ A A®õç‹ ã®thf« B bgs¤j kj« C A®õç‹ gilbaL¥ò D ehsªjh gšfiy¡fHf« The book ‘Si-Yu-Ki’ is on A Administration of Harsha C Conquests of Harsha
B Buddhism D Nalanda University
99. f#]uhnAh nfhéiy¡ f£oat®fŸ A rªnjy®fŸ B Ïuh#ò¤Âu®fŸ brsfh‹fŸ C D ÃuÂfhu®fŸ ‘Khajuraho’ temple was built by A Sandelas B Rajputs C Chauhans
D Prathiharas
100. bAhŒrhs k‹d® éZQt®jd®, jiyefiu nrhrÅ® v‹w Ïl¤ÂèUªJ kh‰¿a Ïl« A thu§fš B njt»ç C bt§» D JthurK¤Âu«
30
Vishnuvardhana, the Hoysala king, who shifted his capital from Sosaveer to A Warangal B Devagiri C Venki D Dwara Samudra 101. I«bgh‹dhš Áiy brŒÍ« fiyia m¿Kf¥gL¤Âat®fŸ A gšyt®fŸ B Éfhy¥ gšyt®fŸ C nrhH®fŸ D Éfhy¢ nrhH®fŸ Iconography was introduced by A Pallavas B Later Pallavas C Cholas D Later Cholas 102. KfkJ fíåæ‹ 17 gilbaL¥òfis¥ g‰¿¡ F¿¥ÃL« tuyh‰W MÁça® A r®. #h‹ kh®õš B r®. jhk° C r®. bA‹¿ vèa£ D r®. bA‹¿ ngh®L The historian, who mentioned the 17 invasions of Muhamed Gazani was A Sir. John Marshal B Sir. Thomas C Sir. Henry Elliot D Sir. Henry Ford 103. A C
‘yh¡g¡õh’ vd¥ òfH¥g£l mur® F¤òÔ‹ Ig¡ B ghšg‹ ÏšLäZ D eRUÔ‹
The King who was praised as ‘LakBaksha’ A Qut-pu-din Ibek B Balban C Iltumish D Nasurudeen 104.
A C
blšè Ršjh‹fŸ M£Áæš btëÍwΤ Jiw mik¢rç‹ bga® Âthå Ï‹õh B Âthå ç[hy¤ Âthå m®° D Âthå M«
The name of the Foreign Minister in the Rule of Delhi sultanate was A Diwani Inshah B Diwani Rizalat C Diwani Urs D Diwani Am 105. jiy¡nfh£il¥ ngh® eilbg‰w M©L ».Ã. 1545 A B ».Ã. 1555 C ».Ã. 1565
D ».Ã. 1575
Battle of ‘Talaikottai’ was held in the year A AD 1545 B AD 1555 C AD 1565
D AD 1575
106. _‹whtJ ghåg£ nghU¡F K‹ gŠrhig if¥g‰w ϪÂahé‹ ÛJ gyKiw gilbaL¤jt® A fíå Kf«kJ B Kf«kJ nfhç C mfkJ õh m¥jhè D xsu§fÁ¥ 31
The King who invaded India many a times to capture Punjab before the third Battle of Panipet A Gazani Mohamud B Mohamud Ghori C Ahamed Shah Abdali D Auranzeb 107. A
òuªj® cl‹go¡if nk‰bfhŸs¥g£l M©L ».Ã. 1650 B ».Ã. 1665 C ».Ã. 1660 D ».Ã. 1655
Treaty of ‘Purandhar’ was signed in the year A AD 1650 B AD 1665 C AD 1660 108.
A C
D AD 1655
M§»y¥ nguuir ϪÂahéš njh‰Wé¤jt® Ïuhg®£ »is› oô¥ns B ä®#hg® r® Ia® T£ D
The person who established British rule in India A Robert Clive B Duplex C Mirjafer D Sir. Iyercoot 109. thu‹ nA°o§° M£Áæ‹bghGJ mnah¤ÂÍl‹ Ïiz¡f¥g£l gF A #h®¡f©L B c¤Âufh©L C nuhïšf©L D gªjš fh©L The place annexed with Oudh during the rule of Warren Hastings A Jharkhand B Utharkhand C Rohilkhand D Bundlekhand 110. ‘ikN® òè’ vd miH¡f¥g£lt® A iAj® mè B Â¥ò Ršjh‹ C r¥j® mè D gnj¡ iAj® The person who was named as ‘Tiger of Mysore’ A Hyder Ali B Tippu Sultan C Sabdar Ali D Fadek Hyder 111. A B C D
».Ã. 1453 M« M©o‹ K¡»a¤Jt« mšòf®¡F Ïu©lhtJ MSeuhf gjéna‰wJ bfhy«g° flš gaz¤ij nk‰bfh©lJ JU¡»a®fŸ fh‹°lh‹o nehÃis¡ if¥g‰¿aJ m«ghædh gLbfhiy elªjJ
The importance of the year 1453 AD A Albuequrque who appointed as second Governor B The sea route journey of Columbus C Constantinoble was captured by Turks D The massacre of Ambaina 32
112. kJiu eha¡f® M£Áæ‹ filÁ M£Áahs® A ÂUkiy eha¡f® B Ûdh£Á Ïuhâ k§f«khŸ C D é°tehj eha¡f® The last ruler of Madurai Nayakas was A Thirumalai Nayak B Meenakshi C Rani Mangammal D Viswanatha Nayak 113. gšyt®fŸ fhy¤Â‹ M£Á bkhê A jäœ B »uªj« C ghè The official language of Pallavas is A Tamil B Grantham C Pali 114. rKjha K‹nd‰w¤Â‹ éisãy« A ÅL B FL«g« C gŸë The nurturing field of social progress A House B Family C School
D rk°»Uj« D Sanskrit
D r_f« D Society
115. ϪÂahéš cŸsh£Á mik¥ig Kj‹Kjèš V‰gL¤Âat® A f®r‹ Ãuò B fhå§ Ãuò C ç¥g‹ Ãuò D lšbAsÁ Ãuò The local Government in India was initially established by A Lord Curzon B Lord Canning C Lord Rippon D Lord Dolhouse 116. jäœeh£oYŸs Cuh£Á x‹¿a§fë‹ v©â¡if A 370 B 375 C 380 D 385 Total number of Panchayat Unions in Tamil Nadu A 370 B 375 C 380 D 385 117. khãy§fsitæš FoauR¤ jiytuhš ãakd« brŒa¥gL« cW¥Ãd®fë‹ v©â¡if A 12 B 14 C 16 D 18 The number of persons nominated by President in Rajya Saba A 12 B 14 C 16 D 18 118. _‹W khãy§fëš mikªJŸs ôåa‹ Ãunjr« A ilô, lhk‹ B jh¤uh ehf® iAntè C r©of® D òJ¢nrç The Union Territory that is located in three State A Dieu, Damen B Dadra-Nagar Highvalley C Chandigar D Puducherry 33
119. ϪÂahé‹ bkh¤j gu¥gsÎ A 32 87, 263 r.».Û. C 34 88, 326 r.».Û. The total area of India A 32 87, 263 Sq.Km C 34 88, 326 Sq.Km 120. A C
B D
31 87, 263 r.».Û. 32 86, 362 r.».Û.
B 31 87, 263 Sq.Km D 32 86, 362 Sq.Km
muÁaš ã®za rigæ‹ Kjš T£l¤Â‰F jiyik t»¤jt® lh¡l® Ã.M®. m«ng¤fh® B lh¡l®. r¢Ájhdªj Á‹fh lh¡l® nf.v«. K‹î D lh¡l® Ïuhn#ªÂu Ãurh¤
The first meeting of constituent Assembly was presided by A Dr. B.R. Ambedkar B Dr. Sachidananda Sinha C Dr. K.M. Munshi D Dr. Rajendra Prasad 121. midtU¡F« fšé tH§F« muÁayik¥Ã‹ ÃçÎ A ru¤J 43 B ru¤J 44 C ru¤J 45 D ru¤J 41 The Article which deals with ‘Education for All’ A Article 43 B Article 44 C Article 45 D Article 41 122. A
rhujh r£l« bfh©L tu¥g£l M©L 1927 B 1929 C 1937
‘Saradha Act’ was enacted in the year A 1927 B 1929 C 1937 123. A
D 1939
D 1939
cyf t§» v‹gJ IMF B IBRD
C ILO
D IPU
World Bank means A IMF B IBRD
C ILO
D IPU
124. A
ϪÂahéš äf mÂfkhf ngr¥gL« Ïu©lhtJ ϪÂa bkhê t§fhs« B bjY§F C f‹dl« D xçah
The second Indian language which is widely spoken in India A Bengali B Telugu C Kannada D Oriya 125. ϪÂahéš njÁa kåj cçikfŸ Miza« V‰gL¤j¥g£l M©L A 1991 B 1992 C 1993 D 1994 In India, the National Human Rights Commission was established in the year A 1991 B 1992 C 1993 D 1994 34
126.
A B C D
The A B C D 127.
bghUëaè‹ mo¥gil¡ TWfŸ c‰g¤Â, bjhêš, tUkhd« c‰g¤Â, bjhêš, Ef®¢Á c‰g¤Â, Ef®¢Á, g»®Î c‰g¤Â, g»®Î, tUkhd«
basic features of Economics are Production, Labour, Income Production, Labour, Consumption Production, Distribution, Consumption Production, Distribution, Income
A C
bghUëaè‹ jªij vd miH¡f¥gLgt® #h‹ kh®õš B Ml« °ä¤ fhuš kh®¡° D khšö°
The Father of Economics A John Marshall C Karl Marx 128. A C
khd£lh v‹gJ cnuhkhåa bg© flΟ nuhkhåa efu«
B Adam Smith D Malthus B cnuhkhåa czÎ tif D cnuhkhåa vG¤J Kiw
‘Manatta’ means A Women Goddess of Romans C Town in Rome 129.
A
B Cuisine of Romans D Script of Romans
Nça¡ FL«g¤Âš NçaD¡F äf mU»š cŸs nfhŸ? óä B òj‹ C br›thŒ D be¥oô‹
Which is the nearest planet to the sun in the solar system? A Earth B Mercury C Mars D Jupiter 130. A C
nuhk‹¢ Mœflš gF mikªJŸs bgU§flš m£yh©o¡ bgU§flš B ϪÂa bgU§flš gÁá bgU§flš D m©lh®o¡ bgU§flš
Romanche deep sea lies in A Atlantic Ocean C Pacific Ocean 131. jäœeh£oš bkh¤j¥ gu¥ò A 1,30058 r.».Û. C 1,40078 r.».Û. Total area of Tamil Nadu A 1,30058 Sq.Km C 1,40078 Sq.Km
B Indian Ocean D Antarctic Ocean B 2,20060 r.».Û. D 3,60004 r.».Û B D
2,20060 Sq.Km 3,60004 Sq.Km 35
132. rçahd n#hofis¤ nj®ªbjL¡fΫ m) ä°luš-Mš¥° M) Áuh¡nfh-M°Ânuèah Ï) ÿ-uZah <) Á}¡-k¤Âa M¥Ãç¡fh A
M&Ï
B Ï&<
C < k£L«
D m k£L«
Select the correct pairs a) Mistral-Alps b) Sirocco-Australia c) Loo-Russia d) Chinook-Central Africa A
b&c
B c&d
C Only d
D Only a
133. ϪÂa £l neu¤ij¡ fz¡»l cjΫ Ô®¡fnuif vªj ϪÂa efu¤Â‹ têna¢ brš»wJ? A b#Œ¥ó® B érhf¥g£od« C myfhgh¤ D Nu¤ The Longitude that determines Indian Standard Time passes through the city of A Jaipur B Visakkapattinam C Allahabad D Surat 134. A C
bt©ik¥ òu£Á v©bzŒ é¤J¡fŸ ghš bghU£fŸ
White Revolution A Oil seeds C Milk Products 135. A
B gH c‰g¤Â D K£il k‰W« nfhê¥g©iz B Fruit Production D Egg and Poultry
Ñœ¡f©lt‰¿š vJ Ôgf‰g« M°Ânuèah B #¥gh‹ C I°yhªJ
Find out the peninsula from the following A Australia B Japan C Iceland 136.
A C
D mnuÃah
D Arabia
thåiy kh‰w§fS¡fhd tëk©ly mL¡F moaL¡F B gilaL¡F maåaL¡F D btëaL¡F
The Atmospheric layer of weather changes A Troposphere B Stratosphere C Ionosphere D Exosphere 137. cy»‹ bkh¤j ãy¥gu¥Ãš _‹¿š xU gF ãy¥gu¥ig j‹df¤nj bfh©LŸs bgU§flš A g Áá bgU§flš B m£yh©o¡ bgU§flš C ϪÂa¥ bgU§flš D M®¡o¡ bgU§flš
36
Which Ocean has one third of land surface in the world A Pacific Ocean B Atlantic Ocean C Indian Ocean D Arctic Ocean 138.
cy»‹ äf¥bgça Ú®¢rªÂ A nlé° Ú®¢rªÂ B gh¡ Ú®¢rªÂ C nghnuh Ú®¢rªÂ D lh®lh® Ú®¢rªÂ
World’s largest strait A Davis strait C Borro strait 139.
B Palk strait D Tartar strait
mÂfkhd c¥ò¤j‹ik (Salinity) bfh©l Ú®ãiy A fh°Ãa‹ flš B th‹ Vç C rh¡flš D c£lh Vç
The highest salinity is found in the waterbody A Caspian sea B Van lake C Dead sea D Lake of Uttah 140. ÑnH cŸs ãy¤njh‰w¤Âš vJ gåah‰¿‹ braèdhš cUthdJ mšy A U tot gŸs¤jh¡F B r®¡ C bjh§F« gŸs¤jh¡F D vJΫ Ïšiy Which is not the work of the glacier from the following? A U shaped valley B Cirque C Hanging Valley D None of these 141. Ñœ¡fhQ« gl« cz®¤JtJ
Nça‹
A C
Nça »ufz« rªÂu »ufz«
rªÂ‹
òé
B bgs®zä D mkhthir
The following diagram indicates
Sun
A C
Solar eclipse Lunar eclipse
Moon
Earth
B Full moon D New moon 37
142. A
kiyfS¡fhd cyf mséš V‰W¡ bfhŸs¥g£l ãw« Úy« B g¢ir C kŠrŸ D gG¥ò
Universally accepted colour for mountain A Blue B Green C Yellow 143.
Ãiw¢ rªÂu tot ‘g®fh‹-š’ fh‰W ÅR« Âir 1 1
2 4
A
D Brown
1
3
B 2
C 3
D 4
On which direction the predominant wind blows in the crescent shaped Barchan 1 A
2 B 4 D
A
1
B 2
3 C
C 3
144. mÂfkhd bt¥gãiy ãyΫ ϪÂa efu« A b#Œrhšk® B $ f§fhef® C áfÜ®
D 4
D m{Û®
Highest temperature is found in India at A Jaisalmer B Sri Ganganagar C Bikaner D Ajmer 145. A C
c¥ò¤j‹ikia (Salinity) ms¡f cjΫ fUé yhnfh Û£l® B mšo Û£l® vby¡£ç¡ Û£l® D ghnuh Û£l®
Salinity is measured by A Laco meter C Electric Salinity meter
B Altimeter D Barometer
38
146. vªj m£rnuiffS¡F Ïilæš nlhšou«° mik»wJ A 30º k‰W« 40º t & bj m£r« B 35º k‰W« 60º t & bj m£r« C 5º k‰W« 30º t & bj m£r« D 5º k‰W« 50º t & bj m£r« ‘Doldrums’ lie roughly between A 30º and 40º N & S latitude B 35º and 60º N & S latitude C 5º and 30º N & S latitude D 5º and 50º N & S latitude 147. ϪÂahéš et«g® Kjš Ã¥utç tiu Fë®fhy«, #]‹ Kjš br¥l«g® tiu kiH¡fhy«, nfhil¡fhy« v¥nghJ? A Ã¥utç-kh®¢ B #]‹ k¤ÂæèUªJ-m¡nlhg® kh®¢-#]‹ C D br¥l«g®-or«g® In India from Nov to Feb is winter, June to Sep is rainy reason, when is summer season? A Feb to March B Middle of June to October C March to June D Sep to Dec 148. bgça tiugl msitia nj®ªbjL¤J vGJf. A 1:50,000 B 1:00,000 C 1:250,000 D vJΫ Ïšiy A
Choose the largest map scale from the following 1:50,000 B 1:00,000 C 1:250,000 D None of these 149. xnu msΟs fh‰wG¤j¤Âid bfh©l bt›ntW Ïl§fis Ïiz¡F« nfhLfŸ A rk cau¡nfhL B rk mG¤j¡nfhL C rkbt¥g¡nfhL D iAj®»uh¥ The lines that adjoin different places with the same pressure A Contour B Isobar C Isotherm D Hythergraph 150.
ãytiugl§fis f£lik¡F« m¿éaš nlh¥ngh»uhà A fh®nlh»uhà B blnkh»uhà òéæaš C D
The science of constructing map A Cartography B Topography C Demography D Geography ---------------------------
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