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CHIEF EDITOR Vivek S Raj ASSOCIATE EDITOR Vinita S Raj EDITOR AND BUREAU CHIEF R K Singh, Ex-civil Servant EXECUTIVE EDITORS Abhinav Mathur, Nitesh Khabrani EDITOR (HON.) Dr. Apporva ASSISTANT EDITOR Vishi S Raj EDITORIAL BOARD Manish Singh, Prof. R K Singh, Saurabh Agrawal, M.S. Yadav, Rohini Sarkar, Aditya Bhardwaj, Sneha Subscription Queries: 09871220001
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Contents EDITORIAL / MY PAGE
A Time for Introspection Evaluation is not an easy thing. You have to be more than rational; more than anything else. It requires the best. Even the best is not sufficient. No act can be analyzed without going into its context. The same context is never repeated. The same circumstances can be imagined but cannot be recreated or reproduced. The same frame of mind cannot be recreated. The postanalysis of any action is bound to be biased, partial and incomplete. Any analysis of the post-action must consider the inherent limitations, exigencies and constraints. Any organization which is not financially independent is bound to overlook mistakes and at times adhere to nepotism for its existence. It is nothing but ...
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Rise and fall of the United Nations It is conflict that often beckons peace and unity. It is perhaps a malady of human nature that the cherished values of peace and unity, which are most fundamental to human progress, are never better felt than in times of conflict. More severe the conflict, greater the need for peace and unity. The history of human civilization has also been the history of human conflict and wars and the consequent craving for peace and unity. It is therefore unsurprising that the call for global unity came in the aftermath of a global war, namely World War I. The League of Nations which was the brainchild of President Woodrow Wilson of USA may have failed to prevent another world war but it nonetheless laid the foundation of its ...
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CURRENT INTERNATIONAL
10th Summit of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization The mid- 1990s was a turbulent period in Central Asia with the region reconciling with the collapse of the erstwhile Soviet Union. Bereft of the tight control of its mother state, the newly independent Central Asian republics faced political instability, religious fundamentalism and disputes over bordering areas. As the region whose strategic importance had at one point of time in history made it the chessboard of international politics and involved the great powers of the late 19th and early 20th centuries in the ‘Great Game’ seemed to steadily hurtle towards ...
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Strategic Weapons: UAV Rustom-1 22 Bahrain: Emergency lifted but suppression 23
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continues INTERNATIONAL CURRENT
DTAAs to curb black money DTAAs: India signed with Tanzania and Ethiopia India and Singapore: Signed protocol to amend DTAA Japan: Reviewing energy policy Syrian Conundrum: Wrong lessons from Jasmine Revolution European Union: CD on Chinese Paper Portugal: EU-IMF bailout deal World Bank Report: On new world order India and US : $50m Fund clean technology Britain: Referendum on voting India and Australia: FTA talks for further
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Iceland: Volcano erupts Egypt: Opens Gaza Border Crossing Tibet: Devolution of Political Powers Germany: Abandonment of nuclear energy Yemen: Instability looming large India and Pakistan: Demilitarisation
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Date Line
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USA: Extends Patriot Act India and Russia: War games Samoa: Shift back west of International India and Afghanistan: MoU on IT Turkey: Summit on LDCs
24 STRATEGIZE YOUR ESSAY WRITING SKILLS 27 ANALYSING MODERN HISTORY QUESTIONS 68 SOLVED CSAT PAPER 2011 78 STRATEGY FOR SOLVING CSAT 90 SOLVED GS PAPER 2011 WITH STRATEGY 129 SHORT NEWS
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Evaluating United Nations
A Time for Introspection
E
valuation is not an easy thing. You have to be more than rational; more than anything else. It requires the best. Even the best is not sufficient. No act can be analyzed without going into its context. The same context is never repeated. The same circumstances can be imagined but cannot be recreated or reproduced. The same frame of mind cannot be recreated. The post-analysis of any action is bound to be biased, partial and incomplete. Any analysis of the post-action must consider the inherent limitations, exigencies and constraints. Any organization which is not financially independent is bound to overlook mistakes and at times adhere to nepotism for its existence. It is nothing but natural. And hence, UN cannot be an exception. The motives behind the formation of the UN were to appease haves and super powers. It is very much evident from very concept of veto power and the composition its security council. They have remained the main financers and promoters of UN. Considering these inherent limitations, the UN has performed reasonably well. The UN successfully managed to avoid the third world war during the cold war period. The UN has been a highly adaptable institution, one that has evolved in response to changing times. Today, it is struggling hard to cope with the new world order of unipolarism and globalization. The genesis of UN failure at significant point lies in the fact that it is still dominated by the P-5 and proper democratization and expansion of the organization has yet to take place. The world body has failed to reflect the democratic aspira-
tion of the world. Without being democratic itself, it talks of democratization of the world. Rise of the United Nations 1. First and foremost it has prevented the occurrence of any further world wars. 2. Instrumental in the maintenance of international ‘balance of power’. 3. Significant role in disarming the world and making it nuclear free. Various treaty negotiations like ‘Partial Test Ban Treaty’ and ‘Nuclear non-proliferation treaty’ have been signed under UN umbrella. 4. Demise of colonialism and imperialism on one hand and apartheid on the other had UN sanctions behind them. 5. Acted as vanguard for the protection of human rights of the people of the world. (Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948). 6. Despite crippled by Bretton Woods Institutions, UN has played limited but effective role on economic matters. Supported the North-South dialogue and aspired for emergence of new international economic order. 7. Agencies of UN, like WHO, UNICFF, UNESCO have keenly participated in the transformation of the international social sector. 8. Peace keeping operations, peaceful resolution of disputes and refugee concerns had always been on the list of core issues. AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No. 08 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
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9. Since 1945, the UN has been credited with negotiating 172 peaceful settlements that have ended regional conflicts. 10. The world body was also instrumental in institutionalization of international laws and world legal frame work. 11. Passage of various conventions and declarations on child, women, climate, etc, highlights the extra-political affairs of the otherwise political world body. 12. It has successfully controlled the situation in Serbia, Yugoslavia and Balkan areas. Failure of the United Nations 1. UN opinion on Hungary and Czechoslovakia were ignored by the erstwhile Soviet Union in 1950s. 2. Israel had been taking unilateral action through decades in its geographical vicinity and the issue of middle-east remains far from its settlement. The role of UN has been completely undermined by the United States of America. Further, the United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL) was failed to assist the LAF in taking steps towards the establishment between the Blue Line and the Litani river of an free of any armed personnel, assets and weapons other than those of the Government of Lebanon and of UNIFIL deployed in this area. UN Security Council resolution 1701 had aimed of disarming the Hezbollah guerilla organization in Lebanon. 3. No emphatic role in crisis of worst kinds like the Cuban Missile Crisis, Vietnam crisis etc. 4. UN was nowhere in the picture when the NATO rained bombs over former Yugoslavia. 5. Uni-polarity and unilateralism has shaken the relevance of the world body. Unilateral action in Iraq was bereft of UN sanction. 6. It has failed to generate a universal consensus to protect the deteriorating world climate. 7. Number of nuclear powers in the world has kept on increasing. 8. Could not control the horizontal expansion and proliferation of weapons and arms. 9. Financial dependence on the industrialized nations has at times deviated Civil Services
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UN from neutrality and impartiality. 10. The disarmament treaties have failed to make the world free from nuclear weapons and the expected results of FMCT, NPT, START, etc could not be seen as a watershed in the realm of continued race for weapons of mass destruction. 11. The UN was totally exposed in the case of US invasion on Iraq in name for the search weapon of mass destruction. The United Nations has failed to solve crisis in Somalia, Sudan and many African countries and has left them into mess. By and large, United Nations Operation in Somalia II (UNOSOM II) II was a failure. It failed to address the root of the problems in Somalia, failed to disarm or capture Aidid, and made no progress in restructuring the government. The Haskanita massacre in Sudan still marks the memory and symbolizes the failure of the UN mission. In Sudan, over 2 million people got killed and UN did nothing significant to protect them. The UN has admitted that peacekeepers were wrong to stay in barracks during recent fighting between northern and southern Sudan in which hundreds of people died and caused tens of thousands to flee. 12. UN has accepted the fact that U.N. peacekeepers in Rwanda stood by as Hutu slaughtered some 800,000 Tutsi. In Bosnia, the UN declared safe areas for Muslims but did nothing to secure them, letting the Serbs slaughter thousands in Srebrenica. 13. The Security Council couldn’t agree on any criticism for North Korea’s unprovoked attack on South Korea’s Yeonpyeong Island on November 23, 2010, its second in less than a year. These limitations and outmoded performances clearly indicate for complete rejuvenation and restructuring of the United Nations. A new funding system along with restructured Security Council is the need of the hour. The incessant violation of human and democratic rights have shown that the world body needs better orientation and approach towards dealing the challenges of 21st century world. If UN continues to handle sensitive issues such an inept manner then it is bound to create a recipe for war.
(Vivek S. Raj) AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No. 08 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
Rise and fall of the
United Nations
By Aneesh Sarkar*
I
t is conflict that often beckons peace and unity. It is perhaps a malady of human nature that the cherished values of peace and unity, which are most fundamental to human progress, are never better felt than in times of conflict. More severe the conflict, greater the need for peace and unity. The history of human civilization has also been the history of human conflict and wars and the consequent craving for peace and unity. It is therefore unsurprising that the call for global unity came in the aftermath of a global war, namely World War I. The League of Nations which was the brainchild of President Woodrow Wilson of USA may have failed to prevent another world war but it nonetheless laid the foundation of its more successful successor, the United Nations. Established officially on 24th October 1945 with the multiple aims of stopping future wars; providing a platform for dialogue to resolve global and international conflicts; facilitating cooperation in international law, international security, economic development, social progress and human rights; and with the overarching goal
of ensuring world peace, the UN was assigned a Herculean task in a world emerging out of nuclear attacks. The path ahead of it was never destined to be easy even as criticisms came thick and fast. Debates as to its nature, legality, structure, composition etc continue to this day and promise to be more heated in the days ahead. At the age of 66, the UN despite its many contributions to world peace and conflict- resolutions continues to be haunted by questions of its relevance as it battles to prevent humanitarian crises in many parts of the world. The nations of the world whom it has relentlessly served for the last six and a half decades remain united in calling for reforms within it and yet undivided over the nature of those reforms. Set up as a ‘world moderator’ as described by US President Franklin D. Roosevelt, one of the leading lights of the UN and not by any stretch of imagination as a world government, the world’s largest international organization having a present membership of 192 countries was never really given the powers that it needed to adequately fulfill the responsibilities bestowed on it by its charter. The UN comprises six principal organs, namely the General Assembly, which is the main assembly for deliberations on international issues; the Security Council which is the main decision-making body responsible for resolutions relating to peace and security; the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC), which assists in promoting international economic development and social cooperation; 10
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the Secretariat which provides studies, information and facilities needed by the UN; and the now obsolete Trusteeship Council. Of these, only the Security Council has any teeth with its resolutions being binding on the memberstates. The remaining organs can only pass resolutions which are essentially recommendatory in nature. Its founders visualized the UN as a forum for deliberations as an alternate way to resolve conflict between nations as opposed to war. But they were cautious enough to ensure that the UN did not become a supranational behemoth whose mandates would allow it to intervene in the independent decisions of sovereign states. Thus the UN was made deliberately weak and predominantly a suggestive international organization, whose significance was to be more moral than legal. The only organ of the UN which was given the power to enforce decisions was the Security Council, which in turn became the monopoly of the victors of World War IIUSA, UK, France, Russia and China, who popularly came to be known as the P5. Significantly, the term ‘United Nations’ was first used by President Roosevelt to refer to the Allied powers. The organization due to its power structure gradually became the handmaid of the P5, the permanent representatives of the UNSC, having the exclusive veto power by which they could prevent any resolution from passing, irrespective of the majority support that resolution may have garnered in the General Assembly. This made the UN patently undemocratic. The rationale behind conferring veto power to the big five was to ensure that any binding UN resolution could only be passed subject to superpower consensus. It was felt that to prevent any major conflict, it was necessary to have all the superpowers to agree on any particular issue on which the world might want to act through the UN, otherwise UN action might trigger off hostile reaction from any superpower opposed to such action thereby risking nuclear war, the prevention of which was the UN’s fundamental objective. However, this scheme of affairs ended up in paralyzing the organization which stood like a helpless spectator in the heydays of the Cold War when any action proposed against a belligAUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No. 08 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
erent nation was usually vetoed by the USA or the Soviet Union depending on which bloc the nation belonged to. The ideals of peace of the UN remained hostage to the relentless arms race between the Western and Soviet blocs; an arms race the UN was ill- equipped to ward off. The choices of the UN Secretary- General, the chief administrative officer of the global body so far has also made it clear that the world looks at the UN as a backstage facilitator cum negotiator rather than a vigorous, proactive peace- builder. In the initial days of the UN, many prominent global leaders were overlooked in favor of relatively lesser known, sedentary personalities for the post of the Secretary- General. The trend has continued ever since. The functioning of the UN for all these years has made it clear that whatever democratic nature it has tried to retain
western countries in the Security Council and in particular the USA and UK have often not seen eye- to- eye with China and Russia. In many cases decisive international action was halted by threats of veto. The misuse of the veto power has been rampant. This special power has often been used by the members of the P5 to shield their allies from facing international action or condemnation. For instance, since the early 1980s the US vetoed 32 UNSC resolutions targeting Israel which was more than the total number of vetoes by all other Security Council members. Regarding the divisions within the Security Council, there have been persistent allegations that the USA, UK and France tend to meet privately, take decisions and thereafter present their resolutions to the full Security Council. The superiority of the P5 within the
is in terms of debates and discussions in the General Assembly, which is like a world parliament. However in terms of executive decision- making, the UN has been anything but democratic and has been more like an oligarchy where the writ of a handful prevail. In fact, after the end of the Cold War, analysts had hoped that the UNSC would be at last able to bring about consensus when it came to taking action on genocides, humanitarian crises and war crimes. Such optimism was however short- lived as the UNSC continued and even to this day continues to suffer from the hangover of the Cold War. On major international issues, the
scheme of affairs in the UN has also prevented the international body from changing with time and becoming more reflective of the changing power equations in the world. The P5 nations were the dominant economic, political and military nations in the world of 1945. While the US remains the most powerful nation in the world even today and China and Russia have increased their clouts making them fit candidates for the elite power clubs, UK and France after the loss of their colonial empires are no longer the powers today that they were six and a half decades back. Further, countries like Japan and Germany, who were left
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out of the P5 mainly because they ended up on the losing side in World War II have been making justified demands for a berth in the UN high table. At the same time countries like India and Brazil which have witnessed brisk economic progress over the last one and half decades and which have emerged as dominant regional powers are ready to take their rightful place in the UNSC as permanent members with veto powers. However the UN remains stiffly resistant to change as the power clique in the Security Council refuses to allow any new entrant to the big boy’s club. Apart from being status - quoist and non- representative of global realities, the UNSC has been criticized for protecting the strategic interests of its permanent members even when passing resolutions for dealing with humanitarian crises. For instance, the UNSC was very prompt in intervening in oil- rich Kuwait when the latter was under attack from Iraq and yet remained indifferent to the genocide in resource- poor Rwanda. Another serious problem which has reared its head time and again is the manner of election of the non- permanent members of the UNSC. Possible candidates for non- permanent membership from a particular geographic region are proposed by the regional blocs and thereafter elected by the General Assembly. A result of this procedure has been that the non- permanent members from the Middle- East have been proposed by the Arab League which has inevitably chosen Arab countries and side- lined arch- rival Israel, which is located in the same geographic region. It is noteworthy that Israel has so far never been elected to the UNSC though many Arab countries have been elected. The most glaring failures of the UN however have been in its inability to respond to some of the severest humanitarian crises across the world. One such notable crisis was the Rwandan genocide of 1994 in which an approximate 8, 00,000 comprising about 20% of the country’s population was wiped out. The genesis of the genocide was the long history of ethnic conflict between the majority Hutu tribe and the minority Tutsi tribe. Trouble first broke out; when in 1990 the Rwandan Patriotic Front (RPF) comprising Tutsi AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No. 08 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
tribesmen invaded northern Rwanda from neighboring Uganda in a bid to overthrow the Hutu led government, thus triggering off a civil war. While the Tutsis were backed by the Ugandan government, the Hutus had the support of France and the Francophone nations of Africa. After intense fighting a ceasefire was agreed upon by the Hutu-led government of Juvenal Habyarimana in 1993. The unfortunate assassination of Habyarimana soon thereafter resulted in subsequent mass killings of Tutsis and pro- peace Hutus, who were labeled as ‘traitors’ by members of the Hutu group named Akazu. The massacre had the support of the government which blamed the Tutsis for Habyarimana’s death. As the killings perpetrated by the country’s military and the Hutu militia continued unabated, the Tutsi dominated RPF began its armed retaliation. They ultimately managed to defeat the military and seize control of the government. The magnitude of the tragedy can be understood from the fact that the military commanders of the UN Assistance Mission for Rwanda (UNAMIR) had got prior information as to the way things may unfold and yet despite their repeated pleas they were not authorized by the UN to intervene and prevent the impending genocide. In the end when the violence, which could have been prevented by timely intervention, began to spread the UN had but only itself to blame for not paying heed to the advice of its commanders. In 2000, the UN admitted that it had utterly failed in preventing the genocide. The lessons from the Rwandan genocide seemed lost on the UN when it failed to prevent the 2nd Congo War, also known as the Great War of Africa, a war which lasted five years from 1998 to 2003 and which was the largest in modern African history having involved 8 nations and 25 armed groups. It was considered to be the 14
deadliest worldwide conflict since World War II having accounted for nearly 5.8 million people, who perished not only from war but also from starvation and disease. The war once again pitted the Hutu and Tutsi aligned forces against one another. Among the countries involved, on one side were the Democratic Republic of Congo, Namibia, Zimbabwe, Angola, Chad whereas on the other were Uganda, Rwanda and Burundi. While the Hutu forces sided with the former set of countries, the Tutsis sided with the latter. This was one occasion where the UN failed miserably in preventing a war of global scale. If one thought that the massacres in
Rwanda and the Democratic Republic of Congo were the last ones that Africa saw, they were mistaken. What was in store for Darfur in Sudan at the turn of the new millennium was no less gory. The crisis in Sudan began in February 2003 when the Sudan Liberation Movement/ Army (SLM/A) and the Justice and Equality Movement (JEM) groups in Darfur, comprising of nonArab Muslim ethnic groups Fur, Zaghwa and Masalit began accusing the Sudanese government of oppressing non- Arab Sudanese people in favor of Sudanese Arabs. The matter soon snowballed into a full- fledged ethnic conflict when the Sudanese military, Civil Services
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police and the dreaded Janjaweed, a militia group recruited from the Arab Abbala nomadic tribes of North Rizeigat region in Sudan began combined attacks on the non- Arabs. As the rich oil revenues of Sudan began to be used for funding the Janjaweed militia, the latter with official backing went on the rampage turning the situation from one of ethnic conflict to ethnic cleansing, even as the world and Africa watched in horror. Analysts well versed with African conflicts sensed deep Arab prejudices against African Muslim tribes as well as the differing economic styles of nomadic Arab tribes and settled agriculture practicing nonArab African tribes as prevalent factors which fuelled the genocide. A shocked UN tried intervening in Sudan with the US, UK, France and many non- permanent members favoring the oft - used though often ineffective measure of economic sanctions and arms embargo against the Sudanese government. UNSC efforts to pass resolutions imposing sanctions on Sudan were however nullified by China which threatened to veto the resolution. The official Chinese objection to sanctions was that it was not convinced that it would be the best way of dealing with the situation. However, the real reason, according to many international analysts was that China was eyeing the lucrative Sudanese oil resources which would remain out of bounds in case of UN financial embargo on the African country. China got some support in its stand from Russia which had its own reasons for opposing the West. Unable to impose sanctions through the UN, the West nonetheless placed its own financial and arms embargos on Sudan, which however remained ineffective as the Chinese and to a certain extent the Russians continued their economic support to Sudan. The West’s sanctions only had the effect of leaving the Sudanese oil resources open to the Chinese for exploitation without any competition from the West. As utilitarian concerns once again took the upper-hand over a humanitarian crisis, the UNSC after much deliberation managed to pass resolution 1564 in 2004 through which it referred the matter to the International Criminal Court (ICC). The prosecutor of the ICC charged the Sudanese President, Al AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No. 08 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
Bashir with genocide, crimes against humanity and murder and issued a warrant in his name. Rather than having a deterrent effect on the Sudanese government, all that the warrant did was harm a tentative peace- process that the government had reached with the rebels, courtesy international pressure. Bashir threw out many international organizations that were engaged in giving humanitarian aid, thus precipitating the crisis. The rebels also pulled out of the peace process saying that the ICC warrant was proof that the President was a criminal. The Arab League and the African Union condemned the warrant which did more harm than good. The governments of Qatar and Egypt chose not to arrest Bashir on the basis of the warrant when the latter went to these countries on official visits. The UN failed to send forces to Sudan due to the lack of funds and military support of rich nations and left it to the AU to deploy a token force without giving it a clear mandate to protect civilians. The AU force expectedly failed in protecting civilians even as nearly 5 million people were affected by the conflict. An uneasy ceasefire agreement was reached in February 2010 even as allegations of its violation by the government continue. The role of the UN with respect to Somalia, a country which is all but a failed state has also been highly inadequate and ineffective. Civil war broke out in Somalia in 1991 and with the Americans eager to explore possibilities of oil discovery in that country based on a report, the UN did not find it much difficult to authorize the United Nations Operations in Somalia (UNOSOM I) in 1992 through UNSC resolution 746. The UNOSOM I was however a limited peacekeeping mission aimed at curtailing the civil war which had taken its toll on the Somali economy. The use of force by the peacekeepers was only to be in self-defence. The mission though originally welcomed was thereafter disregarded, mainly by 16
the general cum warlord Mohammed Farrah Aidid who proclaimed himself to be the President in waiting. As violence continued, the US organized a military coalition named the United Task Force (UNITAF) to bring back order in the country and got it approved by UNSC resolution 794. The US eagerness to send its own forces had more to do with the opportunity of finding oil in the country than to protect Somali lives. The UNITAF stepped into Somalia in December 1992 under the mission name Operation Restore Hope. They did succeed in living up to their mission name and restored not only order and hope but also helped in alleviating the famine in Somalia. Their mission achieved, the UNITAF withdrew and was replaced by UNOSOM II in May 1993. But trou-
ble lurked round the corner for UNOSOM II as Mohammed Aidid saw this force as a threat to his power and ambitions. His militia began targeting the mission and UNOSOM II suffered its most severe casualty when in June 1993, Aidid’s militia killed Pakistani peacekeepers operating within the mission. This resulted in outbreak of fighting. In October 1993 under US leadership a raid was launched in the Somali capital Mogadishu where most of Aidid’s militia commanders were holed up. Fierce fighting took place in what was known as the 1st Battle of Mogadishu. Though many militia leaders were captured and killed, the operation cost 19 US soldiers and 1 Malaysian soldier their lives besides causing heavy collateral damage in the form of 1000 dead civilians. By this time, American hopes of oil too had dimmed and amidst huge public outcry in the USA Civil Services
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due to the death of its soldiers, the US government pulled out its forces. The UN followed suit in 1995 leaving Somalia in the woes of war. The nation has never quite recovered ever since. While Africa has borne much of the brunt of the UN’s failures, Europe too had its own bitter experiences, the most prominent among which was the genocide which took place in Srebrenica, a place in Bosnia & Herzegovina in 1995. Over 8000 Bosnian Muslims were butchered by the self- proclaimed Army of Republika Srpska (VRS) comprising of Bosnian Serbs and commanded by General Ratko Mladic dur-
ing the Bosnian war. The ‘Scorpions’, a paramilitary unit which for a timebeing was attached to the Serbian military and the Greek Volunteer Guard took active part in the massacre, which was the largest mass killings in Europe after World War II. The UN Protection Force (UNPROFOR), which came into existence through UN Security Council resolution 836 and which had declared Srebrenica as a ‘safe area’ for Bosnian Muslims utterly failed to prevent the town from falling into the hands of the Mladic- led VRS and being subsequently massacred. Eventually it was left to the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) to bomb the VRS after the UNPORFOR sought its help. The Kosovo war may well have seen genocides similar to the ones in the Bosnian war had it not been for the swift and timely intervention of the NATO in the form of air strikes against Yugoslav President Slobodan Milosevic’s forces. It was only after the NATO bombings forced Milosevic into AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No. 08 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
signing the Dayton Peace Accord that the path was paved for the entry of the UN in Kosovo. If Europe has seen lesser humanitarian crises than Africa in the last two decades it was to a great extent due to the presence of the NATO rather than due to better performance of the UN in the continent. The US war on Iraq in 2003 showed that a powerful nation like the US could simply wish aside global opinion reflected through the UN if it desired. The invasion of Iraq by the Americans undoubtedly undermined the UN’s already diminishing influence and made it appear more like an instrument in the hands of the big powers, which if ineffective can be easily sidelined. Another major criticism of the UN has been its handling of Israel-Palestinian conflicts. Many analysts, especially western ones feel that the UN has been too harsh on Israel on the latter’s human rights violations with respect to the Palestinians. They insist that countries like China, Russia, North Korea, Saudi Arabia, Syria etc have indulged in much more human rights violations and yet have hardly faced the kind of flak that Israel has. This supposed bias against Israel was best reflected in UN General Assembly resolution 3379 which shockingly equated Zionism with racism and has been cited as proof of the UN’s latent anti- Zionism or anti- Semitism. Resolution 3379 was the only resolution which was, quite rightly withdrawn. The UN invitation to the Palestinian Liberation Organization (PLO) leader Yasser Arafat to address the General Assembly in 1974 and 1988 was also sharply criticized by many international commentators and world leaders who felt that the move amounted to legitimizing the PLO without adequately pressurizing it to give up its terrorist activities. On another occasion, when Israel in a daring raid at Entebbe airport in Uganda saved Israeli hostages who had 17
been hijacked by Palestinian militants and kept captive at the airport with full backing from the then Ugandan dictator, Idi Amin, the UN Secretary General of the time to the surprise of much of the international community claimed that the raid had been a violation of Ugandan sovereignty without even once questioning the manner in which the hostages had been held. The invitation to Yasser Arafat and the failure of the UN to reign in armed militias before they perpetrate crimes against humanity have given credence to the belief that the UN has a tendency to elevate so - called ‘national liberation movements’ and armed groups, who use violence as a tool to attain political goals, to the status of civilians. A diametrically opposite viewpoint is held by those critics who insist that the UN protects the interests of autocratic national governments only without caring to protect the citizens of the nation. It has also been said that the UN is undemocratic in the sense that it does not allow for the separation of powers and vests the Security Council with legislative, executive and judicial powers. The UN has also got itself embroiled in controversy over its Population Fund, which has been accused of supporting national government programs which promote forced abortions and coercive sterilization. For instance, the UNFPA funded Peru’s population control program in mid - to - late 1990s. It was revealed that the program had indulged in forced sterilizations. Despite such facts coming to light the UNFPA continued its funding of the program amidst criticism from various corners. The controversies surrounding the UNFPA resulted in US Republican administrations under Reagan, Bush Sr and Bush Jr withholding funds to it. UN peacekeeping missions apart from having a chequered report card have also earned a bad name for themselves, especially since 2003, with accusations of child rape, sexual abuse and solicitation of prostitution being labeled against them. Such allegations came up during the missions in Democratic Republic of Congo, Haiti, Liberia, Sudan, Burundi and Cote d’ Ivoire. Studies have also found an increase in prostitution in Cambodia, Mozambique, Bosnia and Herzegovina, and Kosovo ever since the UN missions were launched Civil Services
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in those countries. Last but not the least the UN has not been immune to the taint of corruption with the Oil for Food scandal taking in its fold Kojo Annan, the son of the then UN Secretary- General, Kofi Annan. It is true that the UN has far from lived up to the high ideals and aims that it claims to stand for. It has failed to make the world a less safe place to live in; it has been unable to prevent wars, conflicts and genocides. Much of its failure lies in the fact that it has no financial and military strength of its own and is grossly dependent on its member- states for contributions. It can at most cajole and persuade its members and try to attract their attention to burning global problems. Critics who
dismiss it as irrelevant may do well to remember that despite all its failures the UN has many notable successes to its credit as well. It has undoubtedly done pioneering work in giving humanitarian aid in conflict- torn regions of the world. Its conventions, whether they be against terrorism, transnational organized crime, corruption, weapons of mass destruction, piracy, environmental preservation etc have stimulated debate on many topics of global concern. Its various organs and agencies affiliated to it have done commendable on various spheres of human activity. Its peacekeepers have maintained peace in the most hostile of circumstances under the most trying of conditions. Its humanitarian
Astana Declaration
10th Summit of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization The mid- 1990s was a turbulent period in Central Asia with the region reconciling with the collapse of the erstwhile Soviet Union. Bereft of the tight control of its mother state, the newly independent Central Asian republics faced political instability, religious fundamentalism and disputes over bordering areas. As the region whose strategic importance had at one point of time in history made it the chessboard of international politics and involved the great powers of the late 19th and early 20th centuries in the ‘Great Game’ seemed to steadily hurtle towards chaos, the need for a regional organization, which would act as a stabilizer and help the countries in solving their border disputes, was felt. Out of this thinking emerged the Shanghai Five comprising of China, Russia, Kyrgyzstan, Kazakhstan and Tajikistan with the immediate objective of cooling off border related tensions and putting a check on religious extremism which was resolutely rearing its ugly head. Five years after its creation, the Shanghai Five expanded into the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) on 15th June 2001 with the inclusion of Uzbekistan and the signing by all member- states of the Declaration of Shanghai Cooperation Organization. While the basic nature of the organization as an inter-governmental mutual-security body remained unaltered, it was agreed that cooperation would be taken to a higher level. With an AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No. 08 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
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work throughout the world remains unparalleled. In the area of human rights, it has not only raised awareness, but has also set international benchmarks for the world to follow. It undoubtedly commands tremendous moral clout and nations which tend to disobey the resolutions of its Security Council invariably invite world- wide condemnation and punitive measures in the form of sanctions. A world without the UN today seems unthinkable and therein lies the relevance and significance of the UN. Even its worst critics will admit that in international relations, the UN is the world’s conscience keeper and will continue to be so in the decades to come. * ASP, West Bengal Police unwavering attention on security and military-related matters, the SCO steadily began to expand its scope to incorporate matters predominantly economic in nature such as projects related to energy, transportation, communication and finance, but which also have strategic implications in an increasingly inter- connected and globalized world. Having primarily concentrated on oil-rich Central Asia, the SCO over the last few years has also expanded geographically both to its north in the Eurasian landmass and to its south in South Asia and along with its observer states and dialogue partners, today comprises over half the population of mankind. In its 10th anniversary held in the Kazakh capital Astana, while the SCO did a reminiscence of the past, it also looked forward to the future. The leaders of the grouping admitted that the organization could not possibly have been established at a better time even as the world faced its most devastating terrorist attacks only a few months later on 11th September 2001. The foresight with which the SCO was established with the primary objective of setting up a mechanism for combating the triple evils of ‘separatism, extremism and separatism’ was lost on international analysts in one of the most sensitive landmasses in the globe. So while the SCO managed to keep its memberstates stable with the Regional AntiTerrorism Structure (RATS), which was responsible for preventing numerous terrorist attacks and which claimed Civil Services
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ADVERTISEMENT Social Issues 05. Education Reforms 77. Pains of Transitional Society: The Curse of a Developing Nation 150. Media and Democracy: 'Sting' or 'Stink' Operation 156. Corruption In Government Offices 189. Shrunken World Shrinking Relations 210. Reservation in Private Sector 250. Growing Fundamentalism in India 254. Live - In Relationships 258. Section 377: Should it be wiped out? 286. Sustainability of the Child Labour Act 303. Right to Negative Voting: An Evaluation in Indian Context 315. Raghavan Committee on Ragging 330. Pattern of Voting Behaviour in India 350. Terrorism: Is It Essentially Ideological? 354. Women Reservation: Meaningful or Irrelevant 377. Status of Women: An Introspection is needed 437. Role of media:Beyond TRP and advertisement 456. Trial by media: Looking beyond the pale of legality 502. Right to Education reality, but yet unrealistic 507. Ensure food security: Dismantle middlemen 531. Khap Panchayats: requires reorientation 535. Consensus on Caste-based census 540. Opening higher education to foreign institutions 546. Internal Security: North-eastern scenario 549. Nuclear liability bill: analysing implications 597. Social networking 603. Digital Divide Divides divide 612. From Vedas to Vedanta 638. Role of the Union Public Service Commi-ssion in ensuring Good Governance 661. MNREGA 666. Electoral Reforms 674. Role of Morality and Ethics in Administration 679. Food Security: Need to establish food democracy 696. Public Distribution System Political Issues 11. Good Governance: Tracing Provenance of ill-Governance 15. Regional Disparity: A Source of All Discontent 22. Corruption: Between Needs and Greeds 31. Define Secularism: To boost Nationalism 38. On Mumbai Attack: We Can, but we cannot 53. Good Governance: An Utopian Concept? 58. Internal Security: Streamline or Perish 63. Parochialization of Politics: Pains of Coalition Politics 68. Disaster Management: No Time to Cure, Please 83. Preventive Detention Law and the Rights of an Individual 94. North-east Problems: A Look into their Grievances 98. ULFA in Retrospect 103. Challenges of Terrorism: A Collective Responsibility 106. Criminalization of Politics: Do We Deserve? 134. Non-Proliferation Treaty Privilege of 'Haves' don't review, reform and revamp 140. Regionalism Nationalism and Globalization
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116. Democracy Myth or Reality 121. Kashmir in retrospect: Knowing it Before Egypt Document 126. Governor: His Master’s Voice 170. Challenges Before A Civil Servant 178. Factors To Make and Feel Democracy 184. Centre-State Relations More Grievances Less Commitment 214. Capital Punishment: In Relations to Article 21 217. Democracy: Maturing or Withering 222. Students Politics: Desirable or Undesirable 226. Reservation QUOTA: Progressive or Regressive 233. Expansion of Article 21: Personal Reputation 240. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act and NIA 262. Coastal Security: Need for a complete overhaul 267. Police Reforms: A Must For Good Governance 320. Coalition Politics in India 347. Coalition politics and its impact 368. Abortion Issue and Right to Die 370. Demands for New States: A Balanced Approach Is Needed 381. New Delhi-Beijing-Moscow axis 387. Naxalism: A Threat to Internal Security 396. Pluralism and Federalism: Can Go Together? 399. Right to Information 405. Presidential v Parliamentary 481. Political Corruption Reform funding for political parties? 495. Separation of Power: Fundamentals of Rule of Law 504. Role of hostile witnesses in criminal justice 526. PILs: making more meaningful 543. Centre-state relations: Madan Mohan Punchhi Report 552. On Collegium System: Appointment procedure in retrospect 554. Governor’s removal: preventing pernicious practice 565. Raising FDI in Defence Sector 590. From selection to retirement 620. Kashmir Crisis: Engineered and reengineered 628. MP’s Salary hike 633. Voting rights to NRIs 643. Tracing the roots of scams 708. River disputes and interlinking of rivers Issues related to foreign policies 44. Global Recession: Time For Introspection 134. Non-Proliferation Treaty Privilege of 'Haves' don't review, reform and revamp 175. Perils of Unipolar World 427. Coping with the threat of nuclear menace and new economic order 440. Nuclear non-proliferation without disarmament 446. Relevance of territorial disputes in a globalised world 450. Looking beyond Copenhagen: The last lost opportunity 511. Politics of Appeasement US-Pakistan Strategic Dialogue 515. A good start but where the end lies 580. A world of two unequals: From mindest to machines 657. Preparedness of our society for India’s global leadership Economic Issues 88. Agriculture: A Colossal Neglect 131. Energy Security: The 21st Century Challenge 145. Challenges in the Light of New Economic Order
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163. Tragedy: It’s Not Vidarbha But For Every Indian 194. Looking Beyond 9 Per cent A New Approach is Needed 198. Delinking Nuclear Weapons and Nuclear Energy 203. Nano-Technology: The Future of All Sciences 281. Global Recession: Impact on India 298. Corporate Reforms: The Corporate World After Raju 325. Deflation: Is it Good or Bad? 344. RTAs and Multilateralism: Promoters or Inhibitors 359. Introduction of IT: Advantages and Disadvantages 364. E-Governance: Prospects and Problems 407. Trade Union in IT and BPO 411. FDI in Retail: Analysis and Implications 415. Disinvestment: Prospects and Prevention 419. Challenges Before Indian Economy 423. Fate of FRBMA 425. Goods and Service Tax 466. Tobin Tax: India needs or not 468. Food security or insecurity 473. Commission on Insurance Agents: Swaroop Commission 476. Dollar as common currency SDRs, Euro or Gold 484. Pending Second Generation Reforms 486. Dreaded Drought Furious Floods 490. Land Reforms wisely conceived, poorly executed 522. Learning from Greek crisis fiscal prudence is a must 557. A painful shift from APM to MDPM 569. Analysing two decades of reforms and impact of globalization 583. A Budget bye the common man; far the common man; and off the common man 650. Black Money 688. Food inflation Judiciary 111. Judicial Activism or Judicial Reforms? 238. Appointment of Judges: Law Commission Reports 276. Judicial Reforms: The Need of the Hour 292. Judicial Activism Versus Legislative Activism 310. Judicial Accountability: Regarding Declaration of Judges Assets 335. Contempt of Court: Desirable or Not desirable 339. All India Judicial Services: Creation is Needed or Not Needed 393. Code of Criminal Procedure 463. Cr PC Amendments come into effect: an analysis
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to have nabbed no less than 500 terrorists, Afghanistan, a country having geographic proximity to the SCO found itself virtually in the hands of an extremist regime like the Taliban. As the US, stunned into disbelief at the attack on the World Trade Center and the Pentagon launched its global war on terror against the Taliban regime in Afghanistan and its protectee, the Al Qaeda chief Osama Bin Laden, it was predominantly left to the SCO to ensure that the ripples of the war did not spread further to the Central Asian republics. While on the one hand, the SCO became a check on terrorist activities, on the other it appeared to posture itself as a balance to the West and the NATO for the ten years of its existence. With increased Western military activities in Afghanistan and the setting up NATO and US bases in the Central Asian region due to the war against terror, the SCO at least in its initial years appeared to be a military alliance not only against terrorism and extremism but also against the West. Thus many analysts suggested that with the SCO coming into its own, Central Asia may see a sort of rekindling of the Cold War, with the SCO taking on the role of the erstwhile Warsaw Pact. Certain stands taken by the SCO gave credence to such beliefs. In the 2005 summit, the organization called on the US to withdraw all its forces and shut down all its military bases in SCO member- states. However the SCO avoided being essentially an anti- West organization, thereby preventing a show of strength with the NATO and pushing Central Asia into further destabilization, something which would have defeated the very purpose of its formation. It has at the same time kept a strict eye on possible attempts by NATO to expand beyond the North Atlantic region and further into the Central Asian region in the name of fighting terror. Hence, the SCO has in its recent summit pointed out that it is quite capable of ensuring stability in the region thereby indicating that it sees for itself rather than an ‘outside’ power like NATO the role of a stabilizer in Central Asia. In fact after the death of the dreaded international terrorist Osama Bin Laden at the hands of the US Navy Seals, many analysts feel that the basic purpose of the AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No. 08 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
US military mission in Afghanistan has been fulfilled and the US administration led by President Barack Obama may well come up with a phased force reduction and ultimate withdrawal plan. The gradual disengagement of US forces engaged in conflict in different global flashpoints had in fact been one of the agendas which brought the Obama administration in power. The US administration has even set a tentative deadline of 2014 as the year of total force withdrawal from Afghanistan. That then would leave the SCO, which is undoubtedly the most important organization in Central Asia, the additional role of trying to ensuring stability in Afghanistan along with the Afghan forces. The withdrawal of US forces need not necessarily imply the
withdrawal of US politics from Afghanistan. The US will undoubtedly keep up its engagement with the Afghans in various other ways, including to a great extent in the sphere of security management. However the withdrawal of US forces will create to a certain extent a security related vacuum, which the SCO would be eager to fill up. Whether the competition for strategic space between the Western powers led by the US and the SCO, which has as two of its most prominent members, Russia and China for strategic space in the resource rich Central Asian region triggers off a new Great Game remains to be seen. What was interesting though was the fact that Afghanistan was given a special invitation to the summit, which was gladly accepted by Presi20
dent Hamid Karzai. Karzai’s speech in which he pointed out that there was popular discontent brewing in his country over military excesses and collateral damage caused by NATO seemed to suggest that he preferred more of a security related relationship as that offered by the SCO to its members, than the kind of subordinating support provided so far by his Western allies. It not only indicated Afghan willingness and desire to be a member of the SCO but also suggested their preference for more options than one when it came to security support and the fight against extremism and terrorism. Despite being regarded as primarily a forum for anti- Western policies, the SCO countries led by China and Russia have tried to project their organization as one providing views on global problems and issues which may be different and essentially independent from Western standpoints. Hence SCO countries have deliberately avoided making any statements that were overt in their anti- Westernism. A break from tradition was however indulged in by the hard- line Iranian President, Mahmoud Ahmedinejad whose inflammatory anti- West speech caused a degree of discomfort among the other member- states. Iran’s membership of the SCO has been stalled by the international sanctions imposed on it by the UN, as the SCO membership rules demand a clean international reputation for any country. The Indian Prime Minister, Dr. Manmohan Singh skipped the summit instead sending his External Affairs Minister. There is a feeling amongst certain diplomatic circles that India is yet to give the due importance to the SCO that it deserves. This slightly reluctant attitude may partly have to do with India’s growing closeness to the US, including in security related matters. Civil Services
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As far as the SCO is concerned, India does have major differences with at least one very crucial member in the form of China, with whom India not only shares borders but also border disputes. China plays a dominant role in the SCO and has tacitly used its influence in the region to counter US might in Central Asia. China’s ‘string of pearls’ policy whereby it is seen gradually encircling India militarily and its recent tirade relating to Arunachal Pradesh, which it claims to its own territory and frequent reports of its ‘inadvertent’ military incursions into India soil are possible reasons for India’s carefully calibrated approach to the SCO. Another reason for India maintaining a slight distance from the SCO is that the latter too with its stringent and rather inflexible membership rules has been less than open to new membership aspirants like India. With hopes of more flexible membership rules rekindled in the present Astana summit India, which as of now is an observer country, is likely to once again show interest in becoming a SCO member. Its membership as also those of countries like Pakistan will throw open the gates of the organization to South Asia and help it become a bride between Central Asia and South Asia, two extremely important and sensitive landmasses in terms
of geopolitics. With further entries of countries like Ukraine and Belarus, it will serve to integrate the Caspian Sea with the Indian Ocean and extend its frontiers up to Eurasian nations apart from Russia. Russia on its part would love to see Ukraine within the SCO. Ukraine has been a potential political conflict region between Russia and the US-led West, with each backing Ukrainian leaders of their choice. The conflict over Ukraine is part of a larger political tussle for control over gas pipelines between Russia and the West and the inclusion of Ukraine in the SCO would help Russia exercise greater influence over that country and prevent it from getting sucked into the orbit of the NATO. Drugs and arms trafficking, organized transnational crime and illegal immigration are problems that continue to plague the SCO nations. The Golden Crescent of narcotic drugs comprising of Pakistan, Afghanistan and Iran lies close to the present territory of the Central Asian countries within the SCO. The possible inclusion of these countries within the organization is only likely to increase its problems relating to trafficking of drugs and arms and organized crime. Illegal money generated from the drug trade helps in funding terrorism, extremism and separatism, the triple evils AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No. 08 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
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SCO is geared up to fight. Similarly the illegal arms trafficked in the region are used to arm the elements who spread violence in the region whereas criminals often metamorphose into terrorists as well as provide violent movements their foot soldiers. Hence, in the Astana summit, the member countries signed the Anti-drug Strategy for the period 2011-16 and also came up with an Action Plan to implement the Strategy. Economic cooperation within the organization has increased over the years as have bilateral trade between the member states. However, the one economic factor which has the potential to gel the nations is energy. Energy cooperation makes tremendous economic sense for the countries of the SCO. While Central Asia and Russia are rich in hydrocarbons, China with its burgeoning economy and rapid growth rates is energy thirsty and is likely to remain that way in the near future. Its energy demand can help provide a ready mar-
ket for Central Asian and Russian hydrocarbons. With the likely inclusion of India in the SCO, the organization can boost of having two of the fastest growing economies in the world within its fold, both having insatiable thirst for energy, which can consequently stimulate the generation of oil and gas in the other member states. It is in fact likely that economic interest more than the security related one may make the SCO extremely attractive for India. Energy interest is likely to be a bigger integrating factor for the SCO members and its possible future members than commonality of strategic interests. This is perhaps what the Kazakh President Nursultan Nazarbayev had in mind when he proposed an integral system of Eurasian pipelines and electric power grids for the region highlighting the need to unite energy related interests. Among other propositions made by the Kazakh President before he handed over the organization’s presidency to
Strategic Weapons
UAV Rustom-1 The “Rustom 13 UAV being developed by the Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE), a DRDO lab engaged in pioneering R&D work in the field of aeronautics, has recently underwent it’s second successful flight test. The test flight took place at a general aviation airfield operated by Taneja Aerospace in Hosur near Bengaluru. With the successful accurate flying of Rustom 1, now the ADE is geared up for integration of payloads with the aircraft within next three months, to demonstrate performance of payloads and necessary secure data-link to the users. It is here mentioned that the first test flight of the Rustom was conducted
from Hosur in November 2009, but ended when the air vehicle crashed following a “misjudgement of altitude”. The Rustom 1 has a planned endurance of 12-15h; it can carry payloads of up to 75kg (165lb) and has a maximum ceiling of 25,000ft (7,620m). The UAV’s datalink is designed and developed by India’s Defence Electronics Applications LaboraAUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No. 08 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
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the Chinese were the establishment of an SCO council for dealing with territorial and regional conflicts, setting up of a SCO Emergency Situations Center, creation of a SCO Anti- drug Center, joint development of transport and power space projects, creation of a SCO Water and Food Commission at the level of the heads of the respective national authorities and the building up of a new SCO mechanism for closer economic cooperation and further financing of joint projects. Another important document which was signed was the Protocol of Understanding between the Executive Committee of the RATS SCO and the CSTO Secretariat. Amidst trying times the SCO has survived as an organization, fulfilled most of the goals it set for itself and succeeded in stabilizing the turbulent Central Asian region. As it completes a full decade of its existence, it can undoubtedly look forward to strengthening itself and making it a more viable organization in the years to come. tory, while its airframe and most of its electronics are produced by Indian companies. Understanding Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs): (a) What Is a UAV? UAV, means aerial vehicles which operate without a human pilot. UAVs are commonly used in both the military and police forces in situations where the risk of sending a human piloted aircraft is unacceptable, or the situation makes using a manned aircraft impractical. One of the predecessors of today’s fully autonomous UAVs were the “aerial torpedoes”, designed and built during World War One. These were primitive UAVs, relying on mechanical gyroscopes to maintain straight and level flight, and flying until they ran out of fuel. They would then fall from the sky and deliver and explosive payload. More advanced UAVs used radio technology for guidance, allowing them to fly missions and return. They were constantly controlled by a human pilot, and were not capable of flying themselves. After the invention of the integrated circuit, engineers were able to build sophisticated UAVs, using electronic autopilots. It was at this stage of development that UAVs became widely used in military applications. UAVs Civil Services
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could be deployed, fly themselves to a target location, and either attack the location with weapons, or survey it with cameras and other sensor equipment. Modern UAVs are controlled with both autopilots, and human controllers in ground stations. This allows them to fly long, uneventfully flights under their own control, and fly under the command of a human pilot during complicated phases of the mission. (b) Applications of UAVs: Since their creation, UAVs have found many uses in police, military, and in some cases, civil applications. Currently, UAVs are most often used for the following tasks: (i) Aerial Reconnaissance – UAVs are often used to get aerial video of a remote location, especially where there would be unacceptable risk to the pilot of a manned aircraft. UAVs can be equipped with high resolution still, video, and even infrared cameras. The information obtained by the UAV can be streamed back to the control centre in real time. (ii) Scientific Research – In many cases, scientific research necessitates obtaining data from hazardous or remote locations. A good example is hurricane research, which often involves sending a large manned aircraft into the centre of the storm to obtain meteorological data. A UAV can be used to obtain this data, with no risk to a human pilot. (iii) Logistics and Transportation – UAVs can be used to carry and deliver a variety of payloads. Helicopter type UAVs are well suited to this purpose, because payloads can be suspended from the bottom of the airframe, with little aerodynamic penalty. Bahrain
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Strategize your Essay Writing Skills Defining Essay: An essay is a piece of writing, presenting and visualizing the writers personal and analytical view point. Essays are usually non-fictional but often subjective; while expository, they can also include narrative formats. Some of the finest essays can be grouped as literary criticism, political manifestos, learned arguments, observations of daily life, recollections, and reflections of the writers own imaginations and thoughtful deliberations. The word essay is derived from the French infinitive essayer, ‘to try’ or ‘to attempt’. The first author to describe his works as essays was the Frenchman Michel de Montaigne (1533-1592)”, it is an organized collection of ideas, facts and figures about the topic, presented in one of the most sophisticated and elegant manner. Significance of Essay Paper in Civil Services Examination: “Like the novel, the essay is a literary device for saying almost everything about almost anything”. Similarly the essay paper in the civil services main examination is crucial in determining the candidates personality by the UPSC examiner, as his/her essay completely reflects the thought process going on in their minds. The essays paper is used to judge the mastery and comprehension over the material. Students are asked to explain, comment on, or assess a topic of study in the form of an essay. From the selection point of view, the essay paper consists of enough weightage to determine the final outcome/selection and ranking of the candidates. The significance of the essay paper for the civil services aspirants can be gauged from the fact that it has been assigned as a compulsory status by the UPSC and its marks are added while determining the final merit list. In order to score effectively in essay paper and write a master piece the candidates are not required to have a reservoir of definitive information, as is required in the GS papers. The stature of the civil services examination requires that the essay written by candidates in the Mains examination is logical, effective and is written in a lucid language, which in turn reflects the personality of the candidate. Ever since the essay paper was introduced in the ICS Examination it has posed serious handicaps for the candidates appearing in the mains examination because the aspirants find essay writing a challenge. It is observed time and again that failing to fully understand the topic and demand of the examination had resulted in serious implications for the candidates. Thus it is highly advisable to the candidates appearing for the Mains examination that they should bear in mind that an essay is a reflection of their personality- ideas, views, analysis, assessments and inferences, values, attitudes, aptitude, orientation and communication abilities, all these attributes are wanted by the UPSC in an aspirant and is checked by the essay written by the aspirants. In the ICS Mains Examination mainly two types of essay are asked. (a) Statement Based- Under this category a statement either in the form of slogan or a phrase may be given. For e.g. “If youth Knew, If Age Could”, or “Truth Is Lived Not Taught”. These topics require a philosophical approach while writing upon them. While attempting these statements based essays analysis and interpretation must be backed by facts, examples, and illustrations to make essay more effective. (b) Issue Based: The essay in this category are current topics of national and international importance. These topics are found to be debated in various quarters. While attempting these topics a thorough understanding of the subject matter in all its AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No. 08 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
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aspects is required. Candidate must be able to form and hold an opinion and convincingly put it across. What Constitutes an Effective Essay: If one thinks that only sophisticated writers, who have spent many years to improve their skills, are able to present effective essay writing, then one is totally wrong. It is a disbelief that effective essay can only be written by professionals only. Essay writing is as much a craft as an art. While art depends for its expression on inspiration, craft requires preparation, apprenticeship and continuous hard work. While evaluating the essay in the ICS Mains examination the UPSC basically takes
into account the following criteria: (a) Comprehension (b) Creativity in thought (c) Clarity of expression (d) Integrated thinking with assimilation of ideas. In the essay paper the candidates are required to write an essay on a specified topic amongst the given subjects. They are expected to arrange their ideas in an orderly fashion and to write concisely. One is required to complete the essay within the time limit of three hours. This length of duration is enough. There is no standard word limit prescribed by the UPSC to complete the essay. Learning an Effective Essay Writing Process: Foremost, the candidate should keep in his/her mind that the essay will lead the examiner through his/her organized thoughts on a single topic. The essentials of essay writing would be the format (framework, structure), information (content, subCivil Services
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stance), language (expression, presentation), and logic (analysis and information). Writing an essay often seems to be a dreaded task among students, there are many steps a student can take that will help break down the task into manageable parts. Following this process is the easiest way to draft a successful essay. Step One: “Choose the Topic for Essay”: Correct choice of topic and the appropriate method of writing are important. It is advisable to choose the factual topics which are noncontroversial in nature. While selecting the topic of the essay the candidates are advised to apply the principle of three M’s: Motive, Method and Message. These define the essay and help in achieving the communication goals. The choice of topic on which the essay is to be written should be made after careful thought. While selecting a topic, the knowledge base of the topic – i.e. how much you know about the subject is of crucial importance. If one has the data or statistics at his fingertips, all the more better. Step Two: “Brain Storming the Essay”: Brainstorming is creating a list of whatever comes to mind. An easy way to start brainstorming is to use a list or a tree. Another popular brainstorming technique is to radiate your ideas out from the centre of a circle. Before beginning the essay writing, it’s a good idea to gather the nuts and bolts of essay writing. In order to write a successful essay, one must organize his thoughts. By taking what’s already in the head and putting it to paper, candidates are able to see connections and links between ideas more clearly. This structure serves as a foundation for the essay. The candidates should use either an outline or a diagram to jot down their ideas and organize them. In order to create the diagram or outline of the essay the candidates should write their topic in the middle of the page. Subsequently they need to d r a w three to five lines branching off from this topic and write down their main ideas at the ends of these lines. Draw more lines off these main ideas and include any thoughts you may have on these ideas. From there, they should begin enlisting their main ideas, leaving space under each one. In this space, make sure to list other smaller ideas that relate to each main idea. Doing this will allow them to see connections and will help them to write a more organized essay. Step Three: “Writing the Introduction”: The introduction is the opening part of the essay and should be confined to a paragraph, especially since, unlike a book; the introduction of an essay is not captioned. The introductory paragraph is expected to introduce the topic, and wherever necessary, explain the central theme or idea, basic or core concepts, and definitional criteria. The introduction should arouse interest and generate curiosity in the mind of the reader, be it an examiner. The introduction of an effective essay should begin with an attention grabber. The attention grabber used by candidates depends on his innovativeness and creativity, but here are some ideas: -(a) Startling Information: This information must be true and verifiable, and it doesn’t need to be totally new to the examiner. It could simply be a perAUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No. 08 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
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ESSAY WRITING
tinent fact that explicitly illustrates the point you wish to make. If you use a piece of startling information, follow it with a sentence or two of elaboration. (b) Anecdote: An anecdote is a story that illustrates a point. Be sure your anecdote is short, to the point, and relevant to your topic. This can be a very effective opener for your essay, but use it carefully. (c) Dialogue: An appropriate dialogue does not have to identify the speakers, but the reader must understand the point you are trying to convey. Use only two or three exchanges between speakers to make your point. Follow dialogue with a sentence or two of elaboration. (d) Summary Information: A few sentences explaining your topic in general terms can lead the reader gently to your essay. Step Four: “Writing the Main Body of The main body of the essay deals with the topic and related issues to be addressed, the correlation of facts, figures, ideas, views, concepts, an in-depth, systematic, coherent analysis based on the topic leading to logical inferences; as well as making (if it is required) plausible projections and providing with (if necessary) viable solutions.
the Essay”: The main text of an essay, after the introductory part is over, essentially is a systematic organisation of information based on a consistent methodology. The main body of the essay is the portion where the writer develops the topic that has been introduced in the introduction. While writing the main body of the essay one should start with a new paragraph, while discussing new dimensions in the essay. The candidates should make the body of the essay flow by introducing the next paragraph of the essay at the end of the previous one. The body of essay argues, explains or describes the topic. Each main idea that you AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No. 08 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
wrote in your diagram or outline will become a separate section within the body of your essay. Each body paragraph will have the same basic structure. Begin by writing one of your main ideas as the introductory sentence. Next, write each of your supporting ideas in sentence format, but leave three or four lines in between each point to come back and give detailed examples to back up your position. Fill in these spaces with relative information that will help link smaller ideas together. The main body of the essay deals with the topic and related issues to be addressed, the correlation of facts, figures, ideas, views, concepts, an indepth, systematic, coherent analysis based on the topic leading to logical inferences; as well as making (if it is required) plausible projections and providing with (if necessary) viable solutions. The text of the composition must develop, support and explain the main ideas stated in your introduction or thesis paragraph. Step Fifth: “Be Analytical and Provide Solutions to the Problems”: The examiner and the UPSC expect solutions from the candidates. The UPSC is in need of trouble-shooters, so it is expected of the candidates to adopt an analytical approach while framing the main body of the essay. He should provide complete overview of the topic selected and should also give appropriate solutions to the problems being faced by the nation, if the topic requires that. While attempting the essay the candidates must develop sensitivity and feelings towards the subjects. In addition to command over the subject, a rich vocabulary is quite essential to express ones ideas. One should also try to develop a lucid writing style that has flow and brings charm to the examiner. More importantly difficult words should not be used out of the context, and at least avoided. Any candidate who does the writing practice over a period of time will surely improve his essay writing skill. For developing an analytical and logical style of writing, constant and regular writing habits should be cultivated by the candidates. Step Sixth: “Writing the Conclusion and Adding the Finishing Touches”: The candidates often overlook the concluding part of the essay, but without 26
failing, they should bear in mind that the conclusion is an important part of the essay. It’s the last paragraph of the essay and the last chance of the candidates to drive home their point of view as well as an indicator of how well they have organized their thoughts. Generally the conclusion is a summary of your essay body and/or any closing thoughts or ideas. The chief purpose of the conclusion is to end the line of thought on a satisfying note. The conclusion brings closure of the topic and sums up your overall ideas while providing a final perspective on the topic. The conclusion should consist of three to five strong sentences. Simply review the main points and provide reinforcement of the thesis. As the text draws close to the conclusion, the essay should have reached the stage of ‘critical mass’, a sort of a climax. The conclusion, a summary, should express the essence of the essay. It should not contain any fresh evidence, facts or figures. To make the essay more effective, the candidates should conclude the essay on the same lines and ideas as in the earlier parts. The essay should always be concluded in a positive note, leaving the examiner with a positive spirit. Step Seventh: “Edit the Essay”: After writing the conclusion, the candidates think that they have completed the essay. Wrong. Before considering the task finished the candidates must pay attention to all the small details. They should check the order of the paragraphs. The strongest points should be the first and last paragraphs within the body, with the others falling in the middle. Also, make sure that the paragraph order makes sense. Finally, the candidates should review what they have written. Reread the paper and check to see if it makes sense. Make sure that sentence flow is smooth and add phrases to help connect thoughts or ideas. Check the essay for grammar and spelling mistakes. And also ensure whether any statement is made should not be contradictory to the other statements made earlier in the essay. Once the candidates are sure that their essay “makes their point” and that they have caught and corrected any errors in formatting, spelling, punctuation, and grammar, they should ensure themselves positively that their “first draft” has magically become their finished essay. Civil Services
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Analysing Modern History QUESTIONS
EXPECTED LINES OF QUESTIONS ON MODERN INDIA Discuss the C. Rajagopalachari Formula of 1944. What were the major reactions of Jinnah against the formula? Answer: Rajaji’s formula had four important points: (1) The Muslim League was to endorse the demand for independence for the transitional period, i.e., Muslim League would support the Congress’s demand for complete freedom and then majority provinces would go to plebiscite especially North Eastern Province. (2) At the end of war a commission would demarcate those contiguous areas in NWFP and NEI where Muslims were in majority. (3) In the event of separation, agreements would be made for defence, commerce, communication and other essential purposes. (4) The terms would be binding only in case of transfer by Britain of full power and responsibility for full governance of India. (5) The Muslim League endorsing the Congress demand for independence and cooperating with it in forming an interim government in the transition period. Jinnah rejected this formula and said, “Gandhi is offering a shadow and a husk, a maimed mutilated and moth-eaten Pakistan”. Jinnah also argued that separation could not be deferred till after independence, considered common services to be unnecessary, and felt that plebiscites with both Muslims and Hindus voting contradicted the basic principle of Muslim being a distinct nation with an inherent right of self-determination. The formula did not work but it ushered the basis for the Gandhi and Jinnah talks of September 1944. The Rajaji formula explicitly highlighted the weaknesses of both the communities and helped the British to formulate their strategy to deal with the situations.
1 The Muslim League was to endorse the demand for independence for the transitional period, i.e., Muslim League would support the Congress’s demand for complete freedom and then majority provinces would go to plebiscite especially North Eastern Province
The Gandhi-Jinnah talks did not bring the two communities nearer each other, but two results followed. In the first place, Jinnah was placed on a high pedestal and there was an inordinate accession of strength to the Muslim League.
The climax was reached when Shimla conference practically ensured the creation of Pakistan.
Discuss the main point of difference between Gandhi and Jinnah during the September 1944 talks. Discuss its outcome at a broader level. Answer: 1. Gandhi did not accept the view that the Indian Muslims constituted a separate nation which Jinnah regarded as the fundamental principal on which the claims for Pakistan rested. Gandhi would regard India as one family consisting of many members, and the Muslims were one of them.
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2. Gandhi proposed that only the Muslims living in Baluchistan, Sindh N.W.F.P. and parts of the Punjab, Bengal and Assam, who desired to lives in separation from the rest of India, should form the new State. Jinnah insisted that Pakistan should include all the six Provinces mentioned above indicated in the Lahore Resolution of the Muslim League in 1940. 3. Gandhi held that the separate Muslim State should be formed after India was free: but Jinnah urged for an immediate and complete settlement. 4. Gandhi “suggested that there should be a treaty of separation to provide for the efficient and satisfactory administration of foreign affairs defence, communication, customs commerce and the like, as matters of common interests; but Jinnah was clear that all these matters, which were the life-blood of any State, could not be delegated to may common central authority or government.” The Gandhi-Jinnah talks did not bring the two communities nearer each other, but two results followed. In the first place, Jinnah was placed on a high pedestal and there was an inordinate accession of strength to the Muslim League. Secondly, the Viceroy was now convinced that the Indian problem could not be settled by an agreement between the Hindus and Muslims, and the British Government must take the initiative for the post-war settlement promised by them. Do you think that partition was inevitable? What are the main factors, which led eventually to the partition of in 1947? Answer: With the introduction separate electorates for Muslims in 1909 and Congress’s acceptance in Lucknow pact of 1916, congress tried to appease Muslim League and sacrificed their seats for the sake of political unity. Same was the basis in the Khilafat and Non Cooperation movement over the issue of dismemberment of Turkey. Mutual suspicion increased after failure of Delhi proposal, Nehru report and Jinnah’s fourteen points. Muslim league’s ultimate failure was manifested in 1937 elections. In 1940, Pakistan resolution was brought into being and concept of ‘two-nation theory’ emerged. Further, Cripps Mission added fuel by making provision for freedom to any province to remain outside Indian union that is tantamount to secession. Both the communities were provided equal proportion of seats by Wavell Plan. The climax was reached when Shimla conference practically ensured the creation of Pakistan. Wavell had formally handed over the veto power to Jinnah as the latter did not agree on the appointment
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Analysing Modern History QUESTIONS
of those Muslims who did not belong to the Muslim league. The later meetings, plans and acts were the similar ones carrying the same base. Describe the objectives of the Deoband School. How much it was different from the Aligarh school? Evaluate their role in the 19th century reform movement. Answer: Its objectives were: (1) To exalt the word God, unaffected by any temptation, patronage, pressure or favour. (2) To extend contacts with Muslims and organize them in accordance with original principles of Islam. (3) Follow the teachings of Shah Waliullah. (4) To follow traditional educational curriculum prescribed by Dar-esi- Nizami. (5) Hindus and Muslims belong to one nation. Deoband School had more effective organization and mass contact than Aligarh school. Contrary to Aligarh school, it united the people to oust Britishers and was nationalistic in character. Their approach was not parochial and they easily understood the motive and design of ‘divide and rule’ policy. They never prescribed British education and never tried to gain political privileges, which was one of the main aims of Aligarh school. This school sought to drive the British out of the country and convert the land into Dar-ulIslam. Thus, they imbibed nationalist feelings into the Muslim ideology. Also, they shunned the separatist tendency among the Muslims and sought to strengthen hindu-muslim relations. But, being a revivalist movement, it ushered a feeling of suspicion and created an aura of fundamentalism.
4 Deoband School had more effective organization and mass contact than Aligarh school. Contrary to Aligarh school, it united the people to oust Britishers and was nationalistic in character.
Lord Curzon, in 1901, at a conference held at Shimla, the growing effect of nationalistic feeling; in 1902, university commission was established under the chairmanship of Thomas Raleigh.
There were only three parties to decide the fate of the conference: the Congress, the Muslim League, and the Viceroy. As far as Congress was concerned, India was a single nation but for Muslim League, the Muslims were not only a minority but a nation in themselves.
‘Wavell created two platforms at Shimla’. Do you think that the failure was inevitable at Shimla ? Answer: There were only three parties to decide the fate of the conference: the Congress, the Muslim League, and the Viceroy. As far as Congress was concerned, India was a single nation but for Muslim League, the Muslims were not only a minority but a nation in themselves. The Viceroys’s fate depended on their disagreement, larger the extension of disagreement - larger the British rule. Wavell formally handed over to Jinnah, the power to veto - final authority in any constitutional progress in India. Now Jinnah became the sole representative of Muslims though actually he was not. Thus the conference raised the status of Jinnah equivalent to that of Gandhi. Thus the two representatives were created for the first time - one for India and the other for Pakistan.
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Wavell in this process reversed the proposals of Cripps Mission which had recognized INC as the only platform which could discuss with the Government. Thus Wavell created two platforms at Shimla. Therefore, the Shimla Conference was a failure for the INC but it made ML a great gainer and the sole dispenser of the Muslim fate in India. What constituted the Drain of Wealth? To what extent it affected the industrialization process of India? Answer: Dadabhai Naoroji was first to decipher the complex mechanism of drain of wealth by the way of (a) remittances to England by European employed for the support of their families and education of their children. (b) remittances of savings by employees of the company, since most employees preferred to invest at home. (c) remittances for the purchases of British goods in India. (d) Government purchase of stores manufactured in Britain. (e) Interest charges on public debt held in for productive loans. (f) Home Charges : (i) the expenses of the office of Secretary of States; (ii) pensions of the British Indian officers and army officials; (iii) Army training, transport and campaigns outside India but charged on Indian revenue, (iv) drain through council bill. The drain of wealth considerably affected the circulation of money and capital formation of India.
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Discuss the development of University education between 1900 and 1919. Answer: Lord Curzon, in 1901, at a conference held at Shimla, the growing effect of nationalistic feeling; in 1902, university commission was established under the chairmanship of Thomas Raleigh. On 21st March, 1904, the University Act was passed; Purposes of this University Act were :- i) Bengal was becoming one of the most important centres of nationalist activities and universities were becoming the main centre of then activities; ii) Curzon immediately realized that if the mushroomious education centres continue to grow up then the unemployment problem would become acute and therefore, strict decisions were taken regarding the affiliation and other laws; iii) they wanted the Universities to become more research oriented so that the groupism and politicization of the campus could be stopped. In 1917, under the leadership of Micheal Saddler a University Commission was set up and recommended (a) Secondary and immediate education would be controlled by a board of secondary education and not by the
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Analysing Modern History QUESTIONS
Those who were committed for change were very much annoyed and disgusted by the capricious and vacillating ideology of the extremists, especially young generation. Young generation’s greatest feature is this ‘eagerness’. They raised the level of expectation beyond the realistic point.
Gandhism was the most pragmatic solution to the existing problems. It was a blend of moderatism, extremism and revolutionary terrorism. The revolutionary terrorism was the last trend before the Gandhism. Its limited success proved that it requires a different orientation in the national movement.
Gandhiji knew the nature of the masses. They follow examples. He was also aware of the limitations of the moderates, extremists and revolutionary terrorists. The moderates lacked innovations; extremists failed mobilize masses and unconsciously contributed to communalism; and revolutionary terrorists lacked mass base and organization.
universities (b) The degree course should be of 3 years duration; (c) Calcutta University to come under Bengal Government. Though indirectly, Revolutionary Terrorism contributed to the rise of Gandhism in India, Justify. Answer: Those who were committed for change were very much annoyed and disgusted by the capricious and vacillating ideology of the extremists, especially young generation. Young generation’s greatest feature is this ‘eagerness’. They raised the level of expectation beyond the realistic point. In their way, they explored a way by borrowing and importing western ideology of direct action. Hence, the manifestation of intense patriotism and dedication found articulation in their cult of bomb. Their extreme sense of sacrifice rejuvenated the inert masses. But they were not able to sustain a long struggle against the British regime and their individual sacrifices failed to create a sustained leadership. (Words 105; Marks 10) Gandhism was the most pragmatic solution to the existing problems. It was a blend of moderatism, extremism and revolutionary terrorism. The revolutionary terrorism was the last trend before the Gandhism. Its limited success proved that it requires a different orientation in the national movement. The new trend must be a conglomeration and combination of the past trend and for this Gandhism was created.
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What are the major proposals of the Bhoola Bhai and Liyaqat Ali talks? Discuss its subsequent developments. Answer: Bhulabhai Desai was the leader of the Congress Party in the Central Legislative Assembly which boycotted it since the beginning of the war, but now attended it and formed an alliance with the Muslim League Party in the Assembly, of which the de facto leader was Liaqat Ali Khan. These two now came to an interim Government at the Centre. They would then consult the groups in the Indian Legislature and submit names to the Governor-General for inclusion in the Executive Council. The selection would not be confined to members of the legislature. Communal proportions with-in the Council would be settled by agreement. Bhulabhai Desai would be accommodating about this (he said that, speaking for himself if the Muslim League insisted, he would agree to equality between them and the Congress, with a 20 per cent reservation for the rest). The interim Government would work within the present constitution, but all the members of the
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Executive Council, except the GovernmentGeneral and the Commander-in-Chief, would be Indians. “Desai claimed that these proposals had support of Gandhi, that they were based on informal talks with Liaqat Ali Khan and that if the British Government really wanted a Central Government with political backing they could get it now. He was confident that Jinnah was aware and had approved of what had passed between him and Liaqat Ali Khan” The Viceroy fell in with this proposal and recommended its adoption to the Secretary of State. There is no doubt there was such a pact and Gandhi admitted later that it had received his blessings. But it was repudiated not only by Jinnah but later, by the leaders of the Congress also; as a result. Desai like Rajagopalachari, had to make an exit from the political state. After the failure of these negotiations Wavell proceeded to London and arrived there on 23 March, 1945 Discuss the Gandhian technique of mass mobilization. Do you think that Satyagraha was the correct strategy? Answer: Satyagraha consists of two terms: ‘Sat’ i.e. truth and ‘agraha’ i.e. request through ‘adherence’ to the just cause without surrendering the will. Gandhiji knew that it was not easy to root out British at once because they had acquired strong roots in India which had to be weakened slowly. That required lots of patience and strong will in the long battle. This required either to acquire more power than the British militarily which was impossible or to make them more disciplined and ethical which further their patience and strength. Gandhiji knew the nature of the masses. They follow examples. He was also aware of the limitations of the moderates, extremists and revolutionary terrorists. The moderates lacked innovations; extremists failed mobilize masses and unconsciously contributed to communalism; and revolutionary terrorists lacked mass base and organization. Therefore, Gandhiji stressed on the mental strength instead of physical strength. It harmonizes the cause, the end and the means. It is rooted in the power of reality. The mental strength is much powerful than physical strength. He knew that the Indians have succumbed more to the mental domination than physical one. India was defeated by East India Company only by their crafty means. Therefore, British mental domination could only be removed by stronger mental ability. The methods of satyagraha starts with the assumption that the essential goodness of the
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Analysing Modern History QUESTIONS
The concept of Satyagraha was above any ideology and no qualification was needed for membership and therefore, it became a powerful weapon of mass-mobilization. It is a method of noncooperation with the evil forces. Therefore, the satyagraha was the most adequate and pragmatic concept of massmobilization. It was not at all rigid; its flexibility can be seen during the QIM.
human nature which is bound to triumph over temporary aberration. It involves self-chosen suffering and humiliation for the resistors by the exemplary articulation of the strength of will. Satyagraha believed in harmony of classes and not class struggle. The greatest indication of mental strength is the tolerance. It didn’t rule out the requirement of violence. Violence was circumstantial. When needed, it was to be used. It happened in 1942 when Gandhiji said ‘do or die’. The concept of Satyagraha was above any ideology and no qualification was needed for membership and therefore, it became a powerful weapon of mass-mobilization. It is a method of non-cooperation with the evil forces. Therefore, the satyagraha was the most adequate and pragmatic concept of massmobilization. It was not at all rigid; its flexibility can be seen during the QIM. “The 19th century socio-religious reform movement was a catalyst factor in the rise and growth of communalism”? Verify the statement. Answer: The revivalist movements of 19th century created mutual suspicion and a sense of insecurity amongst each other unconsciously contributed to the rise and growth of communalism. Among the Muslims the school of Waliullah of Delhi, the Deoband School were active in restoring pristine purity and religious fervour of the Muslim community. Among the Hindus the revival of Shivaji and Ganapati festival, the Dharma Sabha of Radha Kant Deb of Calcutta tried to glorify Hinduism against the Christianity, but ultimately due to communication gap it sent a wrong message to Muslims, this was further added by ‘suddhi movement’. The love for Hindu ideals and institution, the pride in Hindu religion and philosophy, consciously or unconsciously contributed to the sense of superiority. Vivekanand said that Vedanta philosophy is the supreme of all philosophy. Both the parallel movement of the two communities had the common aim: to protect and promote their own religion. The lack communication, they lost their ultimate aim of exterminating the Britishers. They failed to communicate their message to the masses. The economic backwardness of the country, the medieval outlook of the masses and colossal neglect of their education further helped in widening the communication gap. The religious movement was to be more social and philosophical but it became more religious. The real impact of these schools directly led to the self-glorification, and a creation of contra-culture. It prompted the British to
11 The extremists tried to make British feel that Indian have revitalized their mental strength. The revolutionary terrorism also was active with a number of secret societies. There were five main samitis: Anushilian Samiti; the Swadesh Bandhav Samiti, Suhrid Samiti, the Brati Samiti and Sadhana Samaj.
The greatest contribution of the press was that they not only warned the British and disseminated the news about partition but they communicated newer techniques of struggle like Sanjivini in the case of boycott and Yugantar in the case of ‘Atma-shakti, Sanjivini said that boycott was a policy and Swadeshi was the means to sustain it.
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misinterpret and use the communication gap for their policy of divide and rule. ‘Swadeshi Movement demonstrated all the trends of Indian National Movement’. Discuss the statement with the specific contribution of the Press. Answer: The Swadeshi Movement was a manifestation of all the trends: moderates, extremists, and revolutionary terrorism. The moderates mobilized their educated base and demanded self-rule. The extremists demonstrated their passive resistance, boycott, non-cooperation and self-reliance. The extremists tried to make British feel that Indian have revitalized their mental strength. The revolutionary terrorism also was active with a number of secret societies. There were five main samitis: Anushilian Samiti; the Swadesh Bandhav Samiti, Suhrid Samiti, the Brati Samiti and Sadhana Samaj. Outside Bengal, the most important was ‘Mitra-Mela’ and ‘Abhinava Bharat’ organised by V D Savarkar. All the trends showed that mass-mobilization and participation is must for a sustained movement. Their failure paved the way for the emergence of Gandhiji. The press played an important role: K.K. Mitra exposed the British designs in his paper ‘Sanjivini’ on 6th July 1905. Sanjivini also gave the first idea of boycott. S N Banerjee’s Bengali newspaper warned the Government on this decision; Brahma Bandhav Upadhyaya’s Sandhya was the most outspoken newspapers. Then a number of newspapers followed like Bipin Chandra Pal’s Vande Matram, Yugantar of Barindernath Ghosh and Pranjapay’s Kal. The greatest contribution of the press was that they not only warned the British and disseminated the news about partition but they communicated newer techniques of struggle like Sanjivini in the case of boycott and Yugantar in the case of ‘Atma-shakti, Sanjivini said that boycott was a policy and Swadeshi was the means to sustain it.
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In what manner the socio-religious reform movements contributed to the rise of Extremism? Answer: Extremism is an expression of desperation and aversion with the present situation. It is undefined, unmodified, hysterical articulation of dissatisfaction over the present state of nature. Through the mechanism of direct action, it wants to superimpose its ideology either embedded in the past or visualizing the present by exterminating the past. The love for Hindu institution, pride in Hindu religion and philosophy as Tilak glorified the
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Socio-religious reforms directly led to the self glorification, revitalization of their sense of culture and an appeal to their manhood, at the same time eliminated a sense of inferiority.
The powers of the Constituent Assembly were too much because they had to determine the fundamental rights and also to make provisions for safeguard of minorities and that’s why Muslim League protested the Cabinet Mission. The demand for Pakistan was out rightly rejected.
Hayat Khan resigned and his resignation led to greater spate of communal violence. The communal violence was unabated in Punjab, Assam and NWFP. Under these conditions Mountbatten appointed Viceroy.
Ahom Revolt under Gomadhar Konwar; Kol Uprisings in 1828 at Chhotanagpur due to dismantling of forests by the Britishers and against the transfer of revenue from Mundas to Muslims; Santhal Uprisings in 1855 against the British rule, its policies of revenue and forestry;
festival of Ganesh and Shivaji; Vivekanand highlighted the Vedanta philosophy and said that if there is any sin it is weakness, Dayanand Saraswati advised that panacea of all problems lie in the going back of vedas, the concept of atmasakti of R N Tagore, the massive stress on orientalism by theosophical society definitely created a sense of pride and ‘weness’. Socioreligious reforms directly led to the self glorification, revitalization of their sense of culture and an appeal to their manhood, at the same time eliminated a sense of inferiority. This change in the attitude imbibed a sense of direct action against British imperialism and found expression in their reaction against the British. It gave a sense of confidence and superiority and infused a catalyst power and emotional outburst which believed in exterminating the very edifice of British rule by passive resistance and mass participation. ‘The tribal movement was a struggle for survival’. Examine this statement in the light of important tribal movements. Answer: (a) Communal mode of production was perturbed with introduction of British legal concept of private property; (b) proselytizing activities by Christian missionaries intensified; (c) increasing alienation of land; (d) monopolization of forest started with the enactment of various forest laws; (e) influx of new class like moneylenders, etc; (f) no administrative effort to provide safety and security to them rather the administrative machinery became more exploitative and extortionate. Therefore, whole existence was jeopardized. Ahom Revolt under Gomadhar Konwar; Kol Uprisings in 1828 at Chhotanagpur due to dismantling of forests by the Britishers and against the transfer of revenue from Mundas to Muslims; Santhal Uprisings in 1855 against the British rule, its policies of revenue and forestry; Khasis Uprising in Assam against the induction of a large number of British troops on the pretence of building to join Assam and Sylhet; Munda (Uluguhan) in 1874-1900, under Birsa Munda, the Khuntkanti (Joint ownership) land system was eroded. Chenchus in 1898-traditional rights to produce increasingly restricted by the Government; Oraons under Tana Bhagat.
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Despite some limitations the Cabinet Mission had a lot of merits.’ Evaluate the provisions of Cabinet Mission Plan. Answer : The Cabinet Mission had a number of positive points : (a) The unity and integrity of India was
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preserved with the provision of a Union of India dealing with three subjects : Foreign Affairs; Defence; and Communication, having the power necessary to raise the finances necessary for these subjects; (b) the Union should have an executive and a legislature of representatives chosen from British India and the States, and any question raising a major communal issue in the legislature should require for its approval a majority of representatives, present and voting of each of the two major communities; (c) all subjects other than Union subjects and all residuary powers shall be vested in the Provinces; (d) provinces should be free to form groups subfederation; (e) regarding the constitution making body : the formation of an Assembly on the basis of the recently elected Provincial Legislative Assemblies. The Constituent Assembly would be a sovereign body in which there would be no foreign intervention. Although, there was provision of subfederation but there was no provision for partition. The powers of the Constituent Assembly were too much because they had to determine the fundamental rights and also to make provisions for safeguard of minorities and that’s why Muslim League protested the Cabinet Mission. The demand for Pakistan was out rightly rejected. Therefore, despite a number of limitations like the provision of sub-federation, communal representation, undefined power of GovernorGeneral, the Cabinet Mission was a lesser evil and was better than the Cripps Mission. Attlee fixes June 1948 as the deadline for the transfer of power in his famous declaration of 20th Feb. 1947 in the House of Commons. But what factors led the Britishers to respond so early to relinquish power in India? Answer: It was guided by both the external as well as internal factors: (1) External: (a) After the World War II, England had no justification for imperialist and reconstruction at home was important; (b) recession of the British industry, and growing competition with USA; and (c) emergence of the USSR as a super power. (2) Internally, the situation became fluid after the Atlee’s declaration. The situation started to deteriorate with the resignation of Khizr Hayat Khan. Hayat Khan resigned and his resignation led to greater spate of communal violence. The communal violence was unabated in Punjab, Assam and NWFP. Under these conditions Mountbatten appointed Viceroy. He had two objectives: to establish a Government in India on the basis of the Cabinet Mission’s plan of May 16;
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Mountbatten’s first plan was criticised by V P Menon. Menon said that it is unrealistic and confusing and will add to further communal chaos and said that it will lead to Balkanization of India.
Mountbatten did not want too long a gap between his present appointment and the fulfillment of his ambition to become Admiral of the Navy.
The process of deindustrialization of India was complete and commercialization of agriculture was linked with the British industrialization. This leads to mass migration of artisans to rural areas and further added to fragmentation of landhold-ings. The revenue settlements had completely uprooted the existing traditional socioeconomic relations.
Satyasodhak Samaj : 1873 started by Jyotiba Phule; he wrote a book called Gulam Giri and organised Sarvajanik Satyadvarapa Dastaka. Mukundrao Patil published a Satyasodhak paper “Din Mitra’. It was a socio-political organisation to uplift the condition of the local people.
and (b) not to hand over power and obligation under paramountcy to any successor Government earlier than the date of transfer of power but to begin negotiations with individual states for adjusting their relation with the crown. Mountbatten’s first plan was criticised by V P Menon. Menon said that it is unrealistic and confusing and will add to further communal chaos and said that it will lead to Balkanization of India. Jinnah’s demand was growing after every concession. There was growing discrepancy amongst the British officials over the future course of action and they were also willing to leave India as immediate as possible. Mountbatten did not want too long a gap between his present appointment and the fulfillment of his ambition to become Admiral of the Navy. Therefore, Mountbatten realised that the Cabinet Mission Plan was unworkable and partition was inevitable. Even Gandhiji was requested to concede to reality and he also softened his approach. How and to what extent did the economy of first half of the 20th century influence the mass agitation? Answer: The period of finance capitalism was fully established; the markets were captured and flooded with British manufactured goods, the raw materials and means of communication was monopolized. The process of deindustrialization of India was complete and commercialization of agriculture was linked with the British industrialization. This leads to mass migration of artisans to rural areas and further added to fragmentation of landholdings. The revenue settlements had completely uprooted the existing traditional socioeconomic relations. The drain theory had already exposed the disguised form of British exploitation. This Congress had used economic issues during their early phase like ‘no taxation without representation’, protested against the abandonment of tariff on imports, misuse of railways, etc, for mass mobilization and participation. The entire method of the antipartition movement of 1905 was based on the concept of Swadeshi. The Swadeshi tried to attack the very foundation of British rule, i.e., the economy. It advocated not only to boycott of British goods but also tried to create alternative industries. The economic factors inspired R N Tagore to propound the concept of Atmasakti which became one of the philosophies on the extremists.
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Gandhiji’s Champaran, Kheda and Ahemdabad’s experience revealed that economic is an important issue for mass mobilization and therefore, boycott remained a big tool even in the NCM and CDM. During NCM the Bardoli Movement, Bijolia Movement, Forest Satyagraha at Palnad, Peasant movement of UP under Baba Ramchandara were important reactions against British revenue and forest policy. The capitalist class found the programmes of Indian National Congress more congenial and actively participated. Therefore, the economic issues played an important role in the liberation of the country and found to be a readymade basis for the mass mobilization. Why the Caste Movement took place? Mention some of the important caste movement of south India. Answer: (a) The Brahman community had come to occupy the predominant position in religious and social affairs and the administration of the country. Excessive discrimination, ascribed status, untouchability restricted the mobility in the society. (b) The impact of Sanskritization as well as Westernization was felt on the traditional caste structure. (c) Improved means of communication provided wider combinations; (d) Impact of British education, esp. the egalitarianism, monoism, democratization, rationalisation; (e) The power of the traditional dominating caste declined due to British colonialism. Satyasodhak Samaj : 1873 started by Jyotiba Phule; he wrote a book called Gulam Giri and organised Sarvajanik Satyadvarapa Dastaka. Mukundrao Patil published a Satyasodhak paper “Din Mitra’. It was a socio-political organisation to uplift the condition of the local people. Justice Movement : 1915-16 by C.N. Mudaliar,T.M.Nair, P.Taygaraja Chetty Tamil Vellalas, Telugu Reddis, Kamma, Raja Chetty Malyali Nairs attacked Brahmanical supremacy. In 1889, Chander Menon wrote Indulekh, the Kerala’s first modern novel. In 1891, C.V.Rama Pillai wrote Martanda Verma . Nair Service Society : 1914 by Mannath Padmanath Pillai Swadeshabhimani : 1906-10 by K.Ramkrishna Pillai Ezahavas : 1902-1920 by T.K.Madhavan Sri Narayan Guru-SNDP Yogam influenced it; later Gandhiji had influenced it.
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Discuss the rise and growth of Indian Left up to 1934. Answer: In October, 1920 seven Indians
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In 1924, Satyabhakta announced the formation of CPI and he became the Secretary. Most of these of groups came together at Kanpur in December 1925 and founded an all India organisation under the name of Communist Party of India in December 1925.
In March 1929, Government arrested 32 radical political and Trade Union activist, including three British communists - Philip Spratt, Ben Bradley and Lester Hutchinson in the Meerut Conspiracy case; defence of the prisoners was to be taken by many nationalists including M.C.Chagla, M.A.Ansari, Jawaharlal Nehru, K.N.Katju, etc. In 1934, the Communist Party was declared illegal.
Bengal was a big province which made the task of maintaining law and order difficult. At that time, population of Bengal was 78 million and Orissa and Bihar were also parts of Bengal. Practically, it was thought that it was a big design to: 1. create communal feelings; and 2. discourage new elements of nationalism.
headed by M.N. Roy alongwith Avani Mukherjee, Muhammad Ali and Muhammad Shafif set up a Communist Party at Tashkent. But in 1922-24, Communists suffered in a series of conspiracy cases at Peshawar and Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy case. In 1924, Satyabhakta announced the formation of CPI and he became the Secretary. Most of these of groups came together at Kanpur in December 1925 and founded an all India organisation under the name of Communist Party of India in December 1925. S.V. Ghate became General Secretary of CPI. In November 1925, at Bengal, Muzaffar Ahmed, Qazi Nazrul Islam, Hemanta Kumar Sarkar organised LabourSwaraj Party of the Indian National Congress. In March 1929, Government arrested 32 radical political and Trade Union activist, including three British communists - Philip Spratt, Ben Bradley and Lester Hutchinson in the Meerut Conspiracy case; defence of the prisoners was to be taken by many nationalists including M.C.Chagla, M.A.Ansari, Jawaharlal Nehru, K.N.Katju, etc. In 1934, the Communist Party was declared illegal. Discuss the impacts of the Civil Disobedience movement. How did this movement differ from Non-cooperation Movement? Answer: During the Civil Disobedient Movement, Government income from liquor, excise and land revenue fell. Imports of foreign cloth and other items became less. Election of Legislative Assembly were largely boycotted. The objective of CDM was the achievement of ‘Complete independent’, while NonCooperation movement had the objective of ‘Swaraj’. The methods adopted during the former was violation of law, while during the later, only ‘non-cooperation with British rule was adopted. Participation in CDM involved greater risk for the people than in the non-cooperation movement because the government adopted a policy of ruthless repression in the case of CDM. In CDM, the participation of women, business groups and peasants was greater than the non-cooperation movement. The Congress became organisationally stronger in the case of the former. Muslim participation was greater in the case of the latter. The number of those imprisoned was nearly three times more this time.
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Why was August Revolution considered inevitable? Discuss the significance of it. Answer: The immediate cause of QIM was the failure of Cripps Mission. It was realized that any further silence would be tantamount to accept the right of the British Government to decide India’s fate without any reference to the wishes of her people. The steeply rising inflation and the acute shortage of food stuffs caused by war had a major role. The news of Allied reverses and British withdrawals from South-East Asia and Burma enhanced popular willingness to give expression to this discontent. The British government felt the advantages of trying for a negotiated settlement rather than risk another confrontation as massive and violent as Quit India Movement. The imprisonment of the Congress leaders proved beneficial to them because they had not to take a clear public stand on the Japanese war issue. It weakened the leftist groups and parties in India. It placed the demand for dependence on the immediate agenda of the national movement.
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What led to the partition of Bengal? Discuss shortcomings of Swadeshi Movement. Answer: Theoretically, because of administrative inconveniences, partition was planned. Bengal was a big province which made the task of maintaining law and order difficult. At that time, population of Bengal was 78 million and Orissa and Bihar were also parts of Bengal. Practically, it was thought that it was a big design to: 1. create communal feelings; and 2. discourage new elements of nationalism. This is corroborated by the statement of Home Secretary, H.H. Risley, “Bengal united is a power, Bengal divided will pull in several ways.” 1. The Swadeshi Movement failed to mobilise Muslim peasantry and British successfully created a rift between Hindu landlords and Muslim peasantry. 2. Further the excessive emphasis on the religious culture was misinterpreted by some Muslims. 3. The confusion of Moderates and Extremists also contributed to the failure of the movement. Revolutionary Terrorists were not so much organised. 4. The mass base still remained limited. 5. Non-cooperation and passive resistance
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It was the last concerted effort to eliminate the foreigners by the old ruling structure and to establish medieval order. In fact, 1857 revolt was essentially a feudal outburst headed by feudal chiefs and their followers and aided by the widespread antiforeign sentiment. The mass base of the movement was very limited. The major agrarian violence did not come from peasant groups but from traditionally superior class communities from British rule had meant loss of political influence and relative economic deprivation. The middle class was the creation of the British rule and therefore, did not actively participate. Burke was first to visualise that this short-sighted and anarchic imperialism has to be replaced by a more responsible and restrained imperialism. Bentinck, Metcalfe and Macaulay were followers of Bentham and ardent advocates of a rapid transformation of India, which they regarded as a land of superstition and despotism and introduced enlightened self-interest and introduced farreaching social reforms, fostered westernization by deciding to promote English education, and sought to satisfy Indians by recruiting them to the subordinate civil services.
remained mere ideas. 6. The ideology of non-cooperation and passive resistance were not strictly followed. What were objectives of Home Rule League Movement? Discuss the contributions of this movement. Answer: To establish self-government. To built up an agitation for Home Rule by promoting political education and discussion. To balance all the three trends of Indian National Movement. Tried to build the confidence of the Indians against the suppression of the British Government and to create an alternative movement to break the existing state of stagnation and the inertia. Tried to revive the political activity on their own while maintaining the principles of Congress. Demanded greater political representation from the British Government. 1. Organised Congress party when it was decaying. 2. Popularised concept of Home Rule. 3. Created organisational links between town and country. 4. It revived the old lost confidence of the Indians and created a generation of ardent nationalists. 5. Declaration of Montagu and the Montford reforms were influenced by the Home Rule agitation. 6. It, for the first time, disseminated the idea of Swaraj. The methodology of awareness became a mantra which even Gandhiji followed.
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Do you think that the revolt of 1857 can be seen beyond the military and religious grievances? Can it be called ‘first national war of independence’? Substantiate your views over the given statement? Answer: The ramifications of revolt of 1857 was always more than a sepoy mutiny or orthodox religious reaction and went beyond it and became a movement to restore the old order but at the same time it cannot be regarded as a national movement. The revolt was not neither extended to every corner of the country nor every section like peasants, workers, middle class fully participated, but at the same time the participation was seen from every section of society who was part of the medieval age and was adversely affected by the new colonial rule. No doubt, Disraeli declared that the movement was a ‘national revolt’ and not a ‘military mutiny’, even Ellenborough called 1857 as legitimate war than a rebellion, it has
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to be admitted that the Hindus and Muslims co-operated, but the leaders and the followers of the two communities were moved by personal loyalties rather than by loyalty to a common motherland. It was the last concerted effort to eliminate the foreigners by the old ruling structure and to establish medieval order. In fact, 1857 revolt was essentially a feudal outburst headed by feudal chiefs and their followers and aided by the widespread anti-foreign sentiment. Further, the main area of spread of revolt was mainly confined to Delhi, Kanpur, Lucknow, Central India and Bundelkhand, Bihar, Faizabad. The Bombay and the Madras armies remained loyal. Besides that Sind, Rajasthan, Punjab, Nepal, Rajasthan and a number Princely states either remained neutral or supportive to British rule. At some place, there were some planned coordination but by and large the movement was spontaneous. The mass base of the movement was very limited. The major agrarian violence did not come from peasant groups but from traditionally superior class communities from British rule had meant loss of political influence and relative economic deprivation. The middle class was the creation of the British rule and therefore, did not actively participate. Conclusion: The 1857 Revolt was definitely beyond the military and religious grievances but it was slightly less than the full-fledged war of independence. Briefly mention the attitude of British administrations towards social reforms in India. How Indians reacted to western challenge? Answer: In the initial stage, that is, in the years immediately following the conquest of Bengal, the imperial interests were equated with the private and personal gain of the Company’s servants. Burke was first to visualise that this short-sighted and anarchic imperialism has to be replaced by a more responsible and restrained imperialism. Bentinck, Metcalfe and Macaulay were followers of Bentham and ardent advocates of a rapid transformation of India, which they regarded as a land of superstition and despotism and introduced enlightened self-interest and introduced farreaching social reforms, fostered westernization by deciding to promote English education, and sought to satisfy Indians by recruiting them to the subordinate civil services. The liberals, inspired by the utilitarian principles, strove to purge Indian society of its evil customs-burning of widows, sacrifice of infants, slavery, and cruel rites like Charak
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In the radicals consisted of the first generation of the English-educated young men, led by Derozio, Pearey Chand Mitra, Ramtanu Lahiri, were outspoken in their criticism of Hindu religion and social customs and fearless in declaring their convictions. The groups of the middle class were the by-products of the British rule. Some sections of middle class wanted a change and became the real sponsors of the socio-religious reforms. The attitude of this middle class was primarily based upon an understanding of the imperial interests and to introspect as to why we are so inferior. The first major effort to promote indigenous capitalism was initiated during the Swadeshi Movement in 1905. Infact, the First World War (1914), the world economic depression of 1929, and the Second World War (1939) provided opportunity to the Indian capitalist class to consolidate their competitive position against the British capitalist class. Due to differential rate of taxation, lack of infrastructure and structural reforms, the existence of dual British policy of free trade and protectionism, all made the rise and growth of capitalist class a very slow and gradual process.
Puja. At the same time Britishers like William Wilberforce, Alexander Duff, Carey fostered the missionary work in India and to encroach upon Indian religion. The assumption of superiority in its direct and indirect manifestations was a challenge to India. It made almost impossible the growth of relations of mutual respect and regard between the two races. Indians reacted strongly and adopted conservative, liberal and radical approach to deal with western challenge. The conservatives were led by Radha Kanta Deb who was moved by two ideas: (a) preservation of the Hindu religion and (b) advancement of the welfare of the Indian people. He was against the conversion and did his best to prevent defections from it. In the radicals consisted of the first generation of the English-educated young men, led by Derozio, Pearey Chand Mitra, Ramtanu Lahiri, were outspoken in their criticism of Hindu religion and social customs and fearless in declaring their convictions. In this process, they even didn’t spare the Government. They recalled the glorious past and strove their different ways to uplift the people and restore their pristine greatness. Between the ideologies of these two ideologies, Ram Mohan Roy pursued middle course. He was a critique of the decadent Eastern culture and appreciated the dynamic and progressive West. He defended Hindu religion in its original and purer and wanted to incorporate the rationalist and scientific thought of the west. Trace the causes for the rise and growth of the Indian capitalist class. Do you think that they emerged as subordinate of the British capitalists? Answer: Unlike China, the Indian capitalist class grew from about the mid 19th century with largely an independent capital base and not as junior partners of foreign capital or as compradors. The British invested directly in India. Due to differential rate of taxation, lack of infrastructure and structural reforms, the existence of dual British policy of free trade and protectionism, all made the rise and growth of capitalist class a very slow and gradual process. The first major effort to promote indigenous capitalism was initiated during the Swadeshi Movement in 1905. Infact, the First World War (1914), the world economic depression of 1929, and the Second World War (1939) provided opportunity to the Indian capitalist class to consolidate their competitive position against the British capitalist class. This was achieved primarily through import substitution; by edging out or encroaching upon areas of
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European domination, and by establishing almost exclusive control over new areas thus accounting for the bulk of the new investments made since the 1920s. Conclusion: The emergence of capitalist class was achieved inspite of and in opposition to colonialism. This was the reason; the interest of the Indian capitalist was never contrary to the common interest of the nation. The Indian Reform movements were directly affected by the character of middle class. Elucidate. Answer: The groups of the middle class were the by-products of the British rule. Some sections of middle class wanted a change and became the real sponsors of the socio-religious reforms. The attitude of this middle class was primarily based upon an understanding of the imperial interests and to introspect as to why we are so inferior. The education had already enhanced their inquisitiveness and awareness. One of the features of this middle class was that they were interested in finding answers to a lot of questions and with this bent of mind; they had two options to understand the contemporary nature of things: (i) To analyse the success and dominance of the west; (ii) To go back and analyse the history where we went wrong. The middle class was aware of the fact that it was not the British only who were responsible for their sordid state but they themselves were also responsible.
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The revolt of 1857 was more spontaneous than planned. Do you agree with this statement? Answer: There are certain evidences which indicates that the 1857 revolt was planned: (a) the distribution of chapatis or red lotus flower to the participants; (b) the contact of men like Azimullah Khan, Maulwi Ahmadullah Shah, Mohammad Fazli; (c) the campaign of Kanpur was a combined campaign of Shahzada Firoz, Nana Saheb and Kunwar Singh; (d) in Madras the slogan was raised “Long Live the Sultan of Delhi”. The Mughal King Bahadur Shah II was appointed as the leader without any ambiguity. But at the same time there were no coordination amongst the leaders for example the Rani of Jhansi was fighting alone and there were no reinforcement for her; there were no planning in the sequence of revolt. Infact, it seems that there was no possibility of planning at the initial phase of the revolt. If there would have been any planning, that would have been visible in the latter half of the revolt. It may be
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No doubt that these movements apart from religious considerations, it fostered among Indians greater self-respect, self-confidence and direction to a sense of patriotism. These religious movements catered to the needs of a small percentage of the population-the urban middle and upper classes.
The revivalist movements of 19th century created mutual suspicion and a sense of insecurity amongst each other unconsciously contributed to the rise and growth of communalism. Among the Muslims the school of Waliullah of Delhi, the Deoband School were active in restoring pristine purity and religious fervour of the Muslim community.
British attacked caste system in order to create a feeling of casteism and not to bring about equality in society; protested against Sati, female infanticide not because they wanted to condition of women but they wanted to prove that the males were barbarian; attacked Indian rituals in order to encourage conversion through missionary activities; brought new laws on joint family to create a division amongst the family members.
called spontaneous planning and that is why it failed also. It lacked initial plan, programme, refunds and organisation and above all, a leader. At the same time there were little awareness amongst the people and understanding of the British rule was beyond the reach of common people. Despite major contributions of socioreligious movement, there were certain inherent contradictions limitations were embedded in it. Specify them. Answer: No doubt that these movements apart from religious considerations, it fostered among Indians greater self-respect, selfconfidence and direction to a sense of patriotism. These religious movements catered to the needs of a small percentage of the population-the urban middle and upper classes. None of them could reach the vast masses of the peasantry and the urban poor. There was an inherent tendency to look backward, appeal to past greatness, and to rely on scriptural authority. They encouraged mysticism in new garbs, undermined scientific outlook and fostered pseudo-scientific thinking. The revivalist movements of 19th century created mutual suspicion and a sense of insecurity amongst each other unconsciously contributed to the rise and growth of communalism. Among the Muslims the school of Waliullah of Delhi, the Deoband School were active in restoring pristine purity and religious fervour of the Muslim community. Among the Hindus the revival of Shivaji and Ganapati festival, the Dharma Sabha of Radha Kant Deb of Calcutta tried to glorify hinduism against the Christianity, but ultimately due to communication gap it sent a wrong message to Muslims, this was further added by ‘suddhi movement’. The love for Hindu ideals and institution, the pride in Hindu religion and philosophy, consciously or unconsciously contributed to the sense of superiority.
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What is utilitarian education? Discuss the motives of the downward filtration theory. Answer: Education was used as a means to create a loyal, educated, middle class which can serve the British rule in their colonial administration. In this process in 1780, Calcutta Madarsa was founded by Warren Hastings with the main purpose to produce responsible officers well versed in revenue matters and to conciliate and encourage the Muslims and later Hindus for British service. Then in 1791, Banaras Sanskrit College was established by Jonathan Duncan. Lord
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Wellesley opened Fort Williams College in 1801 with the main purpose to train English Civil Servants of the Company. The basic motive of the downward filtration was (a) to make English as the key modern language spoken by ruling classes and it would bring about a renaissance in India like Greek and Latin did in England or just as languages of western Europe civilized Russia; (b) to create a gulf between the educated and the masses thereby leading to less and less communication and the nationalist feeling would be eroded; (c) the spread of English education among Indians met also the requirement of British administration. The employment of a large number of Indians in the subordinate services was an administrative necessity; and finally, it would cripple the traditional education system. Do you think that the various social legislations enacted by the British regime were guided towards ensuring a modern and rational social system in India? Give your views. Answer: The Britishers never wanted a philanthropic change in the Indian social system. They wanted only that level of change which was required for the expansion of British Empire. They also wanted to create a rift between the newly created middle class and the traditionalists. British attacked caste system in order to create a feeling of casteism and not to bring about equality in society; protested against Sati, female infanticide not because they wanted to condition of women but they wanted to prove that the males were barbarian; attacked Indian rituals in order to encourage conversion through missionary activities; brought new laws on joint family to create a division amongst the family members. This intention becomes clearer when we analyze their post-1857 policies. After 1857, the British government had no major challenge to be dealt with; they had no need to appease any element; the control over entire India was established; and therefore, they relinquished the idea of bringing any further social legislation.
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What were motive behind the policy of equal federation (1935-1947)? Do you think that it was the last attempt to use the Princely states as the ‘Breakwaters in the Storm’? Answer: The Government of India Act of 1935 provided a scheme of federation in which the Indian states were to be brought into a direct constitutional relationship with British India. Under the Act, States were to send
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The Federation of India was to come into existence only when rulers of states representing not less than one-half of the total population of the state and entitled to not less than half of seat allotted to the states in the upper chamber of the Federal Legislature agreed to join the Federation.
The purpose of the policy of equal Federation adopted by the British towards Indian states was to have the help of Princely States to reduce the influence of National movement. The rulers of the Native States were bound to be very loyal to their British connection.
The gap between the educated and the illiterate masses was not significantly lessened. In practice what they succeeded in doing was to spread the movement deeper among the lower middle classes who were already brought within the ambit of nationalism in the moderate era (1885-1905). Even Tilak did not identify with the masses and he confined himself to the educated classes only.
representatives to the Federal Legislative. They would be nominees of the Princes and not democratically elected representatives of the people. These representatives were one third of total number of Federal Legislatures and act as solid conservative block that could be trusted to the thwart nationalist pressures. The Federation of India was to come into existence only when rulers of states representing not less than one-half of the total population of the state and entitled to not less than half of seat allotted to the states in the upper chamber of the Federal Legislature agreed to join the Federation. The purpose of the policy of equal Federation adopted by the British towards Indian states was to have the help of Princely States to reduce the influence of National movement. The rulers of the Native States were bound to be very loyal to their British connection. It was why in the scheme of federation, these rulers were to select the representatives of the states. It was considered that it would be difficult for a general rebellion against the British to sweep India because of this network of powerful loyal native states. In this phase the people of the Princely States had awaken for civil liberties and responsible government. But the British wanted the help of Princely States to maintain their power. Despite their contributions to the Indian National Movement, the extremists had lots of limitations. Explain Answer: What they said, what they believed, what they conceived was very much different from moderates but what they did was what moderates had already done. Therefore, they were ideologically different but almost same in practice. They had faith in the masses but were not able to mobilise. They believed in mass participation but were not able to break the orbit of middle classes practically. They failed to ensure the participation beyond the middle class. The gap between the educated and the illiterate masses was not significantly lessened. In practice what they succeeded in doing was to spread the movement deeper among the lower middle classes who were already brought within the ambit of nationalism in the moderate era (1885-1905). Even Tilak did not identify with the masses and he confined himself to the educated classes only. Similarly, the extremists also failed to evolve adequate technique for political action. Their concept of passive resistance was very vague and undefined. There was no broad policy framework.
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In this process, in order to deliberately ensure mass participation they became revivalists and obscurantist and gradually became parochial in matters of social reforms. This gave British a clue to pursue a policy of ‘divide and rule’ on the basis of religion. Therefore, the extremists’ gestation period was very limited and people were fed up and resorted to direct action in the form of revolutionary terrorism. The economic policies followed by the British led to the transformation of India’s economy into a colonial economy. They disrupted the traditional structure of the Indian economy. Explain how this happened with special reference to agriculture, rural employment and development of our industries. Answer: (i) The Indian traditional handicraft industry failed to cope with British Industrial in terms of the production and price; (ii) The constant drain of money considerably affected the capital formation needed for the industrialization; (iii) The British protectionist policy for its industry and goods and free trade for Indian production ruined the Indian Industries; (iv) The severe restriction imposed on the flow of Gold and silver form England to India restrictions also made on free import of Indian finished goods to England; (v) India, gradually, was compelled to export industrial raw materials and other tropical commodities like raw Cotton, indigo, tea, coffee, sugar and food grains. England wanted these industrial raw materials for her gradually expanding industries; (vi) The railways, roads, buildings programs further added to the control of British Government over the raw materials in the market; (vii) The extermination of the traditional ruling class, who were the main patrons of the traditional atrocious. As a result of this three was a rapid decline of the demands of product of various urban handicrafts which were very famous at one time and in a flourishing condition. These urban handicrafts in India were unable to successfully face the challenge posed by free imports into India of Chief manufactured goods produced on a large scale in the factories of England; (viii) The Indian artisans failed to organize themselves against the new challenge and succumbed to the pressure; (ix) The newly emerged middle class, mostly British educated, also preferred cheap manufactured British goods; (x) The various land revenue settlements completely changed the lives of the peasant; the traditional land rights were disturbed; irresponsible intermediaries were created; the actual
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The British had perfectly analyzed Indian society and knew its strengths and weaknesses. They knew that Indian society had a tendency to gravitate towards localism and regionalism and the reason was obvious: India was a selfsufficient country based on selfsufficient units and there was very little interaction between the two. The British were very much aware that a sense of nationalism is always an antidote to imperialism.
The British design to create dissension amongst the Hindu community was defeated to some extent. The dent was made but originality never returned. It ushered a period of caste-based politics which still ruins India.
When the Government of the country spends the tax proceeds within the country, money circulates among the people creating demand for various types of goods and services and thus fructifies in profitable progress in trade, agriculture and industry. The benefits of such a policy percolate down the mass of people.
cultivators were dispossessed; exorbitant taxation was imposed; the zamindari rights were conferred on communal lines. The impact of Mahajans was felt by every household. ‘The MacDonald Award was another manifestation of British policy of ‘divide and rule’. Assess its implications on Indian politics. Answer: The award was based on the British theory that India was not a nation, but a congeries of racial, religious and cultural groups, castes and interests. It was a next in the series of Acts like 1909 Act, 1919 Act and Simon Commission’s recommendations in 1930. The British had perfectly analyzed Indian society and knew its strengths and weaknesses. They knew that Indian society had a tendency to gravitate towards localism and regionalism and the reason was obvious: India was a self-sufficient country based on self-sufficient units and there was very little interaction between the two. The British were very much aware that a sense of nationalism is always an antidote to imperialism. Therefore, the British had a single point agenda, to strike down the elements of nationalism and to create parochial loyalties. Elections are a powerful means for the allocation of power and therefore, British came up with the concept of separate electorate. Therefore, the purpose of MacDonald Award was to debilitate national unity by creating different spheres of interests and it was a bid to puncture the loyalty of Indians. The impact was very dangerous. Gandhiji knew it. He immediately went to rural areas to combat the feeling of separateness. The politics of appeasement and quota started. A feeling of relative deprivation was created. The British design to create dissension amongst the Hindu community was defeated to some extent. The dent was made but originality never returned. It ushered a period of caste-based politics which still ruins India.
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The Drain of Wealth fostered industrialization in England at the cost of Indian industrialization. Elucidate. Answer: The abundant resources and bullion which England obtained either cheaply or without paying anything in return, in the forms of the Drain from India, which helped English people to raise their investment in agriculture and industries. Rich officials and merchants who retired in England with huge amounts and pensions after serving in India had the leisure and money to devote their attention to new inventions, construction of roads, canals and railways and bring rapid
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changes in all sectors of the economy. The public debt policy of the Government and payment of annual interest on them meant increasing tax burden on the Indian people. Highly regressive taxation was imposed on people for servicing the Government of India’s debt raised in England. When the Government of the country spends the tax proceeds within the country, money circulates among the people creating demand for various types of goods and services and thus fructifies in profitable progress in trade, agriculture and industry. The benefits of such a policy percolate down the mass of people. But when tax proceeds are spent abroad as it happened in the case of the Drain, it meant siphoning off the resources out of India, thus impoverishing her trade, agriculture and industries. The Quit India Movement was a natural corollary of the prolonged struggle for the independence. Explain. Answer: The immediate cause of Quit India Movement was the failure of Cripps Mission. It made clear that Britain was unwilling to offer an honourable settlement and a real constitutional advance during the Second World War, and that was determined to continue India’s unwilling partnership in the war effort. Gandhiji and Nehru realised that any further silence would be tantamount to accept the right of the British Government to decide India’s fate without any reference to the wishes of her people. The steeply rising inflation and the acute shortage of food stuffs caused by war had a major role. The news of Allied reverses and British withdrawals from South-East Asia and Burma enhanced popular willingness to give expression to this discontent. The popular faith in the stability of British rule was so low that people withdrew deposits from post offices and banks. The leadership realized that the people were becoming demoralized and that in the event of Japanese invasion, might not resist at all. The Shimla Conference was a failure for the INC but it made Muslim League a great gainer and the sole dispenser of Muslim fate in India. Explain. Answer: Wavell knew that Muslim League could not, in any circumstance, agree to a constitution on any basis other than that of Pakistan. Its attitude was fundamentally opposed to the Congress demand for a united India and powerful Central Government.
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Patel adopted the ‘blood and iron’ policy and first of all appealed to the Princes to accede to Indian Union. Out of fear of people’s revolt all the states joined except Junagarh, J&K and Hyderabad. These were forcefully compelled to join after plebiscite and military action. Wavell formally handed over to Jinnah, the power to veto – final authority in any constitutional progress in India. Now Jinnah became the sole representative of Muslims though actually he was just a 15 per cent representative of Muslims. The repression of Dharmendra Singhji in Rajkot; the Mysore incident; and ruthless suppression of movement in Hyderabad, Travancore, and Kashmir and the subsequent refusal of the rulers to accept Gandhiji’s request to halt the repression, prompted Nehru to change the attitude from the Haripura Congress session onwards. Many useful measures were taken by the Indian ministers in different provinces, i.e Madras State Aid Industries Act, 1923, the Bombay Primary Education Act, The Bihar and Orissa Village Administration Act’, The Bombay Local Boards Act, 1923, etc.
There were only three parties to decide the fate of this conference: the Congress, the Muslim League and the Viceroy. As far as Congress was concerned, India was a single nation but for Muslim League, the Muslims were not only a minority but a nation in them. The Viceroy’s fate depended on their disagreement. Greater the disagreement, larger the extension of British rule in India. Wavell formally handed over to Jinnah, the power to veto – final authority in any constitutional progress in India. Now Jinnah became the sole representative of Muslims though actually he was just a 15 per cent representative of Muslims. Thus, the conference raised the status of Jinnah equivalent to that of Gandhi. Thus, two representatives were created for the first time – one for India and the other for Pakistan. Wavell in this process reversed the proposals of Cripps’ Mission which had recognised INC as the only platform which could discuss with the Government. Thus, Wavell created two platforms at Shimla. Therefore, the Shimla Conference was a failure for the INC but it made Muslim League a great gainer and the sole dispenser of Muslim fate in India. Why initially Congress adopted a lukewarm approach towards princely states? What prompted them to change their attitude? Answer: Initially, Congress wanted to indirectly support the All India State’s People Movement. The members of Congress were permitted to participate in the movement on individual capacity. This lukewarm attitude was due to two factors: (a) Gandhiji wanted to maintain the support of the Princes because they were very moderate and nationalist and any support to the movement meant internal interference in their affairs which could jeopardize their relations; and (b) The Congress wanted the people of states to come independently as Gandhiji felt the level of awareness is lacking to participate in the national movement. The repression of Dharmendra Singhji in Rajkot; the Mysore incident; and ruthless suppression of movement in Hyderabad, Travancore, and Kashmir and the subsequent refusal of the rulers to accept Gandhiji’s request to halt the repression, prompted Nehru to change the attitude from the Haripura Congress session onwards. Mountbatten gave two options to the princely states: either join India or Pakistan but the choice must be only on geographical conditions and sign instrument of accession.
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But PM Atlee announced on 20th February, 1947 that the majesty’s government do not intended to handover powers and obligations under paramountcy to any government to British India. Consequently, the rulers of several states claimed that they would become independent when British rule ended. Patel adopted the ‘blood and iron’ policy and first of all appealed to the Princes to accede to Indian Union. Out of fear of people’s revolt all the states joined except Junagarh, J&K and Hyderabad. These were forcefully compelled to join after plebiscite and military action. The Government of India Act of 1858 was ‘rather a formal than a substantial change’. Do you agree? Answer: The Crown had already steadily increasing its control over the Company’s affairs since the beginning of its territorial sovereignty. The main rules under which India was governed before the passing of the Act of 1958 were already those of the British parliament. The British administrators, including Governor-General, were nominally followed the instructions of the East India Company. In fact they were strictly following the instructions of the British cabinet with its Indian Minister who was the President of the board of Control and through them to Parliament. The various statutes, Charter Acts had already substantially reduced the influence of EIC. EIC can correctly be called ‘a superfluous fifth wheel’ was dead before the 1858 Act.
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Despite limitations the Act of 1919 had a lot of merits also. Substantiate your points to support this statement. Answer: It marked the end of the policy of ‘benevolent despotism’ and the beginning of the responsible government, definitely to some extent. The elections to the legislatures created political consciousness among the people. The number of the Indians in the GovernorGeneral’s executive council was raised to 3 in a council of 8. The Indian members were entrusted with departments like that of law, education, labour, health and industry. The Indians came in direct contact with administration for the first time which provided them useful experience. The number of Indian increased in civil services. The Indian women got the right to franchise for the first time. Many useful measures were taken by the Indian ministers in different provinces, i.e Madras State Aid Industries Act, 1923, the Bombay Primary Education Act, The Bihar and
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The position of the Governor-General remained unchanged and his veto power remained undiluted and the Act was successfully maintained relentless consti-tutional autocracy. Under such circumstances narrow franchises, indirect elections, limited powers of the Legislative Councils ushered a complete irresponsible government.
The provinces of Sindh and Karnataka shall be separate any further reorganisation of provinces shall be on linguistic basis. The proposed report was good but not practical. After accepting separate electorate at Lucknow Pact in 1916, it was practically impossible to roll back by the INC. The joint and mixed concept was practically unacceptable for the Muslim League.
Rammohan Roy, Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, Swami Dayanand Saraswati were trained in Hindu classics and consequently wanted to restore the position and status of women as it was in the “golden age”. Reform, a return to past, according to most social reformers was in harmony with both natural law and dictates of reason.
Orissa Village Administration Act’, The Bombay Local Boards Act, 1923, etc. The Reforms of 1909 afforded no answer and could afford no answer to the Indian political problem. Verify the statement. Answer: The real political solution was lying in complete self-rule and accountable governance. But the 1909 Act was only a facesaving device. The position of the GovernorGeneral remained unchanged and his veto power remained undiluted and the Act was successfully maintained relentless constitutional autocracy. Under such circumstances narrow franchises, indirect elections, limited powers of the Legislative Councils ushered a complete irresponsible government. The Act rather added new political problem with the introduction of the separate electorate system. While the parliamentary forms were introduced, no responsibility was conceded. At the same time there were no connection between the supposed primary voter and a man who sits as his representative on the Legislative Council. In such a situation the political participation, awareness and education remained a distant dream. In nutshell, it can be said that 1909 Act was ‘the shadow rather than the substance’.
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Discuss the roles of social-reformers in the upliftment of women in Indian society. Answer: Rammohan Roy, Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, Swami Dayanand Saraswati were trained in Hindu classics and consequently wanted to restore the position and status of women as it was in the “golden age”. Reform, a return to past, according to most social reformers was in harmony with both natural law and dictates of reason. They focused attention on Sati, female infanticide, polygamy, child marriage, purdah, prohibition of female education. In Bengal, Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar become a champion of female education and led a campaign to legalise window remarriage. As a result of their efforts, in 1856 the Hindu Window Remarriage Act was passed. However despite this, window remarriage was never approved by the society, polygamy was not abolished and the battle for female education had just begun.
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Discuss the objectives of Swarajists and their limitations. Answer: The major objectives were: (a) to resist the Government within the Central Legislative Council; (b) to induce constitutional reforms or changes in order to
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bring self-government; (c) to work at the local and municipal level. They also wanted to control the communal forces because they knew that if they would not fight elections then the communal forces would do so and would control the power. In 1923 elections, the Swaraj Party secured 47 out of 105 seats of the Imperial Legislative Council/Central Legislative Council. 1. Lacked policy to coordinate the militancy inside the legislatures with mass struggle outside. 2. Failed to support the peasant’s cause in Bengal. 3. Lost support among Muslim members. 4. Failed to resist the desire for power and privilege for High Offices. 5. Could not carry on with their coalition partners and after the death of C.R. Das in 1925, they faced a severe leadership crisis. What are the major recommendations of the Nehru Report? Do you think it was reversal of the Lucknow Pact? Answer: The political status of India should be the same as that of British dominions like Canada, South Africa. The fundamental rights shall be provided in the Constitution which includes freedom of conscience. The lower House of the Central Legislature will be elected by joint and mixed electorates but there shall be reservation of seats for Muslims; at the same time, a similar reservation for Hindus in NWFP. The provinces of Sindh and Karnataka shall be separate any further reorganisation of provinces shall be on linguistic basis. The proposed report was good but not practical. After accepting separate electorate at Lucknow Pact in 1916, it was practically impossible to roll back by the INC. The joint and mixed concept was practically unacceptable for the Muslim League.
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What is the difference between passive resistance and active resistance? Discuss the reasons why the concept of passive resistance was adopted over the concept of active resistance. Answer: The concept of passive resistance (PA) was highlighted by the extremist nationalist Aurobindo Ghosh. The essential difference between passive or defensive or active or aggressive resistance is that, while the method of aggressive resister is to do something by which he can bring about positive harm to the Government, the method of the passive resister is to abstain from doing something by which he would be helping the Government. The policy of PA was evolved partly as the necessary complement of self-
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Aurobindo took politics on the much higher plane of spirituality and patriotism as a form of devotion and expression and thus put the politics beyond the calculations of losses and gains of moderates. There is a need for greater sacrifices.
help, partly as a means of putting pressure on Government. The concept of passive resistance was suitable to India where the British Government had depended mainly for their continuance of its administration on the voluntary help and acquiescence of the local people. Therefore, the passive resistance was adopted to make administration under present conditions impossible by an organized refusal to do anything which shall help either British commerce in the exploitation of the country or British officialdom in the administration of it. Therefore, the policy was evolved partly as the necessary complement of self-help, partly as a means of putting pressure on Government. Gandhji’s concept of satyagraha owe a lot to the concept of passive resistance but it was quite different from it. Justify. Answer: The term Satyagraha was coined by Gandhi in South Africa to indicate the movement which was originally described, even by Gandhi himself, as ‘Passive Resistance’. The word Satyagraha was deliberately substituted for it later because Gandhiji felt ashamed to use an English word and he also felt that his Satyagraha was very much different from passive resistance. To him, PA is a weapon of the weak, and does not exclude the use of physical force or violence for the purpose of gaining one’s end; whereas Satyagraha has been conceived as a weapon of the strongest, and excludes the use of violence in any shape or form. The idea behind Satyagraha is not to destroy or harass the opponent, but to convert him or win him over by sympathy, patience, and selfsuffering. Its basic assumption is the essential goodness of human nature which is bound to triumph over temporary aberration.
47 The idea behind Satyagraha is not to destroy or harass the opponent, but to convert him or win him over by sympathy, patience, and selfsuffering. Its basic assumption is the essential goodness of human nature which is bound to triumph over temporary aberration.
The moderates believed that the concept of passive resistance would either impracticable (boycott of English goods, government service, honorary offices) or injurious (boycott of universities and other educational institutions, and some items like strikes, might invite heavy repression by government. They believed that as a political weapon, passive resistance may not be effective.
Discuss the basic differences between moderates and extremists, mainly Aurobindo Ghosh, over the adoption of the concept of passive resistance in the Indian national movement. Answer: The moderates believed that the concept of passive resistance would either impracticable (boycott of English goods, government service, honorary offices) or injurious (boycott of universities and other educational institutions, and some items like strikes, might invite heavy repression by government. They believed that as a political weapon, passive resistance may not be effective. On the other hand, the extremist leaders believed that time have come to regard
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politics more seriously as a part of our religion. To them, nationalism is not a mere political programme but a religious one too. To Aurobindo, repression is nothing but the hammer of God and without suffering there can be no growth. In other words, Aurobindo took politics on the much higher plane of spirituality and patriotism as a form of devotion and expression and thus put the politics beyond the calculations of losses and gains of moderates. There is a need for greater sacrifices. Discuss the motives and objectives of Hume behind his support to the foundation of Indian National Congress. Do you think that foundation of Indian National Congress was against the will of the British Government and people? Answer: Hume has firm conviction that the interests of the Indian and the British people were essentially the same and that the administration of India ought to be carried on with equal benefit to both. He also felt that Pax Britannia has failed to resolve the growing economic conditions of India and the British Government has almost lost communication with people of India. Therefore, to him, it was necessary to have the fusion into one national whole of all the different elements that constitute the population of India. In order to ensure people’s awareness, it was required to regenerate along all lines, spiritual, moral, social, and political. Considering this, he launched the scheme of the Indian National Union with the aim to oppose, by all constitutional methods, against all the authorities who basically violate or oppose to the principles of the Government of India laid down by the British Parliament and endorsed by the British Sovereign. These objectives and scope of the programme clearly indicates that the support of Hume was guided by the fact of his longterm vision to maintain the British rule in India by means of benevolent rule. Initially, the British Government tacitly accepted the foundation of INC as it appears that Hume discussed the plan of a political conference with the Governor General, Dufferin, and received his approval to proceed with it. Dufferin was anxious to ascertain the real wishes of the people, and thought that the conference would be a good channel for such communication. The INC also recounted the benefits of British rule, contained assurances of India’s loyalty to the Crown and reiterated India’s desire to remain within the British Empire. The
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British Government called INC in a number of conferences in 1886, 1887 and 1888. But as the demands of Congress began to affect the British rule, the Government drastically changed its approach. Do you think that the moderates faded away because of their own performances and their historical role was exhausted? Answer: The moderates were pioneers of Indian National Movement (INM) and had no confusion with their own practical limitations. They were, for all practical purposes, not in a position to defy or openly challenge the British Government. The limited resources, mass base and lack of awareness and participation of the people compelled them not to assign an important role to the masses or mass struggle in their work. There was lack of communication between them and the masses that were illiterate had to be educated in stages. They assumed that political rights and self-government should grow slowly but steadily, from precedent to precedent and by progressive stages. From the very beginning, they were directed towards fundamental constitutional changes. The process of national liberation was not to be that of a prolonged revolution but that of prolonged stage by stage evolution. Thus they had patience and they felt their task was to start the process of spreading political awareness in the people which in the long run would give people the energy and confidence that would overthrow the British rule. But right then their task was small yet significant. Therefore they believed in prayer, petition and persuasion by the way of PressureCompromise-Pressure (PCP). Moderates championed the cause of the rural agricultural classes by demanding permanent settlement of land revenue paid by the landlords. It protested against the forest laws; laid much stress on the neglect of the education of the masses. The Indian Council Act, 1892 was the result of their demand. The concept of Swaraj which was highlighted in Banaras and Calcutta session in 1905 and 1906, continued to be a guiding factor of Congress up to 1929, Lahore session. Webley Commission was constituted to assess the revenue expenditure. The Military expenditure reduced considerably. Swadeshi considerably affected the import patterns. The Drain Theory exposed the character of British exploitation and colonialism. In other words, whatever they wanted they more or less achieved and any further pursuance needed a different methods of
50 The moderates were pioneers of Indian National Movement (INM) and had no confusion with their own practical limitations. They were, for all practical purposes, not in a position to defy or openly challenge the British Government.
The ramifications of revolt of 1857 was always more than a sepoy mutiny or orthodox religious reaction and went beyond it and became a movement to restore the old order but at the same time it cannot be regarded as a national movement.
Webley Commission was constituted to assess the revenue expenditure. The Military expenditure reduced considerably. Swadeshi considerably affected the import patterns. The Drain Theory exposed the character of British exploitation and colonialism.
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struggle and therefore, it paved the way for other methods of struggle to prevail. Do you think that the revolt of 1857 can be seen beyond the military and religious grievances? Can it be called ‘first national war of independence’? Substantiate your views over the given statement? Answer: The ramifications of revolt of 1857 was always more than a sepoy mutiny or orthodox religious reaction and went beyond it and became a movement to restore the old order but at the same time it cannot be regarded as a national movement. The revolt was not neither extended to every corner of the country nor every section like peasants, workers, middle class fully participated, but at the same time the participation was seen from every section of society who was part of the medieval age and was adversely affected by the new colonial rule. No doubt, Disraeli declared that the movement was a ‘national revolt’ and not a ‘military mutiny’, even Ellenborough called 1857 as legitimate war than a rebellion, it has to be admitted that the Hindus and Muslims co-operated, but the leaders and the followers of the two communities were moved by personal loyalties rather than by loyalty to a common motherland. It was the last concerted effort to eliminate the foreigners by the old ruling structure and to establish medieval order. Infact, 1857 revolt was essentially a feudal outburst headed by feudal chiefs and their followers and aided by the widespread anti-foreign sentiment. Further, the main area of spread of revolt was mainly confined to Delhi, Kanpur, Lucknow, Central India and Bundelkhand, Bihar, Faizabad. The Bombay and the Madras armies remained loyal. Besides that Sind, Rajasthan, Punjab, Nepal, Rajasthan and a number Princely states either remained neutral or supportive to British rule. At some place, there were some planned coordination but by and large the movement was spontaneous. The mass base of the movement was very limited. The major agrarian violence did not come from peasant groups but from traditionally superior class communities from British rule had meant loss of political influence and relative economic deprivation. The middle class was the creation of the British rule and therefore, did not actively participate. Conclusion: The 1857 Revolt was definitely beyond the military and religious grievances but it was slightly less than the full-fledged war of independence.
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During the course of partition movement, the extremists did not politically and ideologically criticize the heroic of youth was a great mistake and this failure enabled the individualistic and terrorist conception of revolution. Gandhiji was also realising that a prolonged movement needs participation at every level and he had accepted that personal shortcomings of the volunteers and their leaders or defects in the organisation should not have been overexposed before the British regime. The split of 1907 at Surat of moderates and Extremists considerably eroded the confidence of the people and the masses who had thought that Congress was the sole dispenser of a new era. This led to leadership crisis in Congress and the people of India. Throughout the INM, Congress was the sole representative of masses. A number of Muslim leaders raised fears and doubts about the capacity of India to win freedom through civil disobedience. As a result of this, the old dissensions, based upon complaints like cow-slaughter and music before mosque, were raked up and causes of disagreement like shuddhi or tabligh and sangathan or tanzim were added.
more caused by the role of extremists than the failure of moderates? Elucidate. Answer: During the course of partition movement, the extremists did not politically and ideologically criticize the heroic of youth was a great mistake and this failure enabled the individualistic and terrorist conception of revolution. At the same time, the Extremists increased the expectations of people while criticizing the policies of moderates. Thus the expectations and aspirations of the people were extremely high from the Extremists. For this the people were not to be blamed. In order to criticise the moderates, they crossed the limits (Lakshman rekha) of pragmatism. Boycott was unpragmatic then because of complete de-industrialisation and no domestic and indigenous industries. Gandhiji could use it successfully only when indigenous capitalist had developed. It was a concept much ahead of the times. The split of 1907 at Surat of moderates and Extremists considerably eroded the confidence of the people and the masses who had thought that Congress was the sole dispenser of a new era. This led to leadership crisis in Congress and the people of India. Throughout the INM, Congress was the sole representative of masses.
was the desperate bid of Gandhiji to save the capitalists and the landlords”. Examine the veracity of the statement. Answer: The statement lacks historical and circumstantial evidences as violence in a remote village could not be sufficient enough to take such a major decision on this line. It was not possible for a mass movement to succeed in the face of government repression. Gandhiji took the decision from a very practical point of view. In many parts of the country, by the second half of 1921, the movement had started to dwindle. Gandhiji was also realising that a prolonged movement needs participation at every level and he had accepted that personal shortcomings of the volunteers and their leaders or defects in the organisation should not have been overexposed before the British regime. Gandhiji was very much knowing that the INC is undergoing structural changes and as a strategy it was not possible for him to continue to wage incessant struggle. At the same time, the communal violence was growing which was the main pillar of strength of the movement. Besides that, Gandhiji had no specific link with the capitalists and landlords. They were like other classes in the Congress.
The failure of individual revolutionary terrorism significantly contributed to the success of Gandhji. Examine the relevance of the statement. Answer: They consciously or unconsciously sent a message of failure to both Moderates and Extremists and proved that a vacuum had been created and thereby a new reorientation was needed. Thus they contributed to some extent to the emergence of Gandhism. Their failure indicated that without big organizations, sporadic efforts could not exterminate the British. For this, greater communication and coordination was needed which they followed in the second half. This may have also prompted Gandhiji to reorganize INC. They compelled the British to relinquish the double standards of benevolent despotic rule. The British became exposed in brute manner and hence they oppressed them brutally which further exposed the naked face of colonialism and imperialism. They also gave the message to the younger generation that role of patience is more powerful than role of impatience in Indian context and for a long drawn movement this helped Gandhiji.
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Do you think that the Khilafat Movement built structure on communal unity led to ultimate sense of communalism? Comment. Answer: Once the abandonment of partition of Turkey was announced, some section of Muslims started to see the futility of swaraj and fresh interest was awakened in the Muslim League which had been moribund since 1918. At the same time, the disintegrated state of politics offered an opportunity to the British to re-establish their old relations with the Muslims and bring them back into the loyalists’ fold. Even of the most violent Khilafatists began to believe that there was more to be gained by supporting government in its honest efforts than by adhering to the hitherto non-cooperation. A number of Muslim leaders raised fears and doubts about the capacity of India to win freedom through civil disobedience. As a result of this, the old dissensions, based upon complaints like cowslaughter and music before mosque, were raked up and causes of disagreement like shuddhi or tabligh and sangathan or tanzim were added. Discuss the origin of crisis of Swarajist Party. Who were responsivist cooperationists? Why Independent
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The Communist Party of India, a small group which had been declared illegal by the British Government, instructed its members to join the CSP and thereby use its public platform in order to push forward its own organisation and objective. M M Malaviya tried to reconcile both Swaraj Party and Responsivists and at a meeting an independent Congress Party was set up to fight elections in cooperation with the Responsivists, as a separate organization within the Congress. The British Government undoubtedly devised the federation in the hope that the mutual jealousies and rivalries between the Congress, the Muslim League, and the Rulers of States would enable them to retain the real authority by playing off one against the other. The revivalist movements of 19th century created mutual suspicion and a sense of insecurity amongst each other unconsciously contributed to the rise and growth of communalism. Among the Muslims the school of Waliullah of Delhi, the Deoband School were active in restoring pristine purity and religious fervour of the Muslim community.
Congress Party came into existence? Answer: After the death C R Das in 1925, a tug of war had started between those members of the councils who were feeling tired of the exhausting tactics of unrelieved obstruction and the others who realized the futility of work in the councils whether as members of the opposition or as cooperators with Government. It was founded by M Jayakar and Kelkar of Swarajist Party with the intention of giving a fillip to the council entry programme “by occupying every place of power, initiative and responsibility and giving no quarter to the bureaucracy”. In other words, unlike Congress, the responsivists decided to assume responsibility of the office in spite of the limited scope of reforms. M M Malaviya tried to reconcile both Swaraj Party and Responsivists and at a meeting an independent Congress Party was set up to fight elections in cooperation with the Responsivists, as a separate organization within the Congress. Discuss the British design behind the inclusion of Princely States in the Federation Scheme of 1935 Act. What were the initial reactions of the Rulers? Answer: The presence of the rulers in the Central Legislature was matter of vital interest for British rulers in India as they mostly relied upon this reactionary element to keep down, at least moderate, the democratic element in British India. The British Government undoubtedly devised the federation in the hope that the mutual jealousies and rivalries between the Congress, the Muslim League, and the Rulers of States would enable them to retain the real authority by playing off one against the other. They could therefore never think of introducing Responsible Government in the centre, even in a modified or diluted form, without roping in the rulers within the Federation. The Rulers feared that their own subjects would demand similar reforms, and such demands would be hard to resist once the States formed a part of the Federation of India. The Rulers of the States felt that with the introduction of new Constitution in the Provinces, the contrast between the forms of Government in British India and those in States would be more and more glaring.
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Discuss the factors for the rise and growth of Congress Socialist Party. Trace the ideological base of CSP. Answer: The emergence of a Socialist left wing in the Congress in 1934 indicated the
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resurgence of the radical group in India. For the time being, both Satyagraha or Civil Disobedience and revolutionary terrorism had lost their charm and in the vacuum created thereby, CSP naturally made headway. The Communist Party of India, a small group which had been declared illegal by the British Government, instructed its members to join the CSP and thereby use its public platform in order to push forward its own organisation and objective. Ideologically, CSP wanted to pursue the Congress to adopt a socialist vision of independent India and a more radical prolabour and pro-peasant stand on current economic issues. CSP encompassed three broad ideologically currents: the Marxian, the Fabian and the current influenced by Gandhiji. Despite differences on certain issues, CSP never carried its opposition to the existing leadership of Congress to breaking point. Whenever it came to the crunch, it gave up its theoretical position and adopted a realistic approach close to that of Nehru. Despite major contributions of socioreligious movement, there were certain inherent contradictions limitations were embedded in it. Specify them. Answer: No doubt that these movements apart from religious considerations, it fostered among Indians greater self-respect, selfconfidence and direction to a sense of patriotism. These religious movements catered to the needs of a small percentage of the population-the urban middle and upper classes. None of them could reach the vast masses of the peasantry and the urban poor. There was an inherent tendency to look backward, appeal to past greatness, and to rely on scriptural authority. They encouraged mysticism in new garbs, undermined scientific outlook and fostered pseudo-scientific thinking. The revivalist movements of 19th century created mutual suspicion and a sense of insecurity amongst each other unconsciously contributed to the rise and growth of communalism. Among the Muslims the school of Waliullah of Delhi, the Deoband School were active in restoring pristine purity and religious fervour of the Muslim community. Among the Hindus the revival of Shivaji and Ganapati festival, the Dharma Sabha of Radha Kant Deb of Calcutta tried to glorify Hinduism against the Christianity, but ultimately due to communication gap it sent a wrong message to Muslims, this was further added by ‘suddhi movement’. The love for Hindu ideals and institution, the pride in Hindu religion and philosophy,
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Gandhiji knew the nature of the masses. They follow examples. He was also aware of the limitations of the moderates, extremists and revolutionary terrorists. The moderates lacked innovations; extremists failed mobilize masses and unconsciously contributed to communalism; and revolutionary terrorists lacked mass base and organization.
The gap between the educated and the illiterate masses was not significantly lessened. In practice what they succeeded in doing was to spread the movement deeper among the lower middle classes who were already brought within the ambit of nationalism in the moderate era (1885-1905). Even Tilak did not identify with the masses and he confined himself to the educated classes only.
The concept of Satyagraha was above any ideology and no qualification was needed for membership and therefore, it became a powerful weapon of mass-mobilization. It is a method of noncooperation with the evil forces. Therefore, the satyagraha was the most adequate and pragmatic concept of massmobilization. It was not at all rigid; its flexibility can be seen during the QIM.
consciously or unconsciously contributed to the sense of superiority. Despite a critique to the methods and techniques of the moderates, the extremists failed to transcend those techniques of struggle. Justify. Answer: The extremists had developed systematic critique of moderates and rightly emphasized the role of the masses and the need to go beyond prayer, petition and procession. What they said, what they believed, what they conceived was very much different from moderates but what they did was what moderates had already done. Therefore, they were ideologically different but almost same in practice. They had faith in the masses but were not able to mobilize. They believed in mass participation but were not able to break the orbit of middle classes practically. They failed to ensure the participation beyond the middle class. The communication gap between the masses and a section of middle class remained intact. The gap between the educated and the illiterate masses was not significantly lessened. In practice what they succeeded in doing was to spread the movement deeper among the lower middle classes who were already brought within the ambit of nationalism in the moderate era (1885-1905). Even Tilak did not identify with the masses and he confined himself to the educated classes only. Similarly, the extremists also failed to evolve adequate technique for political action. Their concept of passive resistance was very vague and undefined. There was no broad policy framework. In this process, in order to deliberately ensure mass participation they became revivalists and obscurantist and gradually became parochial in matters of social reforms. This gave British a clue to pursue a policy of ‘divide and rule’ on the basis of religion. Therefore, the extremists’ gestation period was very limited and people were fed up and resorted to direct action in the form of revolutionary terrorism.
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Discuss the Gandhian technique of mass mobilization. Do you think that Satyagraha was the correct strategy? Ans. Satyagraha consists of two terms: ‘Sat’ i.e. truth and ‘agraha’ i.e. request through ‘adherence’ to the just cause without surrendering the will. Gandhiji knew that it was not easy to root out British at once because they had acquired strong roots in India which had to be weakened slowly. That required lots of patience and strong will in the long battle.
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This required either to acquire more power than the British militarily which was impossible or to make them more disciplined and ethical which further their patience and strength. Gandhiji knew the nature of the masses. They follow examples. He was also aware of the limitations of the moderates, extremists and revolutionary terrorists. The moderates lacked innovations; extremists failed mobilize masses and unconsciously contributed to communalism; and revolutionary terrorists lacked mass base and organization. Therefore, Gandhiji stressed on the mental strength instead of physical strength. It harmonizes the cause, the end and the means. It is rooted in the power of reality. The mental strength is much powerful than physical strength. He knew that the Indians have succumbed more to the mental domination than physical one. India was defeated by East India Company only by their crafty means. Therefore, British mental domination could only be removed by stronger mental ability. The methods of satyagraha starts with the assumption that the essential goodness of the human nature which is bound to triumph over temporary aberration. It involves self-chosen suffering and humiliation for the resistors by the exemplary articulation of the strength of will. Satyagraha believed in harmony of classes and not class struggle. The greatest indication of mental strength is the tolerance. It didn’t rule out the requirement of violence. Violence was circumstantial. When needed, it was to be used. It happened in 1942 when Gandhiji said ‘do or die’. The concept of Satyagraha was above any ideology and no qualification was needed for membership and therefore, it became a powerful weapon of mass-mobilization. It is a method of non-cooperation with the evil forces. Therefore, the satyagraha was the most adequate and pragmatic concept of massmobilization. It was not at all rigid; its flexibility can be seen during the QIM. It has been generally accepted that the two world wars had adversely affected the British rule in India but at the same time it also provided great respite to the British rule in India. Elucidate. Answer: The greatest contribution to the British regime was made by the Lucknow Pact when the Congress accepted the separate electorate and communal veto. Even the 1914 Congress session was not organised. The Indian leaders immediately felt that during the First World War, the British Government would provide major opportunity and
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Even during the Second World War, the attitude towards war led to serious differences between top leaders. S C Bose looked upon a war between Germany and Britain as a godsend which would enable India to exploit the situation to her advantage. On the other hand, Gandhi and Nehru had a soft corner for British and were definitely opposed to the idea of taking advantage of Britain’s peril.
The various land revenue settlements completely changed the lives of the peasant; the traditional land rights were disturbed; irresponsible intermediaries were created; the actual cultivators were dispossessed; exorbitant taxation was imposed; the zamindari rights were conferred on communal lines. The impact of Mahajans was felt by every households.
Jinnah also expressed disagreement related to the proposal of a joint board to control matters of common concern, like defence, foreign relations, communications, etc. He observed that there could be no such common matters between two sovereign states.
therefore, in order to gain the maximum advantage they must present a united front. For this purpose they sought to win over the Extremist or Nationalist group, as well as the Muslim League. At the same time, all important sections of society-the princes, landlords, merchants and non-political class showed loyalty towards the Government. India became a vital supply base for vast quantities of small arms and ammunitions, clothing and food supplies to allied armies in the Middle East. In other words complete peace and cooperation helped the British to get rid of the tormenting time. Even during the Second World War, the attitude towards war led to serious differences between top leaders. S C Bose looked upon a war between Germany and Britain as a godsend which would enable India to exploit the situation to her advantage. On the other hand, Gandhi and Nehru had a soft corner for British and were definitely opposed to the idea of taking advantage of Britain’s peril. Nehru categorically opined that India should offer not only sympathy but unconditional support to Britain. On 15th September 1939, the Working Committee adopted Nehru’s resolution and formally asked to take India’s mutual consent for its participation. The economic policies followed by the British led to the transformation of India’s economy into a colonial economy. They disrupted the traditional structure of the Indian economy. Explain how this happened with special reference to agriculture, rural employment and development of our industries. Answer: (i) The Indian traditional handicraft industry failed to cope with British Industrial in terms of the production and price; (ii) The constant drain of money considerably affected the capital formation needed for the industrialization; (iii) The British protectionist policy for its industry and goods and free trade for Indian production ruined the Indian Industries; (iv) The severe restriction imposed on the flow of Gold and silver form England to India restrictions also made on free import of Indian finished goods to England; (v) India, gradually, was compelled to export industrial raw materials and other tropical commodities like raw Cotton, indigo, tea, coffee, sugar and food grains. England wanted these industrial raw materials for her gradually expanding industries; (vi) The railways, roads, buildings programs further added to the control of British Government over the raw materials in the market; (vii) The extermination of the traditional ruling class,
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who were the main patrons of the traditional atrocious. As a result of this three was a rapid decline of the demands of product of various urban handicrafts which were very famous at one time and in a flourishing condition. These urban handicrafts in India were unable to successfully face the challenge posed by free imports into India of Chief manufactured goods produced on a large scale in the factories of England; (viii) The Indian artisans failed to organize themselves against the new challenge and succumbed to the pressure; (ix) The newly emerged middle class, mostly British educated, also preferred cheap manufactured British goods; (x) The various land revenue settlements completely changed the lives of the peasant; the traditional land rights were disturbed; irresponsible intermediaries were created; the actual cultivators were dispossessed; exorbitant taxation was imposed; the zamindari rights were conferred on communal lines. The impact of Mahajans was felt by every households. Jinnah rejected Rajagopalachari plan and said, “Gandhi is offering a shadow and a husk, a maimed multilated and moth-eaten Pakistan”. Explain. Answer: Jinnah had argued that separation could not be deferred till after independence, considered common services to be unnecessary, and felt that plebiscites with both Muslims and Hindus voting contradicted the basic principle of Muslim being a distinct nation with an inherent right of selfdetermination. The plan was incompatible with Jinnah’s theory of two nations. At the same time, Jinnah believed that only the Muslims had the right to vote, which was quite unreasonable. Jinnah also expressed disagreement related to the proposal of a joint board to control matters of common concern, like defence, foreign relations, communications, etc. He observed that there could be no such common matters between two sovereign states. In fact, Jinnah had accepted the proposal of Cripps regarding non-accession of Muslim provinces but did not like Rajaji plan because while Cripps talked of provinces out of the Union, while Rajaji and Gandhiji spoke of only of Muslim majority areas which meant a truncated Pakistan, a Pakistan smaller than one of his dreams.
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Despite rejection by both Congress and Muslim League, Bhoola Bhai and Liyaqat Ali talks became basis of Wavell Plan. Explain the statement. Answer: The talks arrived at that INC and ML
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The resolution not only confused the government but also the Muslims. The idea Pakistan was wide open and it provided a platform for Jinnah to act and react accordingly. The undefined character of resolution consciously or unconsciously contributed to the capricious character of Jinnah.
Wavell knew if he offered a few option before Indian parties like to convene the constitution-making body; to consult the representatives of the Indian states in what way they could take part in the constitution-making body; discussion over the composition of a new Executive Committee to deal with the economic and social problems and work out the future position of India; then there is going to be no solution over these issues and the British rule will be continued unabated.
The resolution on Pakistan did not mention what the nature of the state of Pakistan would be. One school represented by Maulavis like Ashraf Ali Thanavi believed in the establishment of a theocratic state.
will join in forming an interim Government at the centre. They would then consult the groups in the Indian Legislature and submit names to the Governor-General for inclusion in the Executive Council. The selection would not be confined to members of the legislature. Communal proportions with-in the Council would be settled by agreement. The interim Government would work within the present constitution, but all the members of the Executive Council, except the GovernmentGeneral and the Commander-in-Chief, would be Indians. Following Desai-Liaqat Ali formula he proposed a Council with equal members of Hindus and Muslims, and one representative each of the Sikhs and the depressed classes, besides the C-in-C and the Viceroy. The Council will apart from administration, will do the prosecution of war and peace and would consider the composition of the constitution-making body. The Shimla Conference reflected the evil designs of partition and recognized India as a country of two diametrically opposed groups at the same platform. Illustrate the statement. Answer: Wavell formally handed over to Jinnah the power of veto, and henceforth it was regarded as an axiomatic truth in Indian politics that the final authority in any constitutional progress in India rested in the hands of Jinnah. Wavell thus reversed the process followed by Cripps who attached far greater importance to the INC representing an overwhelming majority of Indian people. It was now clear that the ML could make or mar the fortunes of Muslims, as the Government gave it the power to veto any constitutional proposal which was not to its liking. It was apprehended by many that its extravagant claim that it alone represented the Muslims of India would, in near future, be conceded in fact, if not in theory. No Muslim outside the League had therefore, any chance of a political career in future.
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Despite having a number of inherent limitations, the Pakistan resolution had served its purpose. Elaborate this statement. Answer: The resolution was quite indefinite and ambiguous about the goal. The resolution was equally vague in defining the areas in which the Muslims were numerically in a majority. The resolution on Pakistan did not mention what the nature of the state of Pakistan would be. One school represented by Maulavis like Ashraf Ali Thanavi believed in
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the establishment of a theocratic state. On the other hand, moderate section, mainly Iqbal, believed in the creation of autonomous Muslim states. Besides these limitations, even Jinnah did not clarify in concrete terms the connotation of Pakistan. In fact, the resolution was essentially a bargaining counter. The resolution not only confused the government but also the Muslims. The idea Pakistan was wide open and it provided a platform for Jinnah to act and react accordingly. The undefined character of resolution consciously or unconsciously contributed to the capricious character of Jinnah. Wavell had no alternative but to play politics with the existing parties to prolong the British rule in India. Elucidate. Answer: Wavell had two alternative solutions for the Indian problem-”one to hold India down by force,” for which he would require thousands of additional British troops, and the other to pass on the responsibility for government to the representatives of the people. Wavell knew if he offered a few option before Indian parties like to convene the constitution-making body; to consult the representatives of the Indian states in what way they could take part in the constitutionmaking body; discussion over the composition of a new Executive Committee to deal with the economic and social problems and work out the future position of India; then there is going to be no solution over these issues and the British rule will be continued unabated. Wavell was very much aware of the fact that still the ML was facing uphill task as Jinnah’s claim that the Muslim League was the sole representative organization of the Muslims had not yet established. At the same time ML was still not strongly entrenched in so far as the Provincial Governments in Muslim majority provinces was concerned. The Congress was never willing to accept ML as the sole representative of Indian Muslims. These intractable and disputed issues were bound to take many years to get an answer.
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Why Cabinet Mission declined to transfer British power to two entirely separate sovereign states? Give the reasons. Answer: The Mission was that a separate sovereign state of Pakistan on the lines claimed by the ML would not like solve the communal minority problem; further, there was no justification for including within a sovereign Pakistan those districts of the Punjab and of Bengal and Assam in which the population was predominantly non-Muslim.
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The problem of the division of the armed forces was even more vital. The two sections of Pakistan contained the two most vulnerable frontiers in India and for a successful defence in depth the area of Pakistan would be inefficient. Further, the partition would make the problem of the states more complex. The dominion status would naturally ensure membership of the Commonwealth. Mountbatten also considered that the two governments should have common arrangements for the defence of India, and retain the integrity of the army. Wavell formally handed over to Jinnah the power of veto, and henceforth it was regarded as an axiomatic truth in Indian politics that the final authority in any constitutional progress in India rested in the hands of Jinnah. Wavell thus reversed the process followed by Cripps who attached far greater importance to the INC representing an overwhelming majority of Indian people. Curzon was deeply motivated to make British rule impregnable in India. In this process, he tried to secure scientific frontier by checking the expansionist designs of Germany, France and Russia.
The communication system had been organized on an all India basis; its disintegration would gravely injure both parts of India. The problem of the division of the armed forces was even more vital. The two sections of Pakistan contained the two most vulnerable frontiers in India and for a successful defence in depth the area of Pakistan would be inefficient. Further, the partition would make the problem of the states more complex. Lastly, the geographical factor required consideration, for the two wings of Pakistan would be separated from one another by more than 700 miles of Indian territory making communications between them in war and peace dependent on the goodwill of Hindustan. Briefly point out the British designs and interest during the last days of partition. Answer: The British interests demanded the successor governments should have the status of the dominions, so that British investments and other economic interests would be safeguarded. The dominion status would naturally ensure membership of the Commonwealth. Mountbatten also considered that the two governments should have common arrangements for the defence of India, and retain the integrity of the army. In conceding the ML demand of Pakistan, it would be necessary to placate the Hindus by serving the Hindu majority areas from the Punjab, Bengal and Assam and joining them with India. Therefore, the strategy of the British Empire was to transfer power initially to the provinces and the States and groups of states, and the state would decide the constitution of the central Government. Every time, the British Government tried to contrive a device which can create a mirage by showing that they are offering too much but ultimately did nothing to dilute their power and stake in India.
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The Shimla Conference had fulfilled the long-cherished goal of Muslim League and made partition an inevitable event. Elucidate the statement. Answer: Wavell formally handed over to Jinnah the power of veto, and henceforth it was regarded as an axiomatic truth in Indian politics that the final authority in any constitutional progress in India rested in the hands of Jinnah. Wavell thus reversed the process followed by Cripps who attached far greater importance to the INC representing an overwhelming majority of Indian people.
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It was now clear that the ML could make or mar the fortunes of Muslims, as the Government gave it the power to veto any constitutional proposal which was not to its liking. It was apprehended by many that its extravagant claim that it alone represented the Muslims of India would, in near future, be conceded in fact, if not in theory. No Muslim outside the League had therefore, any chance of a political career in future. Discuss the motives and factors that forced Mountbatten to advance the date of transfer of power from June 1948 to August 15, 1947. Answer: The Government had as early as February 20, 1947, declared its intention to quit, definitely by June 1948. The earlier date was adopted in order to cut short the interval between the announcement and its implementation because of the fear of growing impatience of the leaders and the increasing tension among the communities as the ominous incidents in Bengal, the Punjab and the North-West Frontier Province indicated. The civil administration was visibly deteriorating, the officials were openly taking sides and the police was unreliable. The prolongation of the period of waiting would worsen the conditions, and force the extension of Section 93 rules in other provinces. In order to continue till June 1948, it would be necessary to resume recruitment of the Indian civil services, and to transfer a considerable number of British troops from England. The conditions in England prohibited these measures, and the Indian leaders were averse to them. Besides that promotion of Mountbatten was due and Jinnah was struck with mortal illness. He did not survive June 1948 by more than 3 months during which he was practically bedridden.
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Curzon did not see beyond interest of British imperialism, and therefore, undermined certain basic rules of colonial administration and ultimately shook the foundation of British rule in India. Substantiate with your answer. Answer: Curzon was deeply motivated to make British rule impregnable in India. In this process, he tried to secure scientific frontier by checking the expansionist designs of Germany, France and Russia. He appointed a number of committees to investigate the deeper aspects of administration. He went for educational reforms, famine relief reforms, but his urge for ensuring efficiency lost human touch and ultimately directionless. As a statesman he failed to appreciate opinion
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The purpose of the policy of equal Federation adopted by the British towards Indian states was to have the help of Princely States to reduce the influence of National movement. The rulers of the Native States were bound to be very loyal to their British connection. After controlling Russia designs in Perso-Afghan dispute about Seistan, Curzon concentrated on Tibet. At the time of Curzon’s arrival, the relations with Tibet had reached a point of deadlock. At the same time, the Chinese suzerainty over Tibet was ineffective but the influence of Russia was increasing considerably. This had alarmed Curzon. The groups of the middle class were the by-products of the British rule. Some sections of middle class wanted a change and became the real sponsors of the socio-religious reforms. The attitude of this middle class was primarily based upon an understanding of the imperial interests and to introspect as to why we are so inferior. The Government of India Act of 1935 provided a scheme of federation in which the Indian states were to be brought into a direct constitutional relationship with British India.
of Indian people and insulted people’s feelings. His closed-minded approach antagonized every section of society and this exposed the hollowness of British pax Britannica. Curzon comprehensively failed to understand the people whom he ruled. This high-headedness created a sense of national sentiment which left a rich legacy of difficulties for their successors. In this way, without his intention, his rule proved to be a benefactor of India and the upsurge against the partition of India and university reforms, created stong trends of Indian nationalism which in course of time proved fatal for the British rule. In the ultimate analysis, the Tibet policy of Curzon was mainly guided against Russia but it eventually benefited China. Elaborate in the light of the statement. Answer: After controlling Russia designs in Perso-Afghan dispute about Seistan, Curzon concentrated on Tibet. At the time of Curzon’s arrival, the relations with Tibet had reached a point of deadlock. At the same time, the Chinese suzerainty over Tibet was ineffective but the influence of Russia was increasing considerably. This had alarmed Curzon. In 1903, he sent Col Younghusband was sent and Tibet paid no resistance. As per the agreement, the Chumbi valley was occupied for 75 years, as a security of rupees one lakh per annum. But after the intervention, it was realized that Russia had no occupation or protectorate or even intervention in the internal affairs of Tibet. But the error of judgment benefited China because Tibet was exposed for its limited defence preparedness and the AngloRussian Convention of 1907 provided that the two great powers would not negotiate with Tibet except through the intermediary of the Chinese Government.
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What were motive behind the policy of equal federation (1935-1947)? Do you think that it was the last attempt to use the Princely states as the ‘Breakwaters in the Storm’? Answer: The Government of India Act of 1935 provided a scheme of federation in which the Indian states were to be brought into a direct constitutional relationship with British India. Under the Act, States were to send representatives to the Federal Legislative. They would be nominees of the Princes and not democratically elected representatives of the people. These representatives were one third of total number of Federal Legislatures and act as solid conservative block that could be trusted to the thwart nationalist pressures. The Federation of India was to come into
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existence only when rulers of states representing not less than one-half of the total population of the state and entitled to not less than half of seat allotted to the states in the upper chamber of the Federal Legislature agreed to join the Federation. The purpose of the policy of equal Federation adopted by the British towards Indian states was to have the help of Princely States to reduce the influence of National movement. The rulers of the Native States were bound to be very loyal to their British connection. It was why in the scheme of federation, these rulers were to select the representatives of the states. It was considered that it would be difficult for a general rebellion against the British to sweep India because of this network of powerful loyal native states. In this phase the people of the Princely States had awaken for civil liberties and responsible government. But the British wanted the help of Princely States to maintain their power. The Indian Reform movements were directly affected by the character of middle class. Elucidate. Answer: The groups of the middle class were the by-products of the British rule. Some sections of middle class wanted a change and became the real sponsors of the socio-religious reforms. The attitude of this middle class was primarily based upon an understanding of the imperial interests and to introspect as to why we are so inferior. The education had already enhanced their inquisitiveness and awareness. One of the features of this middle class was that they were interested in finding answers to a lot of questions and with this bent of mind; they had two options to understand the contemporary nature of things: (i) To analyse the success and dominance of the west; (ii) To go back and analyse the history where we went wrong. The middle class was aware of the fact that it was not the British only who were responsible for their sordid state but they themselves were also responsible.
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What were the objectives and recommendations of Simon Commission? Discuss its limitation and reaction of different parties. Answer: It had following objectives: (a) To delay the process of transfer of power from the British to the people. (b) To further widen the communal feeling by creating such provisions which could be diametrically opposed to the interests of the two communities.
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All India Muslim League under the chairmanship “ A constitution is literally being forced on us by the British Parliament which nobody likes, which no one approves of.” The Muslim classes and the Muslim masses will suffer from the new scheme as much as any other section of the Indian people.
To create an AllIndia Federation with responsible Government with safeguards; and separate representation of communal and other groups; dyarchy was abolished and bicameral house at centre: Federal Assembly and Council of State at centre with the representation of the Princely states were the main features.
(c) To show the people that British were sincere in the efforts in giving people the self rule but it was Indians who could not decide for a consensus on power-sharing. (d) To give impression of a federal constitution so that weak centre and a powerful province can be created. It would create feeling of regionalism which is an antidote to nationalism. (e) To give political autonomy without economic autonomy would lead to regionalism. The recommendations were: (a) New constitutional reconstruction should be done; (b) It would be a federal constitution; (c) The provinces should be given full autonomy including law; (d) The Governor should have discretionary power to relate to internal security and administrative powers to protect the different communities. (e) The number of members of Provincial Legislative Council should be increased. (f) Governor General should have the complete power to appoint the members of the cabinet. (g) The Government of India should have complete control over the High Court. The limitations were: (a) there were no Indian members in the Commission. (b) No universal franchise was proposed. (c) The position of Governor-General remained unaffected. (d) No provision to abolish separate electorate but rather extended to other communities as well. (e) No financial devolution was proposed. The reactions were: The INC boycotted the Simon Commission and hartals were taken out; ML session held under Mohammad Yakub at Calcutta and boycotted the commission. What were the main features of the Act of 1935? What were the limitations reactions of the contemporary parties to the Act? Answers: To create an All-India Federation with responsible Government with safeguards; and separate representation of communal and other groups; dyarchy was abolished and bicameral house at centre: Federal Assembly and Council of State at centre with the representation of the Princely states were the main features. The administration of Defence, External Affairs, Ecclesiastical affairs and Tribal areas, was to be made by Governor General in his discretion with the assistance of maximum three councilors appointed by him, who were not responsible to the legislature; With regard to matters other than the
78 Indian National Congress demanded complete independence “designed as it is to facilitate and perpetuate the domination and exploitation of the country by alien people under a costly mask, it is fraught with greater mischief and danger than even the present constitution.”
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‘reserved subjects’, the Governor General was to act on the advice of a Council of Ministers, who was responsible to legislature. (1) Veto by Governor-General and Bill passed also subject to veto of the Crown; (2) Governor-General could suspend the proceedings; (3) Governor-General can make temporary and permanent ordinances at any time for the discharge of his special responsibilities; (4) No Bill could be introduced or amended without prior sanction Governor-General; (5) Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lower House. Reactions: 1. Bhulabhai Desai “does not either serve the purpose of reconciling the Indians or serve Government’s purposes”. 2. Jinnah declared the scheme of federation as wholly rotten, totally unacceptable and absolutely unworkable. 3. Hindu Sabha : the proposed constitution is worse than the existing one. 4. All India Muslim League under the chairmanship “ A constitution is literally being forced on us by the British Parliament which nobody likes, which no one approves of.” The Muslim classes and the Muslim masses will suffer from the new scheme as much as any other section of the Indian people. 5. Khalsa Durbar headed by Sadar Mangal Singh “it is forced and Government has not considered the unanimous opinion of the whole politically minded India.” 6. The Liberal Federation “no constitution can satisfy Indian opinion which does not approximate as nearly as may be to the constitution of the Dominions and concede to the people of India the full rights of national self-government with the irreducible minimum of reservations for a short period fixed by statute and which further does not make for national solidarity.” 7. Indian National Congress demanded complete independence “designed as it is to facilitate and perpetuate the domination and exploitation of the country by alien people under a costly mask, it is fraught with greater mischief and danger than even the present constitution.” Discuss the provisions of the August Offer, 1940. Find out the motives of the British behind this offer. Discuss its implications. Answer: August offer had following provisions: (a) to set up after the war, a representative body to draw a new constitution for India; (b) to expand the Viceroy’s Executive Council by nominating
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The situation became volatile when the expansion issue came and INC refused it and it wanted interim government whereas Muslim League wanted Pakistan. In the meantime the government faced a lot of pressure from outside and government decided to appoint Cripps mission on 23rd March, 1942.
The British convinced that the agreement between the INC and ML is impossible and consequently all subsequent proposals were mainly depended on their consensus which was always eluding. The August offer further exposed the Indians and helped to procrastinate the British rule without major effort.
additional Indian members. The number would be increased from 8 to 12; and (c) to appoint a war advisory council consisting of representatives of British India and Indian states. The British had the following motives: (a) to secure peace and to maintain law and order or appease the aspiration of the Indian politicians. (b) expansion meant nothing to them (British), only an expanse of few hundred rupees and that too was to be made from the Indian treasury because the position of the Governor General in relation to the executive council remained unchanged and he continued to use his veto power. (c) to make India a party to the war or to legitimize British participation in the World war without Indian participation. By 1941, the councils were enlarged but no Congress or league member joined them. Only Sultan Ahmed of Muslim League accepted the membership. The situation became volatile when the expansion issue came and INC refused it and it wanted interim government whereas Muslim League wanted Pakistan. In the meantime the government faced a lot of pressure from outside and government decided to appoint Cripps mission on 23rd March, 1942. The British convinced that the agreement between the INC and ML is impossible and consequently all subsequent proposals were mainly depended on their consensus which was always eluding. The August offer further exposed the Indians and helped to procrastinate the British rule without major effort. What were the features of the policy of ‘Masterly Inactivity’? Discuss its implications on Indian politics. Answer: The term was coined by JWS Willy. It had following strategies: (a) to decline to interfere in affairs of Afghanistan in order to maintain better friendly relations; (b) to form a definite alliance with Amirs; (c) watchfulness towards the happenings through constant surveillance of the developments; (d) to have amicable relations with Russia and to fix its limits in the area; (e) to refuse to extend any kind of support in the war of succession. (f) to maintain effective independence of the area so that a scientific border can be secured. The interference of the Russian government should be minimized. The influence of Russia
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should be checked. A scientific border ensures no risk in terms of aggression and war causality. What are the consequences of noncooperation movement? Answer: 1. It gave Gandhiji the real picture of India. He realized that the real power of India lies in the rural areas and not in urban area. 2. There was a need for general awakening the masses to their political rights and privileges 3. The total loss of faith in the present system of Government. [Thus whatever was left of the moderates was gone.] 4. The belief that it was only through their own efforts that India could hope to be free. 5. It revealed that the Congress was the only organization while could properly direct national effort to gain freedom. 6. The movement also revealed that communal problem is going to be a big problem and this problem of communalism is absolutely state sponsored. Contributions 1. Penetrated and precipitated national feeling countrywide. 2. Made Congress more effective widened its social base. 3. Fall in value of foreign cloth import. 4. Establishment of national educational institution.
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Give a critical account of the Missionary Education with special reference to the role of Danniel Carry, David Browne and William Ward. (1) They intended to imbibe a feeling of inferiority amongst the people. (2) They wanted to create a favourable mandate for themselves by educating Indians in their own way and to create a pro-British mentality. (3) They wanted to attack on the coherent culture in order to retrograde the national feeling. (4) To propagate Christianity and to entice them for conversion. (5) To encourage the comparatively backward sections of the society. (6) They believed that in order to install a permanent government, the intervention is must. They said that if the Indian culture continues unabated and uninterrupted, then it could take the form of nationalism. Therefore, they sought the demoralization of the Indians. Danniel Carry induced Raja Jai Narain Ghosh to open a school which was a pioneer
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of English education in U.P. David Browne became the provost for Fort William College and started a residential school for Hindus in Calcutta. William Ward started the first press in Bengal based on Bengali alphabet printing. What were the factors which induced Lord Curzon to adopt a different North-West Frontier Policy from his predecessors? Discuss the outline of his policy. Answer: 1. The Russian interference in Balkan area increased especially after the defeat of Turkey in Russo-Turkey war in 1877-78; 2. No major breakthrough was achieved by the previous policy of masterly inactivity of Lord Lawrence and conciliatory interventionist policy of Lytton. 3. The control over the North-west was must to secure scientific frontier. 4. Massive loss in the 1894-98 expeditions. 5. The control over Kashmir was completed, Afghanistan was fully controlled and under these conditions Curzon realised that a forward and aggressive policy will complete the whole process NWFP. The took a number of measures: (i) Withdrawal of regular troops from advanced position in tribal territory; (ii) Concentration in posts upon or war to the border; (iii) Their replacement in tribal tracts by bodies of tribal people, trained up by the British officers to act as a militia in defence of their own native valleys and hills; (iv) Improvement of accommodation and reinforcement; (v) To placate and conciliate the border tribes by meeting their chiefs and explaining benevolent attitude of government to them. (vi) He created a new NWFP consisting of the settled districts of Hazara, Peshawar, Kohat, Bannu, Dera Ismail Khan and trans-border tracts lying between the administrative frontier and the Durand line.
83 The British suppression and confusion led to a vacuum of ideology and leadership and Congress became directionless and the national movement led to its lowest ebb between 1909 and 1915. Under these circumstances, Home Rule League (HRL) showed positive attitude towards masses and prevented them from being alienated from the mainstream.
The INC leaders thought they are sacrificing their seat in the legislature but they failed to understand its logical implications and partition in the offing.
‘Home Rule League was a light in the dark tunnel’. Evaluate the objectives of Home rule League in the light of the given statement. Answer: The British suppression and confusion led to a vacuum of ideology and leadership and Congress became directionless and the national movement led to its lowest ebb between 1909 and 1915. Under these circumstances, Home Rule League (HRL) showed positive attitude towards masses and prevented them from being alienated from the mainstream. They combined and balanced all
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the three trends: moderates, extremists, and revolutionary terrorists. HRL dropped ides of extremist’s mass movement but continued their idea of passive resistance; dropped the idea of mendicancy of the moderates but continued their pressure tactics; and rule out violence of revolutionary terrorists but continued their concept of patriotism. They emphasized more on awareness through journals like Commonweal, India and pamphlets, lectures rather than participation. In those conditions participation was not feasible. They tried to restore the confidence of the Indians against British suppression; demanded greater political representation; and self government and maintained the principles of Congress. Therefore, HRL helped to restore the movement which was derailed and paved the way for better sustained movement. “The Lucknow Pact of 1916 was signed without regard for its consequences.” Elucidate. Answer: (1) They agreed to separate electorate which means Congress formally reorganized communal politics and tacitly gave recognition that India consisted of different communities with separate interest of their own. (2) Weightage to Muslim minority was recognized, this left the way open to the future resurgence of communalism in Indian politics. (3) Muslim member’s strength in legislature was laid down province by province. This special treatment not only recognized communal representation but also recognized communal privileges. (4) In the Imperial Legislative Council, Muslim was to be 1/3 rd, although their population was not 1/3 rd. (5) Any legislature could not work if on any more 3/4th member of any religion opposed it. This led to the introduction of communal veto in legislature. The INC leaders thought they are sacrificing their seat in the legislature but they failed to understand its logical implications and partition in the offing.
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‘The Indian reform movements were directly affected by the character of middle class.’ Elucidate. Answer: On the basis of interest, the middle class was divided into two classes although they had single point of provenance: (i) Educated Employed People: Those whose interests were directly intertwined with the British interests and they believed in status quo. (ii) Educated Unemployed People:
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The second sections of the middle class were very much active in bringing about socio-religious reforms. It happened because they were not getting proper opportunity in the existing system, sometimes materialistically and sometimes spiritually. The attitude of this middle class was primarily based upon an understanding of the imperial interests and to introspect as to why we are so inferior.
The middle class was aware of the fact that it was not the British only who were responsible for their sordid state but they themselves were also responsible. They also believed that such a situation was not the result of physical condition but was due to mental fragmentation. In a state of mental fragmentation, there is a problem of self-satisfactions.
On 29th August, 1914, the ‘Gadar Party’ sent 60 revolutionaries in India in S.S. Korea Ship. They were detained in Hong Kong but a number of revolutionaries escaped and reached India.
Those who saw that their interests could be fulfilled only if Britishers have left India. Ironically both the groups of the middle class were the by-products of the British rule. Thus the latter section of middle class wanted a change. [The latter were the real sponsors of the reform movements]. The second sections of the middle class were very much active in bringing about socioreligious reforms. It happened because they were not getting proper opportunity in the existing system, sometimes materialistically and sometimes spiritually. The attitude of this middle class was primarily based upon an understanding of the imperial interests and to introspect as to why we are so inferior. The education has already enhanced their inquisitiveness and awareness. One of the features of this middle class was that they were interested in finding answers to a lot of questions and with this bent of mind; they had two options to understand the present nature. (i) To analyse the success and dominance of the west. (ii) To go back and analyse the history where we went wrong. The middle class was aware of the fact that it was not the British only who were responsible for their sordid state but they themselves were also responsible. They also believed that such a situation was not the result of physical condition but was due to mental fragmentation. In a state of mental fragmentation, there is a problem of self-satisfactions. What were the causes of rise of extremism? What were their methods of struggle? Answer: The causes of rise of extremism were: The moderates’ role was exhausted. The moderates wanted to educate the people about the colonial nature of the British rule and how it was responsible for their sad plight. They conveyed to the people the concept of a nation and the drain on its resources forced by the British. They had also created a political platform on an all India basis. Moreover, the middle class had been mobilized. Thus they had fulfilled their objectives and hence the historical role of their method and objectives was over (1885-1905). Methods of struggle 1. They substituted the philosophy of cooperation of the moderates by noncooperation. 2. Mass agitation which meant reaching the masses and then involving them in the struggle. 3. Self-reliance which meant that it was to be
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proved to the British that they and their products were not required by Indians and therefore as a result, boycott was must. 4. To evolve their own Government with or without the help of the British i.e. Swaraj. Mention about the Revolutionary Organisations Abroad, involved in Indian National Movement. Discuss the method of their struggle for freedom. Answer: The first important terrorist organisation outside India was ‘Home Rule Society’. It was also called ‘India House’ with headquarter in London and was established in 1905; founded by Shyamji Krishna Varma and supported by Har Dayal, V.D. Savarkar and M.L. Dhingra. The other important organisation was ‘Indian National Party’ with headquarter at Zurich and founded by C.R. Pillai supported by Hardayal, Taraknath, Barktullah, Harambal Lala and Chandrakant Chakravarty. At Kabul, ‘Pan Islamic’ party was founded by Mahendra Pratap. At Berlin, “Indian Independence Committee’ was founded by Virendra Nath Chattopadhyaya. They sent a number of expeditions to Baghdad, Istanbul, Persia and Kabul. Maulana Barkatullah and Maulana Sindhi formed a ‘Provisional Government of India’. But the climax of all these organisations reached with the formation of ‘Gadar Party’ with headquarters at Yugantar Ashram, San Francisco. It was founded by Lala Hardayal and Sohan Singh Bhakhna. The old name of ‘Gadar Party’ was ‘Hindi Association’ founded in Portland in 1913. They adopted the following methods: (i) Direct action through assassination, breaking jail, looting treasury and thanas. (ii) To propagate their ideas through newspapers and pamphlets. (iii) Formation of secret societies. (iv) Destruction of the communication system of the government by destroying railways and disrupting telecommunications. (v) Procurement of arms and to manufacture bombs. They published paper in 4 languages- Hindi, Urdu, Gurumukhi and English. Their main aim was to supply arms and ammunition as well as revolutionary people to India. On 29th August, 1914, the ‘Gadar Party’ sent 60 revolutionaries in India in S.S. Korea Ship. They were detained in Hong Kong but a number of revolutionaries escaped and reached India.
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Differentiate between the streams of thought of Moderates and Extremists. Critically evaluate the Extremists’ methods of struggle. Answer: Moderates believed in demanding. Extremists believed in creating on their own. Revolutionary Terrorists believed in snatching. Moderates did not show physical and mental resistance. Extremists showed only mental resistance. Revolutionary Terrorists showed both mental and physical resistance. Critical Analysis: What they said, what they believed, what they conceived was very much different from moderates but what they did was what moderates had already done. Therefore, they were ideologically different but almost same in practice. They had faith in the masses but were not able to mobilise. They believed in mass participation but were not able to break the orbit of middle classes practically. They failed to ensure the participation beyond the middle class. The gap between the educated and the illiterate masses was not significantly lessened. In practice what they succeeded in doing was to spread the movement deeper among the lower middle classes who were already brought within the ambit of nationalism in the moderate era (1885-1905). Even Tilak did not identify with the masses and he confined himself to the educated class only.
89 In the meantime between 1883 and 1891 there were as many as 15 major riots in Punjab over the issue of cow slaughter and this started to affect United Provinces and Bihar. These riots removed the hitch of the British.
Both China and USA realised that war in the eastern sector was bound to involve India and they communicated their anxiety to UK about the role India would play in the war.
Why British shifted in sponsorship from Hindus to Muslims since 1885? Answer: (i) An all-India platform was created for mass mobilisation and awareness. The entire British policy was meant against mobilisation because after mobilisation it would have become difficult to carry on their trading activities. (ii) Hindus were in majority and the composition of Congress was of Hindu majority. (iii) The membership was highly energetic like Dadabhai Naoroji who had already exposed the British imperialism. All were dedicated and knew the fundamentals of economics which was detrimental to the health of British who wanted to hide their complex economic polices around the world. British started to get support from the conservative forces. The socio-religious reform movement had consciously or unconsciously provoked the feelings of communalism. Under those circumstances, the British were quick to realise the inherent logic of communalism and the
90 The membership was highly energetic like Dadabhai Naoroji who had already exposed the British imperialism. All were dedicated and knew the fundamentals of economics which was detrimental to the health of British who wanted to hide their complex economic polices around the world. British started to get support from the conservative forces.
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theory of official protection of the “minorities” was immediately evolved to perturb the mass mobilisation. In the meantime between 1883 and 1891 there were as many as 15 major riots in Punjab over the issue of cow slaughter and this started to affect United Provinces and Bihar. These riots removed the hitch of the British. The British finally decided that it is better to support the Muslims and that too the educated ones. The Congress was also aware of this change and therefore in 1887, Badrudin Tyabji presided over the Congress and a number of Muslims were active. R.A. Sayani, Sayyed Ahmed Khan, Mir Musharraf Hussain, Hamid Ali Khan were encouraged. By 1906, the situation was clear with the foundation of Muslim league. What were the Causes of Cripps Mission? Why it failed? Answer: Causes of Cripps Mission (1) Both China and USA realised that war in the eastern sector was bound to involve India and they communicated their anxiety to UK about the role India would play in the war. (2) The British Parliamentarians were liberal. (3) The Indians had shown stubborn attitude by way of Congress and Muslim League by rejecting all possible proposals to accept the participation in war. The Viceroy called Tej Bahadur Sapru and 12 eminent Indians who were not attached to Congress. They were explained the things in detail. In the meantime, Churchill who headed the cabinet gave following instructions to Cripps: (1) To give anything but there was no need to dilute the powers of Governor General. (2) To always consider the communal issues. (3) To play the new card of princely states. Why Cripps Mission Failed? 1. The growing discrepancy between Cripps and the British Cabinet. 2. The provision of non-accession, despite the protest of Wavell and Linlithgow, was accepted. 3. The question of defence. 4. The procrastinated process of Constitution Making Body.
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Mention the contribution of Raja Ram Mohan Roy in Indian religion and society? Answer: In the field of religion, Rajaji’s achievement was twofold: (i) To separate the essentials of religion from non-essentials. [Separate philosophy from practices]
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Liyaqat Hussain was quite active in Patna and organised ‘Eastern Indian Railway Strike’ and also organised a strike in Tuticorin Coral Mills. Abdul Rasool presided over the Barisal Congress.
Abdul Halim Ghaznavi started leather business. In K.K. Mitra’s’ AntiCircular Society’, a number of muslims helped like Abul Hassan, Liyaqat Hussain, Deedar Baksh, Abdul Gaffur. Therefore at that time the muslims were not knowing about their different interests. They still believed in one interest.
The founders of the Congress were practical people who knew the limitation of their times. Their objective initially was not radically political. They wanted to educate the people about the conditions of the times. They wanted a platform to express their opinions.
(ii) To present a positive and rationally sound system of ethico-religious thought. Therefore in order to streamline reason, he put forward three-fold formula: (i) Study i.e., Sravana [Gathering of facts] (ii) Reflection i.e., Manan [Analysis of facts] (iii) Meditation i.e., Nidhiasana. [To negate all other thinking to focus on one is meditation]. Social ideas (i) Women: One of the worst features of medieval society was its treatment of women. They were denied the right to property. Sati was practised. Polygamy was also practised. There was a lack of education amongst women. He tried to reserve the whole situation. (ii) Caste system: The hierarchy and the ascribed character must be diluted. He said that let the Karma prevail and not the birth. (iii) He was against the child marriage. (iv) No discrimination on any basis in society. (v) Restructuring of inheritance rights. Mention role of muslims in Swadeshi Movement? What were the achievements of Swadeshi? Answer: Although the Muslim League was founded in 1906, this remained a Government sponsored body. A lot of muslims participated whole-heartedly but the upper class muslims were not that active because of the influence of Sir Sayyed Ahmed Khan and Aligarh School. Liyaqat Hussain was quite active in Patna and organised ‘Eastern Indian Railway Strike’ and also organised a strike in Tuticorin Coral Mills. Abdul Rasool presided over the Barisal Congress. Abdul Halim Ghaznavi started leather business. In K.K. Mitra’s’ Anti-Circular Society’, a number of muslims helped like Abul Hassan, Liyaqat Hussain, Deedar Baksh, Abdul Gaffur. Therefore at that time the muslims were not knowing about their different interests. They still believed in one interest. Achievements of Swadeshi. 1. For the first time, the concept of self-reliance was established. 2. The mass base of the National Movement was widened. Now after the Swadeshi, the composition broadened with the inclusion of workers, students, women and lower middle class. 3. It clearly gave the message that the British goods were not indispensable. Their alternatives could be created indigenously.
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What were the methods of Struggle of Revolutionary Terrorists? What
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were the causes their failures? Answer: Methods of Struggle 1. By the formation of secret societies. (i) Barindra Kumar Ghosh founded ‘Anushilan Samiti’. P.Mitra was its main leader. (ii) Aurobindo Ghosh started ‘Anushilan Samiti’ at Baroda. (iii) V.D. Savarkar founded ‘Abhinav Bharat’. 2. Dissemination through newspapers. (i) ‘Anushilan Samiti’ published a book called Bhawani Mandir. (ii) Barindra Ghosh published a newspaper/ book called ‘Yugantar’ and ‘Mukti Kaun Pathay’. 3. To commit political murders in order to destabilise the regime. 4. To disrupt the communication of the Government. Failures: 1. They lacked proper organisation. 2. Failed to generate an effective and sustained leadership. 3. Like extremists, they also failed to generate public opinion for them. 4. They lacked ideology. 5. They did not have any long term perspective and alternative policy. 6. They lacked proper planning and coordination. Their most activities were uncalculated and spontaneous. They use to take a decision emotionally and then acted according to it.
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Why Indian National Congress was formed? What was the purpose of
that? Answer: The formation of INC was not accidental. It was the result of a long drawn process which started with the foundation of Land Holders Society in Bengal in 1838. Due to British impact and introspection, people started to realise that there is an imperative need to form a platform where the will of the people can be expressed. The founders of the Congress were practical people who knew the limitation of their times. Their objective initially was not radically political. They wanted to educate the people about the conditions of the times. They wanted a platform to express their opinions. (i) To promote the conception of a nation in the context of geographical, cultural and historical diversity. At that time India was a nation in the making. Therefore they emphasised on consolidation rather than expansion. (ii) To create a common political platform or programme in order to channelise the Civil Services
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The first important terrorist organisation outside India was ‘Home Rule Society’. It was also called ‘India House’ with headquarter in London and was established in 1905; founded by Shyamji Krishna Varma and supported by Har Dayal, V.D. Savarkar and M.L. Dhingra.
objectives and to organise people on an all India basis. (iii) The politicisation and unification of the opinions of the educated and then of other sections. Therefore their main target was middle class mobilisation. (iv) To create a common all-India national leadership creating a headquarter of the movement. (v) The internalisation and indigenisation of political democracy especially the concept of liberty, sovereignty and freedom. (vi) To evolve an understanding of capitalism and colonialism among the people. Who were the moderates? What was their technique of struggle? What was Pressure-Compromise-Pressure policy? Answer: The moderates were basically the founders of the Congress. They believed that a direct struggle for political emancipation of the country was neither feasible nor advisable. They were mainly from the middle class intelligentsia and were products of the British system of education. Their contact with the rural masses was limited. They were acquainted with the problems of colonialism and capitalism but they were not in a position to solve them. Method of Struggle 1. They believed in peaceful, bloodless movement. They were just 72 people with no social base. Hence they could not lead a revolution which requires the participation of masses. 2. They did not assign an important role to the masses or mass struggle in their work. There was lack of communication between them and the masses who were illiterate had to be educated in stages. 3. They assumed that political rights and selfgovernment should grow slowly but steadily, from precedent to precedent and by progressive stages. Pressure - Compromise - Pressure (PCP) (i) To give enough pressure by the three Ps, the authorities could be persuaded for concession. (ii) Every compromise must be seen as a jumping ground for the next one. (iii) Every concession must be utilised i.e. it must be consolidated and should be worked up. (iv) After consolidation of the previous concession, the British must be pressurised to give more concession. (v) This should be a relentless process. (234 words)
96 The British reacted sharply against this organisation. They were compelled to leave London and moved to Paris with Madam Cama. In Paris they founded, ‘Paris Indian Society’ founded by Madam Bhikaji Cama and supported by S.S. Rana, M.P.T. Rana and K.R. Kotwal.
The old name of ‘Gadar Party’ was ‘Hindi Association’ founded in Portland in 1913. Gadar published their weekly journal called ‘Hindustan Gadar’ and the front page of this journal contained the article ‘Angrezi raaj ka Kacha-Chittha.’
‘Komagata Maru’ was a Japanese chartered ship. It was taken by Baba Gurdeep Singh, a sikh of Amritsar on lease for the purpose of carrying large numbers of Punjabis to Canada.
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Discuss the origin and growth of revolutionary terrorism abroad. Mention about Gadar movement and Komagata Maru issue. Answer: 1. The first important terrorist organisation outside India was ‘Home Rule Society’. It was also called ‘India House’ with headquarter in London and was established in 1905; founded by Shyamji Krishna Varma and supported by Har Dayal, V.D. Savarkar and M.L. Dhingra. They published their own journal called ‘Indian Sociologists’. The British reacted sharply against this organisation. They were compelled to leave London and moved to Paris with Madam Cama. In Paris they founded, ‘Paris Indian Society’ founded by Madam Bhikaji Cama and supported by S.S. Rana, M.P.T. Rana and K.R. Kotwal. 2. The other important organisation was ‘Indian National Party’ with headquarter at Zurich and founded by C.R. Pillai supported by Hardayal, Taraknath, Barktullah, Harambal Lala and Chandrakant Chakravarty. 3. At Kabul, ‘Pan Islamic’ party was founded by Mahendra Pratap. 4. At Berlin, “Indian Independence Committee’ was founded by Virendra Nath Chattopadhyaya. They sent a number of expeditions to Baghdad, Istanbul, Persia and Kabul. 5. Maulana Barkatullah and Maulana Sindhi formed a ‘Provisional Government of India’. 6. But the climax of all these organisations reached with the formation of ‘Gadar Party’ with headquarters at Yugantar Ashram, San Francisco. It was founded by Lala Hardayal and Sohan Singh Bhakhna. The old name of ‘Gadar Party’ was ‘Hindi Association’ founded in Portland in 1913. Gadar published their weekly journal called ‘Hindustan Gadar’ and the front page of this journal contained the article ‘Angrezi raaj ka Kacha-Chittha.’ They adopted the following methods: (i) Direct action through assassination, breaking jail, looting treasury and thanas. (ii) To propagate their ideas through newspapers and pamphlets. ‘Komagata Maru’ was a Japanese chartered ship. It was taken by Baba Gurdeep Singh, a sikh of Amritsar on lease for the purpose of carrying large numbers of Punjabis to Canada. But they were not allowed to land in Canada and the ship returned to India. The British Government thought they were all revolutionaries of ‘Gadar Party’. They were detained. This led to great resentment not only at the port but also in Punjab.
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Discuss the Extremists’ methods of struggle. Why their methods of
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The process, which was begun for the same purpose in the 19th century, was called the renaissance. The ferment of ideas gave an expensive touch to Indian culture and the modernisation theory took place.
Important radicals were Krishna-mohan Bandopadhyay, Rasikkrishna Malik, Radanath Sikdar, Dakshinaranjan Mukho-podhyay, Pearey Chandra Mitra, Ramtanu Lahiri
struggle were criticised? Answer: 1. They believed in passive resistance, i.e. they never showed their confidence in the ability of the British. Therefore, there was no point in persuasion. 2. They opposed the functioning of the bureaucracy. 3. They wanted to exterminate the British. 4. They wanted self-government outside the British dominion. 5. They believed in swadeshi at national level. 6. They believed in mass participation. 7. Peaceful bloodless resistance. What they said, what they believed, what they conceived was very much different from moderates but what they did was what moderates had already done. They had faith in the masses but were not able to mobilise. They believed in mass participation but were not able to break the orbit of middle classes practically. They failed to ensure the participation beyond the middle class. The gap between the educated and the illiterate masses was not significantly lessened. The extremists also failed to evolve adequate technique for political action. In this process, in order to deliberately ensure mass participation they became revivalists and obscurantist and gradually became parochial in matters of social reforms.
99 Gandhiji felt that the injection of poison of separate electorate was meant to break away the Hindu community which would not in anyway fulfill the interests of Depressed Classes. Gandhiji started to mobilise the people around his cause.
What were the causes for the rise of revolutionary terrorism? Why they
failed? Answer: The Extremists increased the expectations of people while criticizing the policies of moderates. The split of 1907 at Surat of moderates and Extremists. The Extremists failed to channelise the reaction and potential of the younger generation. The Western influence of Irish terrorism and Russian ‘Nihilism’ became a catalyst. The more reactionary attitude of the British towards new generation. The growing influence of reactionary newspapers like ‘Kaal’ in particular and press in general. Incentive and funding from outside. 1. They lacked proper organisation. 2. Failed to generate an effective and sustained leadership. 3. Like extremists, they also failed to generate public opinion for them. 4. They lacked ideology. 5. They did not have any long term perspective and alternative policy. 6. They lacked proper planning and
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coordination. Their most activities were uncalculated and spontaneous. They use to take a decision emotionally and then acted according to it. Who were radicals? What was thinking of Vivian Derozio? Answer: Being impressed with the new English education, scientific outlook, the doctrine of rationalism and humanism, the need for reform became sine qua non. The process, which was begun for the same purpose in the 19th century, was called the renaissance. The ferment of ideas gave an expensive touch to Indian culture and the modernisation theory took place. Because of spirit of renaissance pervaded the whole country, it found articulate in the form of socio-religious movements. The genesis of socio-religious movements lay in the contradiction between the old religious outlook, practices and organisation, on the one hand and the new social and economic realities precipitated by national consciousness and dissemination of liberal ideas of the west among the Indian people, on the other hand. Radicals They were the second group mainly from Hindu college and they were known as Young or New Bengal. They had imbibed rationalist thought of Europe and had studied philosophers like Locke, Hume, Reid, Stewart, Brown and Bentham and were also influenced by social thinkers like Tom Paine, Voltaire and Adam Smith and scientists like Dewey and Newton and historians like Robertson and Gibbon. They had a brilliant teacher, Henry Derozio. Important radicals were Krishnamohan Bandopadhyay, Rasikkrishna Malik, Radanath Sikdar, Dakshinaranjan Mukhopodhyay, Pearey Chandra Mitra, Ramtanu Lahiri Thinking of Vivian Derozio He attached religious rituals and superstitiousness. He said that untouchability, sati and other social evils are the crippling factors for the intellectual ability of the Indians. He recalled India’s glorious past but the present is pathetic. The only way out is to change our attitude towards life and society completely. The purpose of British behind MacDonald Award was fulfilled. Discuss the impact of MacDonald Award in the light of this statement. What preventive measures were adopted by Gandhiji to reduce the damage? Answer: The impact was natural. Indian nationalist leaders reacted. Gandhiji went on fast on 20th September, 1932. Gandhiji felt that the injection of poison of separate electorate was meant to break away the Hindu community which would not in
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The British immediately realised that this is a misfire, Madan Mohan Malviya appealed to the leaders of the Hindus and Depressed Classes to meet and arrive at an agreed solution to replace the award.
Gandhiji knew that the damage was already done and a dent was required. Dent never returns the originality however. So he focused on reducing the damage. The British action either nourished the disruptive forces or silenced the assimilative ones. In order to mitigate the impact of the MacDonald award he started to contact every group of people. In February 1933 he started the weekly “Harijan” to promote the cause. One person propagating against the Poona Pact has Dr. Ambedkar.
anyway fulfill the interests of Depressed Classes. Gandhiji started to mobilise the people around his cause. Rabindra Nath Tagore said, “A shadow is darkening today over India like a shadow cast by an eclipsed sun.” The British immediately realised that this is a misfire, Madan Mohan Malviya appealed to the leaders of the Hindus and Depressed Classes to meet and arrive at an agreed solution to replace the award. As a result of this on 25th September, 1932 in Bombay, Poona Pact was signed which had the following provisions: (1) The Separate Electorate for depressed classes will be abolished. (2) But the reserved seats for the depressed classes will be increased by 18 per cent in CLC. The proposal was sent to the British Prime Minister. He accepted it and the award was dismantled but the purpose of British was fulfilled, from here onwards the political blackmailing on “number” basis started. Preventive Measures of Gandhiji Gandhiji knew that the damage was already done and a dent was required. Dent never returns the originality however. So he focused on reducing the damage. The British action either nourished the disruptive forces or silenced the assimilative ones. In order to mitigate the impact of the MacDonald award he started to contact every group of people. In February 1933 he started the weekly “Harijan” to promote the cause. One person propagating against the Poona Pact has Dr. Ambedkar. This created a lot of irritation to Gandhiji. Gandhiji thought that it was high time to disseminate the real purpose of MacDonald Award. He started a national tour on 7th November 1933 and continued up to 29th July, 1934. He stayed most at Bihar during this period. G.D. Birla, Amrit Lal Thakkar founded “Harijan Sevak Sangh.” Therefore Gandhiji’s Harijan Yatra was meant to nullify the impact of MacDonald Award. Why peasant movements took place. Discuss the contribution of peasants movement. Answer: The British politics made the farreaching changes in Indian agrarian structure. The old agrarian system collapsed gradually. The new land tenures originated new types of land ownership and new social classes emerged in rural India. Land became a marketable commodity. The circumstances drove the peasant into the clutches of the moneylenders and the trader. Thus, the peasant was pushed deeper into the depth of poverty. The peasant had to face oppression at the hands of not only British, but indigenous exploiters and capitalists also. In the 19th
102 The peasant had to face oppression at the hands of not only British, but indigenous exploiters and capitalists also. In the 19th century, peasant mobilisations were in the nature of protest, revolt and rebellions.
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century, peasant mobilisations were in the nature of protest, revolt and rebellions. Their objective was to lose the bonds of feudal exploitation. The peasant revolts did not develop a political matrix because of the absence of class consciousness or proper organisations. In the 20th century, the emergence of class consciousness and formation of peasant organisations like Kisan Sabas took place. Recurring famines, during the 19th century, were main cause of peasant movements. Adding to the transformation of the agrarian structure. Created an atmosphere for post independence agrarian reforms as abolition of Zamindari. Created awareness into the peasants for their rights. Analyse the British policy of subordinate isolation towards Indian states. Discuss the impact of this policy. Answer: This phase of relations between the English and Princely States expresses a new turn in the relations. Now the theory of Paramountcy began to develop. The treaties concluded with the Princely States were not on the basis of reciprocity and mutual amity, but imposed the obligation on the part of Princely States to act in subordinate cooperation with the British Government and acknowledge its supremacy. This change took place under the policy of subordinate isolation. The founder of this policy was Lord Hastings and Lord Dalhousie. In the theory of Paramountcy included the provision of subordinate co-operation; supremacy of East India Company; no external sovereignty of Princely States, they have only internal sovereignty, presence of British residents in all states; and the British residents would be the organ of communication between British India and Princely States and a Princely States and other state. Subordinate isolation was a result of the policy of Ring Fence. By the policy of Ring Fence, the Company’s interference in both external and internal affairs was complete. As a result of this, the will of the company was the will of Princely States. Gradually, their sovereignty eroded and their relation with other states went into oblivion. They were not knowing, to whom, they had to negotiate. They failed to know, who is friend or foe. The friend of Company was their friend. By giving so much control to the East India Company, they were totally cut off from the mainstream of politics i.e. a state of complete isolationism.
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The dyarchy was absolutely designed to put forward irresponsible government. At that time, there was more and more demand for selfgovernment at dyarchy was designed to expose that Indians were not yet capable of self-governance. They wanted to expose the Indians before the people.
In 1898, W.C. Banerjee’s statement on Indian Politics mentions that Hume had invited leading politicians of the time to discuss the social matter but not politics. This means that INC was a social organisation.
The Transferred list was administered by the Governor acting with ministers appointed by him from among the elected members of the legislature and who were to be responsible to the legislature and was to hold office during his pleasure.
Now the power of East India Company had increased so much that it compelled the Princely State to be subordinate of the British Government. Under the policy of subordinate isolation, many Princely States were annexed with British India. The Imperial idea grew and the theory of Paramountcy began to develop. What is the basis of the concept of safety valve related to the Indian National Congress? What do you think about the concept of safety valve by analysing the objectives of the Indian National Congress? Answer: Lala Lajpat Rai in 1916, in his YOUNG INDIA used the safety valve theory to attack moderates in the Congress. According to him, Congress was a product of Lord Dufferin’s Brain. (i) Congress was founded by A.O. Hume, a retired British civil servant. This is reflected by the seven volumes of secret reports of Hume written by William Weddernburn published in 1913. (ii) In 1898, W.C. Banerjee’s statement on Indian Politics mentions that Hume had invited leading politicians of the time to discuss the social matter but not politics. This means that INC was a social organisation. (iii) Further it was believed that Congress was sponsored by the British to disseminate antiRussian feelings. (iv) It is also believed that it was a mastermind of Lord Dufferin. (v) Some of the British officials like Alfred and J.B. Lyall, D.M. Wallace, Calvin and Bayley had great sympathy towards Congress. They were known as stringent British official. This suggests a link between the INC and officials. 1. But if we closely analyse, INC’s evolution was historical and evolutionary. 2. Dufferin was the first man to be threatened by Congress. 3. If we analyse the objectives of Congress, it will definitely seem to be very pragmatic and have nothing to do with British interests. These objectives are: (i) To promote the conception of a nation in the context of geographical, cultural and historical diversity. At that time India was a nation in the making. Therefore they emphasised on consolidation rather than expansion. (ii) To create a common political platform or programme in order to channelise the objectives and to organise people on an all India basis.
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What is Dyarchy? Discuss the objectives and design behind the rational of introducing dyarchy at Provinces. The Transferred list was administered by the Governor acting with ministers appointed by him from among the elected members of the
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legislature and who were to be responsible to the legislature and was to hold office during his pleasure. The reserved subjects were administered by the Governor with the help of the members of the Executive Council who were nominated by him and who were not responsible to the legislature. The Reserved Items are: The main purpose was to incorporate Indian elements without giving any power whatsoever. They also wanted to delegate certain powers to provinces in orders to escape certain responsibilities, but the structure, of Government remained unitary. It was far from federation. The Central Legislature had power to legislate on any matter so it was not possible to challenge the validity of any bill. The dyarchy was absolutely designed to put forward irresponsible government. At that time, there was more and more demand for self-government at dyarchy was designed to expose that Indians were not yet capable of self-governance. They wanted to expose the Indians before the people. Discuss the development and growth of education in beween the period 1937 and 1947. In 1937, Gandhiji in his weekly Harijan emphasised the need of indigenous education. It emphasised on Nai Talim with following features: (i) English education has created and widened the gulf between a few educated Indians and the masses; (ii) It is unproductive and has damaged the Indian culture. –First national conference on education took place in 1927 at Wardha. Dr. Zakir Hussain became the Chairman and formulated the syllabus with following features: (i) Introduction of a basic handicraft in syllabus; (ii) Removal of English upto class 7; (iii) 7 years education should be free and compulsory nation wide –In 1944 Sargeant Report was submitted. John Sargeant was appointed advisor of Central Education Board. The objective was: (i) Free primary education for children between 3-6 years of age. (ii) Universal free and compulsory primary basic education for children between ages of 6-14 years. (iii) University course of 3 years. (iv) Technical education and art and commerce to be emphasised. (v) Liquidation of adult illiteracy. (vi) Physical Education Training and creation
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On the one hand, the British took all possible steps to render them militarily weak and harmless and other the other hand, they tried to conciliate the ruling families and guaranteed their future stability by recognising adoption and repudiation of annexation in future.
Curzon believed that the voiceless millions who can neither read nor write their own tongues have no political aspirations and therefore, the plans and policies of the Congress Party of India would leave the masses absolutely untouched. In other words, Curzon felt that the claims of the INC had no validity whatsoever.
In this process the British brutality and real motive of colonial exploitation thoroughly exposed and the so-called rule of Pax Britannia evaporated. Those who believed in the goodness of the British administration lost control in their own organisation and new elements emanated to lead the country. In other words, the partition of Bengal instead of dividing the sense of nascent nationalism, created strong dislike for the British administration.
I. DEVELOPMENTS RELATED TO 1857-1905 “Queen Victoria was proclaimed Empress of India, marked the beginning of a new policy by virtue of which the crown of England should henceforth be identified with hopes, the aspirations, the sympathies and interests of a powerful native aristocracy, - by implication, not of the people at large.” Examine the statement. Answer: The ruthless suppression of revolt of 1857 dimmed the zeal of common people towards western education and culture and this led to neutrality on the part of the Government in regard to social and religious customs of India. The period saw the emergence of a powerful bureaucracy and reactionary regime. (Words 50 and Marks 5) On the one hand, the British took all possible steps to render them militarily weak and harmless and other the other hand, they tried to conciliate the ruling families and guaranteed their future stability by recognising adoption and repudiation of annexation in future. A thin wedge was driven between the welfare of the masses and the vested interests of the ruling families, landlords and other aristocratic classes of India. This gave a fillip to the autocracy and tyranny of the Indian rulers and their definite alignment with the British rulers as against their own people. The real motives of the new policy found expression in the Act of 1935 when these princely states were used as a reactionary forces against the progressive elements. This British feudatories proved to be a buffer for their rule in India. (Words 136 and Marks 10) “They (Indians) are not one community, one language, one race, or one religion; they are a continent, an empire, almost a universe apart.” Examine the statement. Answer: Curzon carried a very definite, very truculent and withal reactionary opinions. He believed that the voiceless millions who can neither read nor write their own tongues have no political aspirations and therefore, the plans and policies of the Congress Party of India would leave the masses absolutely untouched. In other words, Curzon felt that the claims of the INC had no validity whatsoever. (Words 63 and Marks 5) Considering the disparities and differences at the historical and ideological level, it was believed by the British administration that Congress is engaged in a premature and unwise attempt to domesticate English political ideas in India. In the second place, the pretensions of the Congress are out of all proportion to its true significance, 99 per cent of the people whom it
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claims to represent, have never heard of its existence. (Words 70 and Marks 5) But at the practical level Curzon did not believe in this statement and he continued to suppress the nascent sense of nationalism by enacting the Universities Act, and the announcement of partition of Bengal. Further, in order to undermine, the influence of Congress, Curzon tries to initiate a Government for the people but not by the people. (Words 57 and Marks 5) “The announcement of partition of Bengal unmasked the British concept of benevolence and Pax Britannia”. Answer: The so-called British concept of rendering enlightened rule in India was exposed with the eruption against the announcement of partition. In the eruption, the old faith in British justice and good intentions towards India, became submerged. The constitutional methods of removal of grievances lost their appeal and new ways of bringing pressure upon Government became popular. Swadeshi and boycott were adopted as the new weapons. Defiance of Government’s orders and development of independent institutions replaced old ways to meek obedience and dependence on Government’s favours. (Words 85 and Marks 7.5) The year saw the beginning of a strenuous struggle between the self-assertion of the people on the one-side and attempt to suppress them on the other. In this process the British brutality and real motive of colonial exploitation thoroughly exposed and the so-called rule of Pax Britannia evaporated. Those who believed in the goodness of the British administration lost control in their own organisation and new elements emanated to lead the country. In other words, the partition of Bengal instead of dividing the sense of nascent nationalism, created strong dislike for the British administration. (Words 94 and Marks 7.5) “The swadeshi movement was the positive part of the programme of which boycott was the defiant and dynamic aspect and in course of time the economic concept of Boycott and Swadeshi was lost and it became purely political in nature.” Answer: The original conception of Boycott and Swadeshi were mainly an economic one. Boycott was to bring pressure upon the British public by the pecuniary loss they would suffer by the boycott of British goods. It was regarded as essential for the revival of indigenous (swadeshi) industry which, being at its infant stage, could never grow in the face of free competition with foreign countries. But the idea of economic boycott as a weapon to coerce the British to undo the partition gradually receded into the background. It developed into an idea
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Khaddar had delivered the poor from the bonds of the rich and created a moral and spiritual bond between the classes and masses. It led to the belief that it will aid in realizing the essential and living oneness of interest of all the millions of India and it had the greatest organizing power as it affected all India. It infused a sense of equitable distribution of wealth.
To Gandhiji, the physical power is governed by mental and moral power and the masses were poor, ignorant and miserable . Satyagraha ensured their participation, aroused their consciousness and ultimately convinced them to revive their confidence in the restoring their village culture by eliminating any role, whatsoever, in the alien power.
The word Satyagraha was deliberately substituted for it later because Gandhiji felt ashamed to use an English word and he also felt that his Satyagraha was very much different from passive resistance.
of non-cooperation with the British in every field, and the object aimed at was a political regeneration of the country, with the distant goal of absolute freedom looming large before the eyes of the more advanced section. (Words 128 and Marks 10) Similarly, Swadeshi completely outgrew the original conception of promoting Indian industry. It assumed a new form based upon the literal connotation of the word Swadeshi, namely attachment to everything Indian. It affected the whole life of the nation and it encompassed all-comprehensive programme of reform and reconstruction of modern life of the people of India. The economic term transformed into a great national movement. (Words 64 and Marks 5). II. TRENDS OF INDIAN N ATION ALISM NA TIONALISM “Khaddar leads to Swaraj”. Elucidate. Answer: Khaddar had delivered the poor from the bonds of the rich and created a moral and spiritual bond between the classes and masses. It led to the belief that it will aid in realizing the essential and living oneness of interest of all the millions of India and it had the greatest organizing power as it affected all India. It infused a sense of equitable distribution of wealth. An organization of a countrywide scale was established, spinning centres were opened in every province and in numerous villages; the supply of raw material, the production and marketing of yarn and cloth were arranged. A sizable fund was collected for aid to the organization. This organization, independent of government, entirely under the control of Congress, tending to bring the part of the economic life of the people brought into existence. No doubt, small but significant step in direction of self-reliance was achieved and moreover, besides providing employment, the whole of India and all communities were involved in it. (Words 166 and marks 15). “Satyagraha was essentially based on morality to resurrect the mental power of the common persons against the surrender to alien power”. Answer: Gandhiji believed that India was not conquered by sword, but India chose to deliver herself into the hands of the foreigners. Infact, no power on earth can continue to rule against the will of the people. The semi-westerned Indians had continued to support the British rule. Gandhiji believed that if they withdraw their cooperation the British would cease to govern. It is, therefore, imperative to revive the moral appeal through soul searching.
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(Words 72 and Marks 7.5) For this, there is a need to break the chains which bound the minds of men by creating a sense of self-reliance and self-respect. The moral building work is not easy and it needs years of incessant efforts to glow the confidence in the destiny of the people. To Gandhiji, the physical power is governed by mental and moral power and the masses were poor, ignorant and miserable . Satyagraha ensured their participation, aroused their consciousness and ultimately convinced them to revive their confidence in the restoring their village culture by eliminating any role, whatsoever, in the alien power. (Words 98 and Marks 7.5) Gandhji’s concept of satyagraha owe a lot to the concept of passive resistance but it was quite different from it. Justify. Answer: The term Satyagraha was coined by Gandhi in South Africa to indicate the movement which was originally described, even by Gandhi himself, as ‘Passive Resistance’. The word Satyagraha was deliberately substituted for it later because Gandhiji felt ashamed to use an English word and he also felt that his Satyagraha was very much different from passive resistance. To him, PA is a weapon of the weak, and does not exclude the use of physical force or violence for the purpose of gaining one’s end; whereas Satyagraha has been conceived as a weapon of the strongest, and excludes the use of violence in any shape or form. The idea behind Satyagraha is not to destroy or harass the opponent, but to convert him or win him over by sympathy, patience, and self-suffering. Its basic assumption is the essential goodness of human nature which is bound to triumph over temporary aberration. (Words 149 and Marks 15) “Besides internal factors, the split between the moderates and extremists were manifestation of external factors”. Answer: The difference between the moderates and the extremists was accentuated by the return of the Liberal Party to power in Britain at the close of 1905. The autocratic regime of Curzon, which set public at naught, was a great blow to the moderate party’s cherished ideals and seemed blast of the hope of the people in general of receiving any justice from the British. (Words 65 and Marks 6) The liberal traditions of the new British Government, and specially, the appointment of John Morley as Secretary of State for India, revived the hope that the Indians might still achieve a great by following the old policy of petition and agitation. On the other hand, the emergence of the extremist party alarmed the British and
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The essential difference between passive or defensive or active or aggressive resistance is that, while the method of aggressive resister is to do something by which he can bring about positive harm to the Government, the method of the passive resister is to abstain from doing something by which he would be helping the Government.
The concept of passive resistance was suitable to India where the British Government had depended mainly for their continuance of its administration on the voluntary help and acquiescence of the local people. Therefore, the passive resistance was adopted to make administration under present conditions impossible by an organized refusal to do anything which shall help either British commerce in the exploitation of the country or British officialdom in the administration of it.
made them turn towards the moderates as the only friend of the British Government. Hence, grew the British policy of rallying the moderates. These were coaxed into the belief that the Liberal Party would grant a lot of concessions to India. The lure of achieving their cherished goal through constitutional means compelled them to swallow even the bitter pill of split and on the other hand the success of swadeshi and boycott had already made the extremist to point of no return. (Words 137 and Marks 9) What is the difference between passive resistance and active resistance? Discuss the reasons why the concept of passive resistance was adopted over the concept of active resistance. Answer: The concept of passive resistance (PA) was highlighted by the extremist nationalist Aurobindo Ghosh. The essential difference between passive or defensive or active or aggressive resistance is that, while the method of aggressive resister is to do something by which he can bring about positive harm to the Government, the method of the passive resister is to abstain from doing something by which he would be helping the Government. The policy of PA was evolved partly as the necessary complement of self-help, partly as a means of putting pressure on Government. (Words 91 and Marks 7.5) The concept of passive resistance was suitable to India where the British Government had depended mainly for their continuance of its administration on the voluntary help and acquiescence of the local people. Therefore, the passive resistance was adopted to make administration under present conditions impossible by an organized refusal to do anything which shall help either British commerce in the exploitation of the country or British officialdom in the administration of it. Therefore, the policy was evolved partly as the necessary complement of self-help, partly as a means of putting pressure on Government. (Words 93 and Marks 7.5) “The secret societies was the only option for the foundation of militant nationalism in India”. Answer: The people of Bengal at first hoped that they would be able to annul the partition by the swadeshi and boycott movement. But it gradually dawned upon a section of the educated young men that these means were insufficient to achieve the desired end, and more violent means were necessary to gain their object. They had not the means to organise an open armed rebellion against the mighty British power, and so they naturally fell back upon the secret societies as the only way to make preparation for sporadic violence leading ultimately to a widespread revolt. (Words 97 and
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In the mean time, SC Bose emerged as within Congress and wanted to take advantage of the was between Germany and Britain whereas both Gandhi and Nehru extended support to British empire.
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Marks 7.5) The essential and fundamental ideas were the same in the revolutionary terrorists and the extremists. But while the nationalists relied mainly on passive resistance or other forms of self-assertion on an organised basis, the extreme left school had no faith in these methods and activities, and regarded armed resistance as the only feasible way of destroying British power and at that stage the secret societies had to prepare the ground. (Words 70 and Marks 7.5) “Nothing is more remarkable in the history of the next decade than the gradual conversion of Nehru, step by step and stage by stage, to the views and practices of Gandhi and the emergence of Subhas Chandra Bose hastened his shift from socialism to political rightism.” Answer: Jawaharlal Nehru had said two things, off course diametrically opposed, first Gandhiji ideologically was sometimes amazingly backward but at second point in 1936 at Lakhnau he said that Indian socialist movement is primarily and essentially a movement for the attainment of political independence, and not any radical change in social or economic order. It means that for JLN socialism was a mean to an end and not an end itself. Gradually, JLN started to know that socialism would be a far cry for Indian conditions. In the mean time, SC Bose emerged as within Congress and wanted to take advantage of the was between Germany and Britain whereas both Gandhi and Nehru extended support to British empire. (Words 117 and Marks 10) Infact, Gandhian thought had incorporated both leftist and rightist combination and Nehru gradually realized that Indian conditions are more apt towards a combination of isms and the emergence of SC Bose within Congress and subsequent limited performance of his forward Bloc convinced Nehrujee that a parallel platform like INC could not be created at all and for the survival within INC he has to dilute his socialistic ideologies. (Words 68 and marks 5)
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III - MASS AND SUBSIDIARY MOVEMENTS (a) “ All the three objects of noncooperation like swaraj, boycott and constructive programmes comprehensively failed to achieve anything significant and this has made the non-cooperation movement meaningless.” Answer: Nodoubt, Swaraj within a year, promised by Gandhi, was as far off as ever; nor did any conspicuous success attend the efforts to achieve the specific objects immediately in view; at the same time boycott of councils, law courts, educational institutions proved ineffec-
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The essential difference between passive or defensive or active or aggressive resistance is that, while the method of aggressive resister is to do something by which he can bring about positive harm to the Government, the method of the passive resister is to abstain from doing something by which he would be helping the Government.
The concept of passive resistance was suitable to India where the British Government had depended mainly for their continuance of its administration on the voluntary help and acquiescence of the local people. Therefore, the passive resistance was adopted to make administration under present conditions impossible by an organized refusal to do anything which shall help either British commerce in the exploitation of the country or British officialdom in the administration of it.
In the mean time, SC Bose emerged as within Congress and wanted to take advantage of the was between Germany and Britain whereas both Gandhi and Nehru extended support to British empire.
tive and as regards to constructive programme like spinning wheel didn’t last long but in many respect the NCM a watershed unprecedented in the realm of INM. (Words 69 and Marks 5) The general awakening of masses of their political rights and privileges; the total loss of faith in the present system of the government; the belief that it is only through its own efforts that India can hope to be free; the faith in the Congress as the only organisation which can properly direct national effort to gain freedom and the utter failure of repression to cow down the people. Even the Government was forced to admit that inspite of its impracticable nature, the NCM was engineered and sustained by nationalist aspirations. (Words 90 and Marks 7) NCM provided the willingness and the ability of the people in general to endure, to a remarkable degree, hardships and punishments inflicted by the Government. This is the reason why the NCM collapsed, the memory of its greatness survived, and was destined to inspire the nation to launch it again at no distant time. (Words 54 and Marks 3) “The abandoning of Non-Cooperation Movement at ChauriChaura was the desperate bid of Gandhiji to save the capitalists and the landlords”. Examine the veracity of the statement. Answer: The statement lacks historical and circumstantial evidences as violence in a remote village could not be sufficient enough to take such a major decision on this line. It was not possible for a mass movement to succeed in the face of government repression. Gandhiji took the decision from a very practical point of view. In many parts of the country, by the second half of 1921, the movement had started to dwindle. Gandhiji was also realising that a prolonged movement needs participation at every level and he had accepted that personal shortcomings of the volunteers and their leaders or defects in the organisation should not have been overexposed before the British regime. Gandhijee was very much knowing that the INC is undergoing structural changes and as a strategy it was not possible for him to continue to wage incessant struggle. At the same time, the communal violence was growing which was the main pillar of strength of the movement. Besides that, Gandhiji had no specific link with the capitalists and landlords. They were like other classes in the Congress. (Words 179 and Marks 15) “Poona pact diverted all attention from the actual fight of Civil Disobedience Movement, at least for the time being, when it was at its height.” Answer: There is no doubt that the MacDonald Award was devised to not only create a dis-
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sension amongst the Hindus but also to deviate the leadership from the CDM and unfortunately both the objectives were achieved. The depressed classes secured double the number of seats reserved for them in the communal award and also enjoyed the benefits of a separate electorate though in a modified form. Therefore, consciously or unconsciously, the future of depressed classes were linked with the politics of reservation and this adversely affected the Hindu unity. (Words 88 and Marks 7.5) For the time being all these considerations were absent from the minds of the men who were only concerned with saving the life of Gandhi at any cost. In this process, the larger issues fade into the background for the time being at least. The common man was confused with the compromise formula of Poona Pact and thought that the agreement on communal award is the end of the movement and thereafter the people’s participation was dwindled. (Words 77 and Marks 7.5) “The Quit India Movement represented a metaphor as it was not non-violent, and was neither planned nor led by Gandhi” Answer: Gandhijee did not formulate any definite programme of action before he was arrested on 9th August. There is no doubt that the violent acts in the 1942 movement cannot be explained as insensate and mad acts of fury on the part of the people provoked by ruthless acts of the Government but were really due to the fact that whatever might have been its original character, the movement of 1942 shortly merged itself into the revolutionary or terrorist movement which was always an active force running on parallel line with the non-violent policy of Gandhi. (Words 95 and Marks 7.5) How strong this revolutionary feeling was may be judged by the fact that even a powerful section of Congress led by Jaya Prakash Narayan openly repudiated the policy of Gandhi and preached the cult of violence and mass revolution. The revolutionary movement and the nonviolent Satyagraha launched by Gandhi, both came to an end, almost simultaneously, without achieving freedom and ultimately represented that Indian National Movement was a byproduct of a combination of trends underlying at varying degrees to produce independence. (Words 81 and Marks 7.5) “Indian communalism was more devised as a political tool than mere religious one”. Explain. Answer: Unlike medieval Europe, India never witnessed religious war. Communalism in India was the result of government’s acts of omission and commission which were consciously designed to create mutual apprehensions and
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Analysing Modern History QUESTIONS
All the constitutional acts were deliberately geared towards ensuring a constant fact of creating mutual mistrust and sending a message that one group of people, may be on caste, religion or creed, will get the power, prosperity only at the cost of other. In other words, it created a sense of diametrically opposed interests as an inherent fact.
The plan was incompatible with Jinnah’s theory of two nations. At the same time, Jinnah believed that only the Muslims had the right to vote, which was quite unreasonable. Jinnah also expressed disagreement related to the proposal of a joint board to control matters of common concern, like defence, foreign relations, communications, etc.
Wavell formally handed over to Jinnah the power of veto, and henceforth it was regarded as an axiomatic truth in Indian politics that the final authority in any constitutional progress in India rested in the hands of Jinnah. Wavell thus reversed the process followed by Cripps who attached far greater importance to the INC representing an overwhelming majority of Indian people.
mistrusts. Even Gandhiji failed to understand the political implications of his extension of support to the cause of Khilafat. The leaders of Khilafat needed support of Gandhiji only for a defined particular purpose. All the constitutional acts were deliberately geared towards ensuring a constant fact of creating mutual mistrust and sending a message that one group of people, may be on caste, religion or creed, will get the power, prosperity only at the cost of other. In other words, it created a sense of diametrically opposed interests as an inherent fact. Even the revenue settlements were devised to create landlord-peasant relationship on the basis of Hindu landlord and Muslim raiyyats and vice-versa. This was political move to create antagonistic feeling in the rural areas. In other words, the privileges given by the British government in terms of economic gains created communal feelings in a British rule sponsored poverty-stricken society. (Words 179 and Marks 15). IV. FACTORS LEADING TO PARTITION Jinnah rejected Rajagopalachari plan and said, “Gandhi is offering a shadow and a husk, a maimed multilated and moth-eaten Pakistan”. Explain. Answer: Jinnah had argued that separation could not be deferred till after independence, considered common services to be unnecessary, and felt that plebiscites with both Muslims and Hindus voting contradicted the basic principle of Muslim being a distinct nation with an inherent right of self-determination. The plan was incompatible with Jinnah’s theory of two nations. At the same time, Jinnah believed that only the Muslims had the right to vote, which was quite unreasonable. Jinnah also expressed disagreement related to the proposal of a joint board to control matters of common concern, like defence, foreign relations, communications, etc. He observed that there could be no such common matters between two sovereign states. (Words 111 and Marks 10) In fact, Jinnah had accepted the proposal of Cripps regarding non-accession of Muslim provinces but did not like Rajaji plan because while Cripps talked of provinces out of the Union, while Rajaji and Gandhiji spoke of only of Muslim majority areas which meant a truncated Pakistan, a Pakistan smaller than one of his dreams. (Words 54 and Marks 5) Despite rejection by both Congress and Muslim League, Bhoola Bhai and Liyaqat Ali talks became basis of Wavell Plan. Explain the statement. Answer: The talks arrived at that INC and ML will join in forming an interim Government at the centre. They would then consult the groups
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in the Indian Legislature and submit names to the Governor-General for inclusion in the Executive Council. The selection would not be confined to members of the legislature. Communal proportions within the Council would be settled by agreement. The interim Government would work within the present constitution, but all the members of the Executive Council, except the Government-General and the Commander-in-Chief, would be Indians. Following Desai-Liaqat Ali formula he proposed a Council with equal members of Hindus and Muslims, and one representative each of the Sikhs and the depressed classes, besides the C-in-C and the Viceroy. The Council will apart from administration, will do the prosecution of war and peace and would consider the composition of the constitution-making body. (Words 142 and Marks 15) The Simla Conference reflected the evil designs of partition and recognised India as a country of two diametrically opposed groups at the same platform. Illustrate the statement. Answer: Wavell formally handed over to Jinnah the power of veto, and henceforth it was regarded as an axiomatic truth in Indian politics that the final authority in any constitutional progress in India rested in the hands of Jinnah. Wavell thus reversed the process followed by Cripps who attached far greater importance to the INC representing an overwhelming majority of Indian people. (Words 76 and Marks 7.5). It was now clear that the ML could make or mar the fortunes of Muslims, as the Government gave it the power to veto any constitutional proposal which was not to its liking. It was apprehended by many that its extravagant claim that it alone represented the Muslims of India would, in near future, be conceded in fact, if not in theory. No Muslim outside the League had therefore, any chance of a political career in future. (Words 89 and Marks 7.5). “Despite having a number of inherent limitations, the Pakistan resolution had served its purpose.” Elaborate this statement. Answer: The resolution was quite indefinite and ambiguous about the goal. The resolution was equally vague in defining the areas in which the Muslims were numerically in a majority. The resolution on Pakistan did not mention what the nature of the state of Pakistan would be. One school represented by Maulavis like Ashraf Ali Thanavi believed in the establishment of a theocratic state. On the other hand, moderate section, mainly Iqbal, believed in the creation of autonomous Muslim states. Besides these limitations, even Jinnah did not clarify in concrete terms the connotation of Pa-
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Analysing Modern History QUESTIONS
In fact, the resolution was essentially a bargaining counter. The resolution not only confused the government but also the Muslims. The idea Pakistan was wide open and it provided a platform for Jinnah to act and react accordingly. The undefined character of resolution consciously or unconsciously contributed to the capricious character of Jinnah. Wavell was very much aware of the fact that still the ML was facing uphill task as Jinnah’s claim that the Muslim League was the sole representative organization of the Muslims had not yet established. At the same time ML was still not strongly entrenched in so far as the Provincial Governments in Muslim majority provinces was concerned. The British interests demanded the successor governments should have the status of the dominions, so that British investments and other economic interests would be safeguarded. The dominion status would naturally ensure membership of the Commonwealth. Mountbatten also considered that the two governments should have common arrangements for the defence of India, and retain the integrity of the army.
kistan. In fact, the resolution was essentially a bargaining counter. The resolution not only confused the government but also the Muslims. The idea Pakistan was wide open and it provided a platform for Jinnah to act and react accordingly. The undefined character of resolution consciously or unconsciously contributed to the capricious character of Jinnah. (Words 146 and Marks 15) Wavell had no alternative but to play politics with the existing parties to prolong the British rule in India. Elucidate. Answer: Wavell had two alternative solutions for the Indian problem-“one to hold India down by force,” for which he would require thousands of additional British troops, and the other to pass on the responsibility for government to the representatives of the people. Wavell knew if he offered a few option before Indian parties like to convene the constitutionmaking body; to consult the representatives of the Indian states in what way they could take part in the constitution-making body; discussion over the composition of a new Executive Committee to deal with the economic and social problems and work out the future position of India; then there is going to be no solution over these issues and the British rule will be continued unabated. Wavell was very much aware of the fact that still the ML was facing uphill task as Jinnah’s claim that the Muslim League was the sole representative organization of the Muslims had not yet established. At the same time ML was still not strongly entrenched in so far as the Provincial Governments in Muslim majority provinces was concerned. The Congress was never willing to accept ML as the sole representative of Indian Muslims. These intractable and disputed issues were bound to take many years to get an answer. (Words 209 and Marks 15) Why Cabinet Mission declined to transfer British power to two entirely separate sovereign states? Give the reasons. Answer: The Mission was that a separate sovereign state of Pakistan on the lines claimed by the ML would not like solve the communal minority problem; further, there was no justification for including within a sovereign Pakistan those districts of the Punjab and of Bengal and Assam in which the population was predominantly non-Muslim. The communication system had been organized on an all India basis, its disintegration would gravely injure both parts of India. The problem of the division of the armed forces was even more vital. The two sections of Pakistan contained the two most vulnerable frontiers in In-
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dia and for a successful defence in depth the area of Pakistan would be inefficient. Further, the partition would make the problem of the states more complex. Lastly, the geographical factor required consideration, for the two wings of Pakistan would be separated from one another by more than 700 miles of Indian territory making communications between them in war and peace dependent on the goodwill of Hindustan. (Words 165 and Marks 15) Briefly point out the British de signs and interest during the last days of partition. Answer: The British interests demanded the successor governments should have the status of the dominions, so that British investments and other economic interests would be safeguarded. The dominion status would naturally ensure membership of the Commonwealth. Mountbatten also considered that the two governments should have common arrangements for the defence of India, and retain the integrity of the army. In conceding the ML demand of Pakistan, it would be necessary to placate the Hindus by serving the Hindu majority areas from the Punjab, Bengal and Assam and joining them with India. Therefore, the strategy of the British empire was to transfer power initially to the provinces and the States and groups of states, and the state would decide the constitution of the central Government. Every time, the British Government tried to contrive a device which can create a mirage by showing that they are offering too much but ultimately did nothing to dilute their power and stake in India. (Words 158 and Marks 15) “Morley and Minto possessed greater finesse than Curzon, they agreed with the substance of his imperialist policy but differed concerning the means to achieve it”. Answer: No doubt, the political activities during 1905-1909 ushered a great change in India with the rise of a new combination of forces. In this process, the educated and professional groups formed one of its sections; the Indian capitalist class was encouraged after swadeshi; the revivalist movement got further energized; and the working class, peasants and artisans saw the glimpse of the end of economic exploitation. (Words 65 and Marks 5) The British Government came out with repressive measures in the form of various Acts and laws but soon realized that in order to remain in power with peace, they have to evolve a more subtle and complicated policy of sponsoring one group and creating a zero-sum game feeling about each other on religious lines. (Words 54 and Marks 5)
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Analysing Modern History QUESTIONS
The civil administration was visibly deteriorating, the officials were openly taking sides and the police was unreliable. The prolongation of the period of waiting would worsen the conditions, and force the extension of section 93 rule in other provinces.
The ML seemed to be less interested in independence and more in the breaking up of the unity of the country. The Congress was prepared to accept the right of self-determination of a people on the territorial basis on condition that its inhabitants claimed the right and validated it either by a majority vote in the legislature or by a plebiscite.
Therefore, both Morley and Minto brought the 1909 Act and introduced separate electorate to create different spheres of interests within the same society and country. The constitutional advancement led to further creation of divisions in India and the game of ultimate divide and rule got institutionalized through this mechanism. (Words 49 and Marks 5) Discuss the motives and factors that forced Mountbatten to advance the date of transfer of power from June 1948 to August 15, 1947. Answer: The Government had as early as February 20, 1947, declared its intention to quit, definitely by June 1948. The earlier date was adopted in order to cut short the interval between the announcement and its implementation because of the fear of growing impatience of the leaders and the increasing tension among the communities as the ominous incidents in Bengal, the Punjab and the North-West frontier Province indicated. The civil administration was visibly deteriorating, the officials were openly taking sides and the police was unreliable. The prolongation of the period of waiting would worsen the conditions, and force the extension of section 93 rule in other provinces. In order to continue till June 1948, it would be necessary to resume recruitment of the Indian civil services, and to transfer a considerable number of British troops from England. The conditions in England prohibited these measures, and the Indian leaders were averse to them. Besides that promotion of Mountbatten was due and Jinnah was struck with mortal illness. He did not survive June 1948 by more than 3 months during which he was practically bedridden. (Words 182 and Marks 7.5). Point out the difference between the attitude of Indian National Congress and Muslim League over the issue of independence of India. Answer: The ML seemed to be less interested in independence and more in the breaking up of the unity of the country. The Congress was prepared to accept the right of self-determination of a people on the territorial basis on condition that its inhabitants claimed the right and validated it either by a majority vote in the legislature or by a plebiscite. Another difference was that the INC wanted independence first and secession afterwards; the ML on the other hand, insisted upon partition before independence. The ML was afraid that in an independent India it would have little chance of securing a majority of votes in any province of India. ML was very much clear that strong support of British is a must for them in achieving the goal of a separate nation.
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The public debt policy of the Government and payment of annual interest on them meant increasing tax burden on the Indian people. Highly regressive taxation was imposed on people for servicing the Government of India’s debt raised in England.
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Therefore, the ML clung to the British and opposed the congress, and produced the communal deadlock. At the same time, British seemed prepared to lose India but not to transfer authority to the Congress. As a natural corollary, ML played the politics of procrastination. (Words 177 and Marks 15). V. ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT DURING BRITISH REGIME The disguised form of economic expliotation formed the basis of the extension of industrialization in England at the cost of Indian industrialization. Elucidate. Answer: The abundant resources and bullion which England obtained either cheaply or without paying anything in return, in the forms of the Drain from India, which helped English people to raise their investment in agriculture and industries. Rich officials and merchants who retired in England with huge amounts and pensions after serving in India had the leisure and money to devote their attention to new inventions, construction of roads, canals and railways and bring rapid changes in all sectors of the economy. (WORDS 81 AND MARKS 7.5) The public debt policy of the Government and payment of annual interest on them meant increasing tax burden on the Indian people. Highly regressive taxation was imposed on people for servicing the Government of India’s debt raised in England. When the Government of the country spends the tax proceeds within the country, money circulates among the people creating demand for various types of goods and services and thus fructifies in profitable progress in trade, agriculture and industry. The benefits of such a policy percolate down the mass of people. But when tax proceeds are spent abroad as it happened in the case of the Drain, it meant siphoning off the resources out of India, thus impoverishing her trade, agriculture and industries. (WORDS 121 AND MARKS 7.5) “In India, the commercialization of agriculture produced famines instead of growth and development in India.” Answer: It is a pre-requisite of industrialisation as it is the surplus that makes the nexus between the town and village possible. Moreover the cash crops are the raw materials of the industries. If the commercialisation of agriculture is prolonged, there cannot be industrialization: (i) There is a great possibility of food grain crisis; (ii) As a result of this the town-village nexus is disturbed; and (iii) The surplus production is substantially reduced and there begins again the subsistence farming. The whole urban area survives on surplus. Therefore the towns and industry are affected by two
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Analysing Modern History QUESTIONS In the case of India, commercialisation was not only a forced process, but was linked to British industrialisation. Therefore the positive impact of commercialisation went to the British. The positive point of commercialisation is that it can lead to industrialisation while the negative point of commercialisation is that if prolonged, it leads to famines; and happened in India. In fact, one of the main purposes of the reforms was to create a counterpoise to the Congress which stood and worked for national unity. The main emphasis was upon the principles of community and group interests as the foundation of the future political arrangements in India. The principle of separate representation amounted to a denial of Indian nationalism. The presence of the rulers in the Central Legislature was matter of vital interest for British rulers in India as they mostly relied upon this reactionary element to keep down, at least moderate, the democratic element in British India. The British Government undoubtedly devised the federation in the hope that the mutual jealousies and rivalries between the Congress, the Muslim League, and the Rulers of States would enable them to retain the real authority by playing off one against the other.
factors: (a) The foodgrains become scare and therefore very costly. Therefore their purchasing power is substantially reduced. Now in place of industrial products, he purchases only agricultural products. (b) At the same time, the demand for industrial products also reduced in rural areas. In the case of India, commercialisation was not only a forced process, but was linked to British industrialisation. Therefore the positive impact of commercialisation went to the British. The positive point of commercialisation is that it can lead to industrialisation while the negative point of commercialisation is that if prolonged, it leads to famines; and happened in India. (WORDS 195 and MARKS 15) VI - CONSTITUTIONAL DEVELOPMENT “The reforms of 1909 became the guiding force for all constitutional reforms under the British Government”. OR The reforms of 1909 introduced a cardinal problem and ground of controversy at every revision of the Indian electoral system”. Comment. Answer: In 1909, the British was not prepared to give any constitutional rights to the people of India but at the same time they had to justify their response towards moderates to control the growing influence of extremists in the INM. The British always accepted India in geographical identity and deliberately the Act was devised to give recognition to the principle of representation of the people in the electoral system, but on the basis of ‘classes, races and interests’. In fact, one of the main purposes of the reforms was to create a counterpoise to the Congress which stood and worked for national unity. The main emphasis was upon the principles of community and group interests as the foundation of the future political arrangements in India. The principle of separate representation amounted to a denial of Indian nationalism. Besides separate electorate, narrow franchises and indirect elections failed to encourage in members a sense of responsibility to the people generally, and made it impossible, except in special constituencies, for those who had votes to use them with perception and effect. (Words 178 and Marks 15) Despite limitations the Act of 1919 had a lot of merits also. Substantiate your points to support this statement. Answer: It marked the end of the policy of ‘benevolent despotism’ and the beginning of the responsible government, definitely to some
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extent. The elections to the legislatures created political consciousness among the people. The number of the Indians in the Governor-General’s executive council was raised to 3 in a council of 8. The Indian members were entrusted with departments like that of law, education, labour, health and industry. The Indians came in direct contact with administration for the first time which provided them useful experience. The number of Indian increased in civil services. The Indian women got the right to franchise for the first time. Many useful measures were taken by the Indian ministers in different provinces, i.e Madras State Aid Industries Act, 1923, the Bombay Primary Education Act, The Bihar and Orissa Village Administration Act’, The Bombay Local Boards Act, 1923, etc. (WORDS 142 and MARKS 15) “The inclusion of Princely States in the Federation Scheme of 1935 Act was the last resort of the British to balance the reactionary elements with the progressive forces.” What were the initial reactions of the Rulers? Answer: The presence of the rulers in the Central Legislature was matter of vital interest for British rulers in India as they mostly relied upon this reactionary element to keep down, at least moderate, the democratic element in British India. The British Government undoubtedly devised the federation in the hope that the mutual jealousies and rivalries between the Congress, the Muslim League, and the Rulers of States would enable them to retain the real authority by playing off one against the other. They could therefore never think of introducing Responsible Government in the centre, even in a modified or diluted form, without roping in the rulers within the Federation. (Words 108 and Marks 10). The Rulers feared that there own subjects would demand similar reforms, and such demands would be hard to resist once the States formed a part of the Federation of India. The Rulers of the States felt that with the introduction of new Constitution in the Provinces, the contrast between the forms of Government in British India and those in States would be more and more glaring. (Words 66 and Marks 5).
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SUGGESTED REFERENCES The relevance of Modern India is on a declining trend but it should not be treated as a benchmark and a deep and wide study of the material should be needed and for this along with NCERT Class XI and XII, one should also refer Grover and Mehta with the support of Tara Chand Vol 3 and 4. Bipan Chandra’s India’s struggle for independence is still the basic text. The area wise spread of mass movement, along with tribal, caste, civil rebellion should be done from Sumit Sarkar.
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Solved CSAT Paper 2011
CSAT (PAPER-II) Time Allowed: Two Hours
Maximum Marks: 200 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English, except for Questions relating to English Language Comprehension which are in English only. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong Answers: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE EXCEPT FOR QUESTIONS FROM 73 TO 80, WHICH DO NOT CARRY ANY PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWER. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. Directions for the following 5 (five) items: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only. Passage Now India’s children have a right to receive at least eight of education, the gnawing question is whether it will remain on paper or become a reality. One hardly needs a reminder that this right is different from the others enshrined in the Constitution, that the beneficiary-a six year old child cannot demand it, nor can she or he fight a legal battle when the right is denied or violated. In all cases, it is the adult society which must act on behalf of the child. In another peculiarity, where a child’s right to education is denied, no compensation offered later can be adequate or relevant. This is so because childhood does not last. If a legal battle fought on behalf of a child is eventually won, it may be of little use to the boy or girl because the opportunity missed at school during childhood cannot serve the same purpose later in life. This may be painfully true for girls because our society permits them only a short childhood, if at all. The Right to Education (RTE) has become law at a point in India’s history when the ghastly practice of female infanticide has resurfaced in the form of foeticide. This is “symptomatic of a deeper turmoil” in society which is compounding the traditional obstacles to the education of girls. Tenacious prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls runs across our cultural diversity and the system of education has not been able to address it. AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
1. With reference to the passage consider the following statements: 1. When children are denided education, adult society does not act on behalf of them. 2. Right to Education as a law cannot be enforced in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Option 'a' is correct. 2. According to the passage, what could be the traditional obstacles to the education of girls? 1. Inability of parents to fight a legal battle when the Right to Education is denied to their children. 2. The traditional way of thinking about girl’s role in society. 3. The prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls. 4. Improper system of ed Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Option 'b' is correct. 3. On the basis of the passage, consider the following statements: 1. Right to Education is a legal right and not a fundamental right. 2. For realising the goal of universal education, the education system in the country must be made identical to that of developed countries. 68
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Solved CSAT Paper 2011
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Option 'a' is correct. 4. Which one of the following statements conveys the key message of the passage? (a) India has declared that education is compulsory for its children. (b) Adult society is not keen on implementing the Right to Education. (c) The Right to Education, particularly of a girl child, needs to be safeguarded. (d) The system of education should address the issue of Right to Education. Option 'c' is appropriate 5. Which one of the following statements conveys the inference of the passage? (a) The society has a tenacious prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls. (b) Adults cannot be relied upon to fight on behalf of children for their Right to Education. (c) The legal fight to get education for children is often protracted and prohibitive. (d) There is no sufficient substitute for education received in childhood. Since girl education is the message therefore option 'a' is correct Read the following passage and answer the 3 (three) items that follow: A, B, C, D and E are members of the same family. There are two fathers, two sons, two wives, three males and two females. The teacher was the wife of a lawyer who was the son of a doctor. E is not a male, neither also a wife of a professional. C is the youngest person in the family and D is the eldest. B is a male. 6. How is D related to E? (a) Husband (b) Son (c) Father (d) Wife Option 'a' is correct. 7. Who are the female in the group? (a) C and E (b) C and D (c) E and A (d) D and E Option 'c' is correct. 8. Whose wife is the teacher? (a) C (b) D (c) A (d) B Option 'd' is correct Read the following passage and answer the 3 (three) items that follow: In a survey regarding a proposed measure to be introduced, 2878 persons took part of which 1652 were males. 1226 persons voted against the proposal of which 796 were males. 1425 persons voted for the proposal. 196 females were undecided. 9. How many females voted for the proposal? (a) 430 (b) 600 (c) 624 (d) 640 Analyzing above statement we come to following conclusion Total is 2878, Males are 1652 Female are 1226 Favor = 829 Against =796 Undecided=31 for (MALES) Favor = 600 Against =430 Undecided=196 for (FEMALES) AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
Option 'b' is correct. 10. How many males were undecided? (a) 31 (b) 227 (c) 426 (d) 581 Option 'a' is correct. 11. How many females were not in favour of the proposal? (a) 430 (b) 496 (c) 586 (d) 1226 Option 'a' is correct. 12. In a queue, Mr. X is fourteenth from the front and Mr. y is seventeenth from the end, while Mr. Z is exactly in between Mr. X and Mr. Y. If Mr. X is ahead of Mr. Y and there are 48 persons in the queue, how may persons are there between Mr. X and Mr. Z? (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 Option 'c' is correct Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read each of the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. Passage-1 For achieving inclusive growth there is a critical need to rethink the role of the State. The early debate among economists about the size of the Government can be misleading. The need of the hour is to have an enabling Government. India is to large and complex a nation for the State to be able to deliver all that is needed. Asking the Government to produce all the essential goods, create all the necessary jobs, and keep a curb on the prices of all goods is to lead to a large cumbersome bureaucracy and widespread corruption. The aim must be to stay with the objective of inclusive growth that was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation and also to take a more modern view of what the State can realistically deliver. This is what leads to the idea of an enabling State, that is, a Government that does not try to directly deliver to the citizens everything that they need. Instead, it (1) creates an enabling ethos for the market so that individual enterprise can flourish and citizens can, for the most part, provide for the needs of one another, and (2) steps in to help those who do not manage to do well for themselves, for there will always be individuals, no matter what the system, wheo need support and help. Hence we need a Government that, when it comes to the market, sets effective, incentivecompatible rules and remains on the sidelines with minimal interference, and, at the same time, plays an important role in directly helping the poor by ensuring that they get basic education and health services and receive adequate nutrition and food. 13. According to the passage: 1. The objective of inclusive growth was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation. 2. Need of the hour is to have an enabling Government. 3. The Government should engage in maximum interference in market processes. 4. There is a need to change the size of the Government. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 69
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(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1,2,3 and 4 Option 'a' is correct. 14. According to the passage, the strategy of inclusive growth can be effected by focussing on (a) Meeting all the needs of every citizen in the country. (b) Increasing the regulations over the manufacturing sector. (c) Controlling the distribution of manufactured goods. (d) Delivery of the basic services to the deprived sections of the society. Option'd' is correct answer. 15. What constitutes an enabling Government? 1. A large bureaucracy. 2. Implementation of welfare programmes through representatives. 3. Creating an ethos that helps individual enterprise. 4. Providing resources to those who are underprivileged. 5. Offering direct help to the poor regarding basic services. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 and 5 only (c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 4 and 5 are only correct. Option 'b' is correct. 16. Why is the State unable to deliver “all that is needed”? 1. It does not have sufficient bureaucracy. 2. It does not promote inclusive growth. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Option 'b' is correct. 17. What is the essential message being conveyed by the auther of the passage? (a) The objectives of inclusive growth laid down by the founding fathers of the nation shoud be remembered. (b) The Government needs to make available more schools and health services. (c) The Government needs to establish markets and industries to meet the needs of the poor strata of the society. (d) There is a need to rethink the role of the State in achieving inclusive growth. Option'd' is correct. Passage-2 The concept of ‘creative society’ refers to a phase of development of a society in which a large number of potential contradictions become articulate and active. This is most evident when oppressed social groups get politically mobilised and demand their rights. The upsurge of the peasants and tribals, the movements, and the women’s movements in the developing countries are signs of emergence of creative society in contemporary times. The forms of social movements and their intensity may vary from country to country and place to place within a country. But the very presence of movements for social transformation in various spheres of a society indicates the emergence of a creative society in a country. 18. What does the author imply by “creative society”? 1. A society where diverse art forms and literary writings seek intentive. 2. A society where social inequalities are accepted as the norm. 3. A society where a large number of contradictions are recognised. AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
4. A society where the exploited and the oppressed groups grow conscious of their human rights and upliftment. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 4 only (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 Only 3 and 4 are mentioned. (option 'c' is correct). 19. What according to the passage are the manifestations of social movements? 1. Aggressiveness and being incendiary. 2. Instigation by external forces. 3. Quest for social \equality and individual freedom. 4. Urge for granting privileges and self-respect to disparaged sections of the society. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Option 'b' is appropriate. 20. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements: 1. To be a creative society, it is essential to have a variety of social movements. 2. To be a creative society, it is imperative to have potential contradictions and conflicts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 As per the passage both varieties as well as conflicts plays a vital role for a creative society. Option 'c' is correct. 21. Consider the following three statements: 1. Only students can participate in the race. 2. Some participants in the race are girls. 3. All girl participants in the race are invited for coaching. Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements? (a) All participants in the race are invited for coaching. (b) All students are invited for coaching. (c) All participants in the race are students. (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct. Using Venn diagram and the first statement Option 'c' is correct. Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Each of the following two items consists of four statements. Of these four statements, two cannot both be true, but both can be false. Study the statements carefully and identify the two that satisfy the above condition. Select the correct answer using the codes given below each set of statements: 22. Examine the following statements: 1. All animals are carnivorous. 2. Some animals are not carnivorous. 3. Animals are not carnivorous. Codes: (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 Checking options by option; Option 'a' - both statements contradict each other Option 'b' - Second statement partially contradicts Option 'c' - both statements is one and same Option'd'- both statements is one and same Option 'a' is correct. 70
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23. Examine the following statements: 1. All trains are run by diesel engine. 2. Some trains are run by diesel engine. 3. No train is run by diesel engine. 4. Some trains are not run by diesel engine. Codes (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 Option 'c' is correct. 24. Consider the four age pyramids given below namely A, B, C and D representing four different countries. Which one of them indicates the declining population. (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D If we draw a horizontal line for a particular age, there are
two values of each percentage which is not possible; also it contradicts the rule of function. Hence no given graph is correct. 25. The following figure has four curves namely A, B, C and D. Study the figure and answer the item that follows. Which curve indicates the exponential growth? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D Exponential function is given by e^x. Hence the slope is proportionate to the value of x. Only Option 'd' shows slope
increases with increasing value of year. ections ffor or the ffollo ollo wing 2 (tw o) items: Directions ollowing (two) Dir The following pie charts show the break-up of disease categories recorded in the patients from two towns, Town A and Town B. Pie charts plot the disease categories as percentage of the total number of patients. Based on these, answer the two items that follow the charts. Distribution of diseases in Town-A
AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
Distribution of diseases in Town-B
26. Which of the two towns has a higher number of persons with Diabetes? (a) Town A (b) Town B (c) Same in Town A and Town B (d) No inference can be drawn There is no data provided for population. Hence Option'd' is correct. 27. What can we say about persons with more than one disease from these graphs? (a) There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in Town A. (b) There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in Town B. (c) There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in both Towns A and B. (d) No inference can be drawn. In order to find the possibility of multiple diseases for a same person add all the percentage values. For town A it is 100 per cent and for town B it is greater than 100 per cent which is possible only in case of multiple disease. Option 'b' is correct. 28. Consider the following Velocity-Time graph. It shows two trains starting simultaneously on parallel tracks. With reference to the above graph, which one of the
following statements is not correct? (a) Train B has an initial acceleration greater than that of Train A. (b) Train B is faster than Train A at all times. (c) Both trains have the same velocity at time t0. (d) Both trains travel the same distance in time t0 units. Distance from a velocity time graph is given by area under the curve. For train B obviously area is greater than that of train A. Option 'd' is correct. Directions for the following 4 (four) items: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only. 71
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Passage A country under foreign domination seeks escape from the present in dreams of a vanished age, and finds consolation in visions of past greatness. That is a foolish and dangerous pastime in which many of us indulge. An equally questionable practice for us in India is to imagine that we are still spiritually great though we have come down in the world in other respects. Spiritual or any other greatness cannot be founded on lack of freedom and opportunity, or on starvation and misery. Many western writers have encouraged that notion that Indians are other worldly. I suppose the poor and unfortunate in every country become to some extent other-worldly, unless they become revolutionaries, for this world is evidently not meant for them. So also subject peoples. As a man grows in maturity he is not entirely engrossed in, or satisfied with, the external objective world. He seeks also some inner meaning, some psychological and physical satisfactions. So also with peoples and civilizations as as they mature and grow adult. Every civilization and every people exhibit these parallel streams of an external life and an internal life. Where they meet or keep close to each other, there is an equilibrium and stability. When they diverge conflict arises and the crises that torture the mind and spirit. 29. The passage mentions that “this world is evidently not meant for them”. It refers to people who 1. seek freedom from foreign domination. 2. live in starvation and misery. 3. become revolutionaries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only Option 'a' is correct 30. Consider the following assumptions: 1. A country under foreign domination cannot indulge in spirtual pursuit. 2. Poverty is an impediment in the spiritual pursuit. 3. Subject peoples may become other-worldly. With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only Option 'c' is correct 31. The passage thematically centres on (a) the state of mind of oppressed people (b) starvation and misery (c) the growth of civilization (d) body, mind and spirit of people in general The passage talks about inner feeling and thinking of people under adverse circumstances and points out starvation and misery while C andD does not represent theme of comprehension. (option a is more relevant than b hence option 'a' is answer). 32. According to the passage, the torture of the mind and spirit is caused (a) by the impact of foreign domination. (b) by the desire to escape from foreign domination and find consolation in visions of past greatness. (c) due to lack of equilibrium between an external life and an internal life. AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
(d) due to one’s inability to be either revolutionary or other worldly. Option 'c' is appropriate as last line denotes it. (Option 'c' is correct). Directions for the following 3 (three) items: Read the passage given below, study the graph that follows and
answer the three items given below the figure. During a party, a person was exposed to contaminated water. A few days later, he developed fever and loose motions. He suffered for some days before going to a doctor for treatment. On starting the treatment, he soon became better and recovered completely a few days later. The following graph shows different phases of the person’s disease condition as regions A, B, C, D and E of the curve. 33. Which region/regions of the curve correspond/ corresponds to incubation phase of the infeetion? (a) A only (b) B only (c) B and C (d) No part of the curve indicates the incubation phase For any sort of infection the incubation part is that phase in which effect of that symptoms becomes effective. (Option 'a' is appropriate) 34. Which region of the curve indicates that the person begain showing the symptoms of infection? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D Option 'b' is correct. 35. Which region of the curve indicates that the treatment yielded effective relief? (a) C (b) D (c) E (d) The curve does not indicate the treatment Option 'c' is correct 36. There are four routes to travel from city A to city B and six routes from city B to city C. How many routes are possible to travel from the city A to city C? (a) 24 (b) 12 (c) 10 (d) 8 Using fundamental principle of counting, the total no. of ways would be equal to (no of ways from A to B X no. of ways from B to C). Thus, total number of routes is 4×6 = 24. (Option 'a' is correct). 37. A contract on construction job specifies a penalty for delay in completion of the work beyond a certain date is as follws: Rs. 200 for the fist day, Rs. 250 for the second day, Rs. 300 for the third day etc., the penalty for each succeeding day being Rs. 50 more than that of the preceding day. How much penalty should the contractor pay if he delays the work by 10 days? 72
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(a) Rs. 4950 (b) Rs. 4250 (c) 3600 (d) 650 Clearly, the penalty charges increases in a similar fashion i.e. Arithmetic Progression (AP) with first term as 200 and increasing Common difference of 50 Number of terms are 10 So, sum of these terms will be = (2*a+(n-1)d)n/2 =4250 (Option 'b' is correct). 38. Consider the figure given below and answer the item
that follows: In the figure shown above, OP1 and OP2 are two plane mirrors kept perpendicular to each other. S is the direction of a beam of light falling on the mirror OP1. The direction of the reflected beam of light from the mirror OP2 will be (a) Perpendicular to the direction S. (b) At 450 to the direction S. (c) Opposite and parallel to the direction S. (d) At 600 to the direction S.
The sum of opposite interior angles = (90-a)+(90-a)+(a)+(a) =180. Hence both line are parallel. (Option 'c' is correct). 39. Consider the following figure and answer the item that
follows: What is the minimum number of different colours required to paint the figure given above such that no two adjacent regions have the same colour? (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 The maximum boxes surrounding any element in given diagram = 4 hence at least three colors would be required to achieve the asked condition (Option 'a' is correct). AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
40. Consider the following figure and answer the item that
follows: A square is divided into four rectangles as shown above. The lengths of the sides of rectangles are natural numbers. The areas of two rectangles are indicated in the figure. What is the length of each side of the square? (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 15 (d) Cannot be determined as the given data are insufficient 15= 1*15 48= 48*1 3*5 24*2 12*4 8*6 16*3 Therefore only possible combination comes out 3*5 and 8*6 and the side comes out to be 11. (Option 'b' is correct). 41. A person has only Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins with her. If the total number of coins that she has is 50 and the amount of money with her is Rs. 75, then the number of Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins are, respectively (a) 15 and 35 (b) 35 and 15 (c) 30 and 20 (d) 25 and 25 According to question, Total no. of coins=50 Let Re1 coin be x Let Rs2 coin be y x+y=50 x+2y=75 which gives x=25 and y=25. Option 'd' is correct. 42. Three persons start walking together and their steps measure 40 cm, 42 cm and 45 cm respectively. What is the minimum distance each should walk so that each can cover the same distance in complete steps? (a) 25 m 20 cm (b) 50 m 40 cm (c) 75 m 60 cm (d) 100 m 80 cm The concept behind this question is that we need to find out a minimum number which is multiple of 40, 42 and 45. Therefore LCM of three no. will give the solution i.e. LCM(42, 45, 40)= 2520cm=25 m 20cm. Option 'a' is correct. 43. If a bus travels 160 km in 4 hours and a train travels 320 km in 5 hours at uniform speeds, then what is the ratio of the distances travelled by them in one hour? (a) 8:5 (b) 5:8 (c) 4:5 (d) 1:2 Ratio of their distance = (distance travelled by bus)/ (distance travel by train) =160/256 = 5/8. Hence option 'b' is correct. 44. There are 100 students in a particular class. 60% students play cricket, 30 per cent student play football and 10% students play both the games. What is the number of students who play neither cricket nor football? (a) 25 (b) 20 73
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(c) 18 (d) 15 option 'b' is correct. 45. A village having a population of 4000 requires 150 litres of water per head per day. It has a tank measuring 20 m x 15 m x 6 m. The water of this tank will last for (a) 2 days (b) 3 days (c) 4 days (d) 5 days Total volume = lXbXh = 320 m × 15 m × 6 m = 1800 m3 / 1800000 liters Per day water consumption = 4000 × 150 lit = 600000 lit Number of days required to empty the whole tank = 1800000/600000= 3 days. Hence Option 'b' is correct. Directions for the following 4 (four) items: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only. Passage A species that exerts an influence out of proportion to its abundance in an ecosystem is called a keystone species. The keystone species may influence both the species richness of communities and the flow of energy and materials through ecosystems. The sea star Pisaster ochraceus, which lives in rocky intertidal ecosystems on the Pacific coast of North America, is also an example of a keystone species. Its preferred prey is the mussel Mytilus californianus. In the absence of sea stars, these mussels crowd out other competitors in a broad belt of the intertidal zone. By consuming mussels, sea star creates bare spaces that are taken over by a variety of other species. A study at the University of Washington demonstrated the influence of Pisaster on species richness by removing sea stars from selected parts of the intertidal zone repeatedly over a period of five years. Two major changes occurred in the areas from which sea stars were removed. First, the lower edge of the mussel bed extended farther down into the intertidal zone, showing that sea stars are able to eliminate mussels completely where they are covered with water most of the time. Second and more dramatically, 28 species of animals and algae disappeared from the sea star removal zone. Eventually only Mytilus, the dominant competitor, occupied the entire substratum. Through its effect on competitive relationships, predation by Pisaster largely determines which species live in these rocky intertidal ecosystems. 46. What is the crux of the passage/ (a) Sea star has a preferred prey. (b) A preferred prey determines the survival of a keystone species. (c) Keystone species ensures species diversity. (d) Sea star is the only keystone species on the Pacific coast of North America. Option 'c' is correct. AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
47. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements: 1. Mussels are generally the dominant species in intertidal ecosystems. 2. The survival of sea stars is generally determined by the abundance of mussels. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Option 'd' is correct. 48. Which of the following is/are implied by the passage? 1. Mussels are always hard competitors for sea stars. 2. Sea stars of the Pacific coast have reached the climax of their evolution. 3. Sea stars constitute an important component in the energy flow in intertidal ecosystem. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only Clearly 1 and 3 are true and hence option'd' is correct. 49. Consider the following assumptions: 1. The food chains/food web in an ecosystem are influenced by keystone species. 2. The presence of keystone species is a specific characteristic of aquatic ecosystems. 3. If the keystone species is completely removed from an ecosystem, it will lead to the collapse of the ecosystem. With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Option 1 and 3 are correct. Hence option 'c' is correct. 50. Consider the following argument: “In order to be a teacher one must graduate from college. All poets are poor. Some mathematicians are poets. No college graduate is poor.” (a) Some mathematicians are not teachers. (b) Some teachers are not mathematicians. (c) Teachers are not poor.
(d) Poets are not teachers. option 'b' is appropriate. 51. A student on her first 3 tests received an average score of N points. If she exceeds her previous average score by 20 points on her fourth test, then what is the average score for the first 4 tests? (a) N+20 (b) N+10 (c) N+4 (d) N+5 Total score after 4 test would be 3N+N+20. Average would be N+5. Hence 'd' is the correct option. 52. In a group of persons, 70 per cent of the persons are 74
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male and 30 per cent of the persons are married. If twosevenths of the males are married, what fraction of the females is single? (a) 2/7 (b) 1/3 (c) 3/7 (d) 2/3 Let us assume 100 persons. 70 will be male and 30 will be female. Out of male two seventh are marries i.e. = 20. Total married persons are 30 implies 10 females are married. So, fraction of unmarried females = 2/3. Hence 'd' is the correct option 53. The houses of A and B face each other on a road going north-south, A’s being on the western side. A comes out of his house, turns left, travels 5 km, turns right, travels 5 km to the front of D’s house. B does exactly the same and reaches the front of C’s house. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct? (a) C and D live on the same street (b) C’s house faces south
(c) The houses of C and D are less than 20 km apart. (d) None of the above option 'c' is the correct one Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read each of the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. Passage-1 Ecosystems provide people with a variety of goods and services; food, clean water, clean air, flood control, soil stabilization, spirtitual fulfilment and aesthetic enjoyment, to name just a few. Most of these benefits either are irreplaceable or the technology necessary to replace them is prohibitively expensive. For example, potable fresh water can be provided by desalinating sea-water, but only at great cost. The rapidly expanding human population has greatly modified the Earth’s ecosystems to meet their increased reqirements of some of the goods and services, particularly food, fresh water, timber, fibre and fuel. These modifications have contributed substantially to human well being and economic development. The benefits have not been equally been harmed by these changes. moreover, short-term increases in some ecosystem goods and services have come at the cost of the long-term degradation of others. For example, efforts to increase the production of food and fibre have decreased the ability of some ecosystems to provide clean water, regulate flooding and support biodiversity. 54. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements. Expanding human population has an adverse effect on: AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
1. Spirtual fulfilment 2. Aesthetic enjoyment 3. Potable fresh water 4. Production of food and fibre. 5. Biodiversity. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 4 and 5 only (c) 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Option 'c' is correct. 55. The passage mentions that “some people have actually been harmed by these changes”. What does it imply? 1. The rapid expansion of population has adversely affected some people. 2. Sufficient efforts have not been made to increase the production of food and fibre. 3. In the short term some people may be harmed, but in the long term everyone will benefit from modifications in the Earth’s ecosystems. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) None of the statements given above Option 'a' is correct. 56. With reference to the passage consider the following statements: 1. It is imperative to modify the Earth’s ecosystems for the well being of mankind. 2. Technology can never replace all the goods and services provided by ecosystem. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Option 'c' is correct Passage-2 A moral act must be our own act; must spring from our own will. If we act mechanically, there is no moral content in our act. Such action would be moral, if we think it proper to act like a machine and do so. For, in doing so, we use our discrimination. We should bear in mind the distinction between acting mechanically and acting intentionally. It may be moral of a king to pardon a culprit. But the messenger carrying out the order of pardon plays only a mechanical part in the king’s moral act. But if the messenger were to carry out the king’s order considering it to be his duty, his action would be a moral one. How can a man understand morality who does not use his own intelligence and power of thought, but lets himself be swept along like a log of wood by a current? Sometimes a man defies convention and acts on his own with a view to absolute good. 57. Which of the following statements best describe/ describes the thought of the writer? 1. A moral act calls for using our discretion. 2. Man should react to a situation immediately. 3. Man must do his duty. 4. Man should be able to defy convention in order to be moral. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 Option 'd' is appropriate. 58. Which of the following statements is the nearest 75
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definition of moral action, according to the writer? (a) It is a mechanical action based on official orders from superiors. (b) It is an action based on our sense of discretion. (c) It is a clever action based on the clarity of purpose. (d) It is a religious action based on understanding. Option 'b' is correct. 59. The pasage contains a statement “lets himself be swept along like a log of wood by a current”. Among the following statements, which is/are nearest in meaning to this? 1. A person does not use his own reason. 2. He is susceptible to influence/pressure. 3. He cannot withstand difficulties/challenges. 4. He is like a log of wood. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 Option 'b' is correct. 60. Consider the following distance-time graph. The graph shows three athletes A, B and C running side by side for a 30 km race. With reference to the above graph, consider the following
(c) 9 Option 'c' is correct.
(d) 10
62. Study the following figures: A person goes from A to B always moving to the right or downwards along the lines. How many different routes can be adopt? Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7 Option ‘c’ is correct 63. Consider the following figure and answer the item that
statements: 1. The race was won by A. 2. B was ahead of A up to 25 km mark. 3. C ran very slowly from the beginning. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 It is clear from the graph that the distance covered by B is more than when taken same time. Also, A crossed B after 25 and come first. Therefore, 1 and 2 statement is correct while C was fastest of all and later it stops and never reached to destination. Therefore option 'b' is correct.
61. Consider the following figures: What is the missing number? (a) 7 (b) 8 AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
follows: What is the total number of triangles in the above grid? (a) 27 (b) 26
(c) 23 76
(d) 22 Civil Services
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Option 'c' is correct. Directions for the following 9 (nine) items: The following nine items (Questions 64 to 72) are based on three passages in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these items do not have Hindi version. Read each passage and answer the items that follow. Passage-I He walked several miles that day but could not get anything to eat or drink except some dry bread and some water, which he got from cottagers and farmers. As night fell, he slept under a haystack lying in a meadow. He felt frightened at first, for the wind blew awfully over the expty field. He felt cold and hungry, and was feeling more lonely than he had ever felt before. He, however, soon fell asleep, being much tired with his long walk. When he got up next day, he was feeling terribly hungry so he purchased a loaf of bread with a few coins that he had. 64. When the night fell, he slept (a) in the open field (b) under a pile of dry grass (c) in a farmer’s cottage (d) under a tree In the passage the location at which person slept is given by 'under a Haystack' . Hence Option 'b' is correct. 65. He soon fell asleep because (a) he was exhausted (b) he was all alone (c) he had not slept for days (d) he was very frightened 'much tired with his long walk' implies he was exhausted in a felt asleep Option 'a' is correct one. 66. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements: 1. He was walking through the countryside. 2. The cottagers and farmers gave him enough food so that he could sleep at night without feeling hungry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2nd statement does not imply by any statement in the passage. Therefore only 1st statement is correct. Hence option 'a' is correct. Passage-II I opened the bag and packed the boots in; and then, just as I was going to close it, a horrible idea occurred to me. Had I packed my toothbrush? I don’t know how it is, but I never do know whether I’ve packed my toothbrush. My toothbrush is a thing that haunts me when I’m travelling, and makes my life a misery. I dream that I haven’t packed it, and wake up in a cold perspiration, and get out of bed and hunt for it. And, in the morning, I pack it before I have used it, and it is always the last thing I turn out of the bag; and then repack and forget it, and have to rus upstairs for it at the last moment and carry it to the railway station, wrapped in my pocket-handkerchief. 67. When he was going to close the bag, the idea that occurred to him was (a) unpleasant (b) sad (c) fantistic (d) amusing Idea as per passage is given by the term 'horrible' which implies unpleasant idea . Option 'a' is correct. 68. What makes his life miserable whenever he undertakes travelling? AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
(a) Going to railway station (b) Forgetting the toothbrush (c) Packing his bag (d) Bad dreams Option 'b’ is correct. 69. His toothbrush is finally (a) in his bag (b) in his bed (c) in his handkerchief (d) lost Last line indicates that option 'c' is correct. Passage-III In spring, polar bear mothers emerge from dens with three month old cubs. The mother bear has fasted for as long as eight months but that does not stop the young from demanding full access to her remaining reserves. If there are triplets, the most persistent stands to gain an extra meal and it may have the meal at the expense of others. The smallest of the litter forfeits many meals to stronger siblings. Females are protective of their cubs but tend to ignore family rivalry over food. In 21 years of photographing polar bears, I’ve only once seen the smallest of triplets survive till autumn. 70. Female polar bears give birth during (a) spring (b) summer (c) autumn (d) winter Option 'd' is correct one. By spring, cubs were 3 months old hence they born in winter. 71. Mother bear (a) takes sides over cubs (b) lets the cubs fend for themselves (c) feeds only their favourites (d) sees that all cubs get an equal share Option 'b' is correct. 72. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Polar bears fast as long as eight months due to nonavailability of prey. 2. Polar bears always give birth to triplets. Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Statement 1 and 2 is not correct and has no resemblance with the passage. Hence option 'd' is correct. Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Given below are eight items. Each item describes a situation and is followed by four possible responses. Indicate the response you find most appropriate. Choose only one response for each item. The responses will be evaluated based on the level of appropriateness for the given situation. Please attempt all the items. There is no penalty for wrong answers for these eight items. 73. You have been asked to give an explanation for not attending an important official meeting. Your immediate boss who has not informed you about the meeting is now putting pressure on you not to place an allegation against him/her. You would (a) send a written reply explaining the fact. (b) seek an appointment with the top boss to explain the situation. (c) admit your fault to save the situation. 77
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(d) put the responsibility on the coordinator of the meeting for not informing. Option 'b' looks more prominent for me and my immediate boss. 74. A local thug (bad element) has started illegal construction on your vacant plot. He has refused your request to vacate and threatened you of dire consequences in case you do not sell the property at a cheap price to him. You would (a) sell the property at a cheap price to him. (b) go to the police for necessary action. (c) ask for help for your neighbours. (d) negotiate with the goon to get a higher price. Option 'b' looks best among others as a responsible citizen I must fight against any illegal activity happening around or with me. 75. You have to accomplish a very important task for your Headquarters within the next two days. Suddenly you meet with an accident. Your office insists that you complete the taks. You would (a) ask for an extension of deadline (b) inform Headquarters of your inability to finish on time (c) suggest alternate person to Headquarters who may do the needful (d) stay away till you recover Option 'a' is better because it says that I am not running of my responsibility. 76. You are an officer-in-charge for providing basic medical facilities to the survivors of an earthquake affected area. Despite your best possible effort, people put allegations against you for making money out of the funds given for relief. You would (a) let an enquiry be set up to look into the matter (b) ask your senior to appoint some other person in your place (c) not pay attention to allegations (d) stop undertaking any initiative to the matter is resolved Option 'a' and 'c' are good and one can choose any one according to his nature. But combination of both would be good. 77. You have been made responsible to hire boats at a short notice to be used for an area under flood. On seeing the price mentioned by the boat owners you found that the
lowest price was approximately three times more than the approved rate of the Government. You would (a) reject the proposal and call for a fresh price. (b) accept the lowest price. (c) refer the matter to the Government and wait (d) threaten the boat owners about a possible cancellation of the licence Option 'd' is correct. 78. You are the officer-in-charge of a village administering distribution of vaccine in an isolated epidemic hit village, and you are left with only one vaccine. There is a requirement of that vaccine from the Gram Pradhan and also a poor villager. You are being pressurised by the Gram Pradhan to issue the vaccine to him. You would (a) initiate the procedure to expedite the next supply without issuing the vaccine to either. (b) arrange vaccine for the poor villager from the distributor of another area. (c) ask both to approach a doctor and get an input about the urgency. (d) arrange vaccine for the Gram Pradhan from the distributor of another area. Option 'c' is appropriate. 79. You have taken up a project to create night-shelters for homeless people during the winter season. Within a week of establishing the shelters, you have received complaints from the residents of the area about the increase in theft cases with a demand to remove the shelters. You would (a) ask them to lodge a written complaint in the police station (b) assure residents of an enquiry into the matter (c) ask residents to consider the humanitarian effort made (d) continue with the project and ignore their complaint Option 'b' would help people and avoid any panic. 80. You, as an administrative authority, have been approached, by the daughter-in-law of an influential person regarding harassment by her in-laws on account of insufficient dowry. Her parents are not able to approach you because of social pressure. You would (a) call the in-laws for an explanation. (b) counsel the lady to adjust, given such a circumstance. (c) take action after her parents approach you (d) ask her to lodge a complaint with the police. Option 'd' would definitely provide her some relief.
STRATEGY FOR SOLVING CSAT Aptitude is the main difference between Intelligence and Knowledge With the aim of moving towards a uniform examination concept and selecting a diversified portfolio of intellectuals, the UPSC, recommended to the government that a Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT) replacing the existing Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination be introduce at the screening level for the coveted ICS Examination. The digression of the Civil Services Prelims from a purely knowledge based exam to the present aptitude based exam reflects the urgent need to select officers not just with a greater aptitude but also with the aptitude specific to civil services. AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
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If on one hand General Mental Ability continues with its time tested run in the prelims, we have Decision making which has appeared in a novel manner to check specific aptitude for the civil services. Basic numeracy, on the other hand, is a regular feature of every aptitude test. The emphasis will be on testing the aptitude of the candidate for the demanding life in the civil service and on the ethical and moral dimensions of decision-making. The upcoming scheme will have the advantages of 1. Testing a candidate’s decisionmaking skills and aptitude for the civil Civil Services
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services; and 2. Providing a level playing field for all the aspirants since all the candidates will have to attempt two common objective-type papers. CAT + SOCIAL = CSAT CAT aims: to test whether a student has the aptitude / potential to become a manager in the corporate world and to test whether a student will be able to handle the academic rigours of a demanding course, a Masters in Business Administration or a Post Graduate Diploma in Business Management CSATaims: check different disciplines which requires a different set of abilities and attitude, so the CSAT is an entirely different exam. It definitely captures a bigger basket of profile both in terms of number and variety. A lot of practice is required to do well in this paper and the readers are advised not to look at the solution of the problem if they are not getting a clue to solve it, instead attempt the question at least twice before looking at the solution. This will help in the development of their aptitude in solving a new question. Also, one should learn the techniques to solve the questions from the given options or try to solve the questions by eliminating the options. CSAT Elements: 1. Data Interpretation 2. Quantitative/Basic Numeracy 3. Logical Reasoning 4. Decision making/Critical Reasoning
Strategy is based on both CSAT 2011 as well as predictions for the future CSATs Examples of all genres of all sections are considered, for ready reference Never keep CSAT sample paper or the CSAT 2011 as the BENCHMARK, it’s just the BASIS for preparation of CSAT DATA INTERPRETATION Outline Data Interpretation consists of two
sections viz. Data Interpretation andData Sufficiency. It is easily the most scoring section of any exam - if the fundamentals are in place. Data Interpretation:This part has questions based on data represented in the form of tables, bar graphs, line graphs, pie charts, combinational graphs etc and students are required to analyze the data and solve the questions in context to the data given. In all these type of we have to do mathematical calculations, interpret graphs and apply logic to find the answer. Information presented could be in the form of Data table, Bar graphs, Line Graphs, Pie Charts, and Histograms etc. Students who are good at heavy mental calculation are at an advantage as it is one of the keys for doing well in this section. This section tests the students’ skills in Percentage calculation, Profit and Loss Analysis, and Ratio Proportion. Data Sufficiency:In this section a question is followed by two statements and you will be expected to answer whether the information provided in the statements individually or collectively is sufficient to answer the question. The mathematical knowledge and skill required to solve Data Sufficiency problems is no greater than that required to solve standard aptitude problems. What make Data Sufficiency problems appear more difficult at first are the complicated directions. But once one becomes familiar with the directions, one finds these problems no harder than
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CSAT 2011 Analysis Section No. of Questions Quantitative 18 Reading Comprehensions 36 Data Interpretation 09 Reasoning 08 Logical Reasoning 09
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standard aptitude problems. Also, Data Sufficiency problems give a lot of scope of elimination of options, so these problems are worth attempting. Data sufficiency questions are based on the same topics that one has studied in Basic Numeracy. The student has to tick one of the five options for the answer (could be different): • If answer can be derived from Answer key A- then answer is A. • If answer can be derived from Answer key B - then answer is B. • If answer can be derived from both A and B independently- then answer will be C. • If answer can be derived from a combination of A and B - then answer is D. • If answer cannot be derived from any of the options, then the answer is E. Caution: 1. Make sure that you read the instructions before answering, otherwise there is loss of both time and marks 2. Make sure that the solution does yield a same answer with both the answer keys; it could be different in both the cases. Strategy for DATA INTERPRETATION The ability to interpret data presented in tables, graphs and charts is a common requirement in many management and professional jobs. If you are applying for a job which involves analysis of or decisionmaking based on numerical data then you can expect to have to answer data interpretation questions. Civil Services
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Data interpretation problems usually require two basic steps. First, you have to read a chart or graph in order to obtain certain information. Then you have to apply or manipulate the information in order to obtain an answer. These questions often use very specific illustrations, for example the question may present financial data. However, an understanding of finance will not be needed to answer the question. DI is all about how fast you can comprehend the given data and how fast and accurately you are able to add, multiply subtract, divide and calculate ratios and percentages. How to read graphs / tables: (i) Graph name (Labels / Units): In both tables as well as graphs the first focus must be LABELS like population, ages, year etc. Many data insufficient question are tackled by correct label verification only. Mentally categorize each graph, chart and table liketrend in the price of gas per gallon over the course of one year. Please do not just skip the statistics entirely and go straight to the question. While manyaspirants may think this will save you time, it actually significantly decreases your accuracy. Data Interpretation questions are like an open-book test. You wouldn’t skip a Reading Comp passage, so don’t skip the data. Make sure you read every tiny piece of writing on or near the data, including titles, the labels for the x and y-axes,column names, and even footnotes.Scroll down to make sure you’ve caught everything. Once you understand the labels, take special care to note the units (mph, m/ sec, cm2, etc.). Are we dealing with seconds, minutes, or hours? Does one graph represent the month of June, while the other graph represents the entire year? The units may change from graph-to-graph or chart-to-table. Especially note anygiven information about percentages, as DI questions frequently require you to work with percents and raw numbers. Additionally, one must look into any factor like thousand or hundred (‘000 , Hundreds etc.) (ii) Trends:The most common mistake is that many aspirants convert GRAPH back into DATA and then go into the loop of heavy mathematical
calculations. All this finally result into loss of time and high probability of incorrect answer. Ideally a graph is prepared to decrease the load of too many numbers.Graphs and charts show the relationship of numbers and quantities in visual form. By looking at a graph, you can see at a glance the relationship between two or more sets of information. If such information were presented in written form, it would be difficult to read or understand. Hence it is suggested to start interpreting the graphs or its trends directly instead of going into the theme of numbers. Quickly note the relationship between the variables in eachtable, chart, or graph. Do they have a direct or indirect correlation? Where does the data spike or significantly decrease? (iii) Correlating Question with graph/ data: Make sure that you link the question to the data correctly. The most common mistake on DI questions is using the wrong data. Make sure you understand what the question is asking, then stop and consider which table, graph, or chart provides the information you’ll need to solve for the correct answer. Harder DI questions will require you to use more than one statistic. Don’t rush through this step. The questions may be multi-step, so look closely for key phrases in the question that refer to the labels you carefully studied in Step i. (iv) Prediction (Tukka): If we start calculating the probability of any random guess, then it would be surely ¼. In order to improve this number to 1 or at least 1/2, solving the question fully is not the only way. The same could be achieved by eliminating or predicting an approx answer. You may be able to approximate an answer by rounding off numbers for certain questions. Make sure to be consistent in how you approximate, and only do so if the answer choices are far enough apart that estimation is prudent. Points to remember 1. Read carefully and accurately: Practice makes a man perfect. This is no short trick or strategy for this. (Use graphs from any Year books, prepare questions randomly on your own and then enjoy data interpretation)
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2. Read the footnotes or the legends of the graphs and tables properly. Some people assume that the graphs and figures in the question paper are drawn to scale but this may not be the case. 3. Check the range of the options given. You may round off the data for calculations depending upon how far the choices are from each other. 4. Check the labels and units required. Be sure that your answer is in thousands, millions or whatever the question calls for. 5. In questions related to years take special care to year ranges. 6. Improve your calculation speed specially for calculation of averages and percentages. 7. Spend some time on analysis on what kind of mistakes you usually make and try to improve on these areas. For Data sufficiency questions you don’t have to actually solve the answers, you just need to find if the data given is enough to solve the questions. NOTE for Arithmophobia (Math phobia): You don’t need to have studied mathematics to a high level to succeed. These questions are primarily tests of interpretation and the math needed is invariably straightforward.You should also try to work through a few numerical computation practice papers to get back into swing of these types of calculation. REAL WORLD Now, it’s the time to use the above strategies and your intellect, to solve some real time data interpretation problems. Examples of different genres are given so that there is no surprise package during exam time. The reading comprehension section of the CSAT can be tricky to solve by the candidates. This section has been introduced to check the abilities of the candidates to understand, comprehend, and their reading speed. There are three basic principles of reading comprehension that need to be understood by the aspirants of the ICS. Civil Services
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Data / Table Segments
Manufacturing Banking/Finance/ Insurance IT / Telecom Services Transportation Govt / PSU Utilities Others
Fully compliant (in %)
Partially compliant (in %)
Noncompli- (%) (N=) ant (in %)
54 74
24 12
21 12
100 100
202 72
60 48 53 55 51 43
15 23 11 26 29 37
24 29 34 18 19 23
100 100 100 100 100 100
58 58 18 09 09 22
Line graph Direction for questions 7 to 9:
Note: N indicates sample size for each segment
Answer Q1 to Q6 based on following information: Y2K compliance by market segments 1. How many companies in India is Y2K non-compliant? (a) 97 (b) 98 (c) 99 (d) Cannot be determined 2. The number of transportation companies that are fully compliant is what percentage of those that are noncompliant? (a) 119 per cent (b) 139 per cent (c) 156 per cent (d) 171 per cent 3. Besides manufacturing, which segment has the highest number of surveyed companies partially Y2K compliant? (a) Utilities (b) Services (c) Others (d) Govt/PSU 4. By December 31, 1999; 60 per cent of the partially compliant and 10% of non-compliant companies of the sample size become fully compliant. How many companies in the sample size are still not Y2K compliant? (a) 125 (b) 131 (c) 147 (d) Cannot be determined 5. In percentage terms of compliance, which segment has the same rank in both, full as well as partial compliance? (a) Manufacturing (b) Govt/PSU (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) No such segment 6. In how many segments are more than 10 companies that are fully compliant? (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) Cannot be determined SOLUTION / Hints: 1. We only know Y2K-compliance of the companies sampled not all companies in India. (Option D) 2. (Option C) 3. Services have 23 per cent of 58 companies which gives the highest number of companies. (Option C) 4. Partially compliant companies = 94 60 per cent become compliant; Remaining = 40 per cent of 94; Non – compliant companies = 97; 10 per cent become compliant; Remaining = 90 per cent of 97; Remaining 0.4 × 94 + 0.9 × 97 = 125 (Option A) 5. Manufacturing has 4th rank in both categories. Govt/ PSU has 3rd rank in both categories. (Option C) 6. We do not know the total number of companies in each segment; we only know the sample size. (Option B) AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
Answer the questions based on the following information. Details of the leading openers A, B, C, D and E in 20 One Day International cricket matches are given. 7. What is the difference between the average runs of two openers with highest total runs, if matches having 0’s were ignored? (a) 4.7 (b) 13.7 (c) 1.1 (d) None of these 8. Excluding the match with the highest runs and matches with 50-99 runs, what will be the approximate average runs for opener B? (a) 25 (b) 15 (c) 10 (d) Data insufficient 9. Which of the following pairs of openers have a ratio of 3 : 2 in their highest runs? (a) B and D (b) B and C (c) A and D (d) D and C SOLUTION / Hints: 7. (Option B) 8. Without knowing the individual runs of opener B, we cannot find the average runs. (Option D) 9. B and D — 130 : 94; B and C — 130 : 52 A and D — 141 : 94 = 3 : 2; D and C — 94 : 52 (Option C) Pie Chart Direction for questions 10 to 14:
Answer the questions based on the following pie charts. Field wise breakup of IAS aspirants 10. If the total no. of aspirants in a 2009 is 2, 56,300; considering the stream and age breakup remains same in that year. Which stream has highest no. of young aspirants 81
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(<25 years)? (a) Arts (b) Science (c) Commerce (d) None of the above 11. If the total no. of aspirants in year 2010 is 2, 95,000; then which stream has the highest growth % from 2009 to 2010? (Use data from Q1) (a) Engineering (b) Medical (c) Can’t be predicted (d) Could be predicted, but none of the above 12. Which age group constitutes the major portion of total aspirants in the year 2010? (Use data from Q1 and Q2) (a) Age <25 (b) Age>35 (c) 25
35 (d) Science, 25 256300 (d) 2009, only if aspirants @ 2010 < 256300 Solution / Hints: 10. For maximum fraction of young aspirants in 2009, (Stream% x Age%) should be maximum: Commerce: 23x45 = 1035; Science: 21x31 = 651; Arts: 30x34 = 1020; Engineering: 15x39 = 585; Medical: 11x21 = 231 Hence, Commerce i.e. Option C. 11. For growth rate, absolute no. of aspirants is required of
all the branches:Hence, Medical i.e. Option B AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
12. For no. of aspirants in each age group, (Stream% x Age%) is required: Age<25: 31x23 + 34x29 + 21x16 + 39x13 + 45x19 = 3397 2535: 52x23 + 25x29 + 35x16 + 28x13 + 11x19 = 3054 Hence, (25
The following bar chart is given for the number of drugs getting off patent from the period 1999-2013. 15. In which of the following options the number of drugs going off patent is equal? (a) 2004-07, 2001-04, 2002-05 (b) 2005-08, 1999-2002, 2000-03 (c) 2004-07, 2000-03, 2002-05 (d) 1999-2002, 2000-03, 2002-05 16. What is the average number of drugs going off patent from 1999 to 2013 (approximately)? (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 17. In which five-year period did the minimum number of drugs go off patent? (a) 2008-2012 (b) 2009-2013 (c) 2006-2010 (d) None of these SOLUTION / Hints: 15. 29 drugs are going off patent in the period of 1999-2002 2000-03; 2002 05 (Option D) 16. (Option C) 17. 11 drugs going off patent between 2009-13(Option B) Data Sufficiency Direction for questions 18 to 27: Each question is followed by two statements, I and II. Mark the answer as (a) if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements taken together. (b) if the question can be answered by any one of the two statements. (c) if each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question, but not the other one (e.g. statement I alone is required to answer the question, but not statement II and 82
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vice versa). (d) if both statements I and II together are needed to answer the question. 18. A tractor travelled a distance 5 m. What is the radius of the rear wheel? I. The front wheel rotates ‘N’ times more than the rear wheel over this distance. II. The circumference of the rear wheel is‘t’ times that of the front wheel. 19. What is the ratio of the two liquids A and B in the mixture finally, if these two liquids kept in three vessels are mixed together? (The containers are of equal volume.) I. The ratio of liquid A to liquid B in the first and second vessel is 3 : 5, 2 : 3 respectively. II. The ratio of liquid A to liquid B in vessel 3 is 4 : 3. 20. If a, b and c are integers, is (a – b + c) > (a + b – c)? I. b is negative. II. c is positive. 21. If a and b are the roots of a quadratic equation, then what is the value of (a2 + b2)? I. a + b = -(b/a) II. 2ab = (c/a) 22. What is the cost price of the article? I. After selling the article, a loss of 25% on cost price is incurred. II. The selling price is three-fourths of the cost price. 23. What is the selling price of the article? I. The profit on sales is 20 per cent. II. The profit on each unit is 25 per cent and the cost price is Rs. 250. 24. How many different triangles can be formed? I. There are 16 coplanar, straight lines. II. No two lines are parallel. 25. What is the total worth of Lakhiram’s assets? I. A compound interest at 10 per cent on his assets, followed by a tax of 4 per cent on the interest, fetches him Rs. 1,500 this year. II. The interest is compounded once every four months. 26. How old is Sachin in 1997? I. Sachin is 11 years younger than Anil whose age will be a prime number in 1998. II. Anil’s age was a prime number in 1996. 27. What is the number of type-2 widgets produced, if the total number of widgets produced is 20,000? (Assume only type-1 and type-2 widgets are produced.) I. If the production of type-1 widgets increases by 10 per cent and that of type-2 decreases by 6 per cent, the total production remains the same. II. The ratio in which type-1 and type-2 widgets are produced is 2 : 1. SOLUTION / Hints: 18. None of the statements is useful in finding the radius of the rear wheel. In the question, distance travelled is given. But the number of rotations taken by it is not given. (Option A) 19. Given that containers are in equal volume, that does not mean that quantities in each container are in equal volumes. Since we do not know the quantity of the liquid, we cannot find the ratio of the final mixture. (Option A) 20. This question can be answered by using the two AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
statements. Given (a – b + c) > (a + b – c). It is nothing but is (–b + c) > (b – c). Since b is negative and c is positive, (–b + c) is always positive (b – c) is always negative. So always (a – b + c) > (a + b – c). (Option D) 21. (Option D) 22. Both the statements are telling the same, that selling price is 75 per cent of cost price. So we cannot determine the actual cost of the article. (Option A) 23. By using statement II we can determine the selling price of the article. Selling price = 1.25 × 250 = 312.5. But by using statement I we cannot determine the selling price. (Option C) 24. We cannot find the number of triangles formed from the given statement. (Option A) 25. Both the statements are needed to answer the questions. Since in statement I all the dates are given except the time to compound the interest. That date is given in the second statement. (Option D) 26. We cannot answer the question using both the statements. Given that Anil’s ages are prime numbers in 1998 and 1996. It is of difference 2. There are so many prime numbers with difference 2. They are (17, 19), (41, 43) . . . so on. So we cannot find out exact age of Sachin. (Option A) 27. (Option B) Quantitative This section in particular will differentiate between number lovers and the others. Quantitative section is the most daunting, and especially so for those who haven’t considered maths for a long time. However the mathematics asked is that up to 10th standard only. Engineering and Commerce aspirants being in touch with numbers and calculations very often will be a step ahead of others. Hence it is advised to the others to focus more on practicing quant questions more in order to become at par with respect to others. With passage of years the mathematical skills would have got rusty but would definitely not need learning from scratch. Questions in these questions do not need knowledge of formulas or any difficult Math skills. A difficult Maths question on which more students tend to make mistakes will not be difficult because of higher level Maths but will be difficult because of a twist or a trap in question due to fancy language. A candidate who has passed 10th standard knows more Maths than is needed by the CSAT. Structure Coming to major elements of Quant section, it is explained hereunder: 1. Numbers and their properties: It includes basic knowledge of various types of numbers such as rational, irrational numbers, prime number and their properties etc., Surds and Indices, Logarithms, Simplification questions based on BODMAS and basic formulas like (a + b)2 =a2+b2 +2ab etc., HCF and LCM, remainders, divisibility tests, Unit Digit etc. The questions relating to BODMAS, Surds and Indices, Logarithms, Divisibility Rules and HCF & LCM are the most important, so the students are advised to do a lot of practice of these questions. 2. Arithmetic: In this module topics like percentage and its properties ( Simple and Compound Interest), Ratio and Proportion and its properties (Partnership and Mixtures), 83
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Time Speed & Distance(Including concept of trains, boats & streams and clocks) and Time and Work, which also covers questions on Pipes and Cisterns, are present. Questions in this module are more scoring than rest of the others modules as they are easy to interpret and also there are very few concepts that one has to master to do well in these topics. 3. Algebra: This module contains Basics of polynomials, Linear equations on 2/3 variables, quadratic equations and Progressions (AP, GP & HP), Basics of Maxima & Minima. Till now algebra has not been asked in the General Mental Ability Section in the previous years, but still students are advised to go through the basics concepts of algebra. 4. Geometry: Geometry – Both two-dimensional and threedimensional. In geometry we have topics like basics of line, angles, triangles, quadrilateral, circles & their properties, Area and perimeter of various figures like triangle, quadrilateral, circle etc. and Volume of figures like cylinder, cone, sphere, hemisphere etc. Geometry questions have been asked in the previous year papers, so students should go through the basics theorems and the formulae to find the area and the volume of different figures. Questions where one has to find the shaded area are the most important from this module. 5. Modern Maths: It has topics like Permutation & Combinations, Probability and the basic logical aspect of set theory. Permutation and Combination is a very important topic from this module as in the past every year, one or two questions of moderate to high difficulty level were asked from this topic. The above categorization is based on mere mathematical genres, but for a competitive exam like CSAT, you must get acquainted with various types of problems in all sub section. Types of Questions If we further split the quant section question portfolio, then main topics would be as follows: • Ratios and Proportion- Arithmetic and fractional display problems on ratio and proportion. • Equations and Inequalities – Quadratic and linear equations. • Algebra – Questions based on algebraic expressions. • Profit & Loss – Arithmetical Problem Solving based on cost price, discounts, selling price, percentage profit, percentage loss. • Averages – problems like finding number of girls in a class wherein the average and other relevant data are given etc. • Percentages – Conventional questions on percentages. • Partnerships. • Time-Speed-Distance – Leave you with a typical timespeed-distance question: Two trains A and B start from two stations towards each other, speeds given, one of them have better speed than the other, also time they start are given, then calculate when or at what distance they meet. • Work and time – Questions like: A and B can do a work in ten days, A quits halfway, then in how many days can B do the same work? • Numbers – Complex Numbers, Fractions etc. • Progressions – Arithmetic Progression, Geometric Progression, Harmonic Progression, Arithmetico-geometric AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
Progression, Arithmetic/geometric/harmonic mean. • Mensuration and measurements. • Allegation and Mixtures. • Pipes and Cisterns. • Simple Interest and Compound Interest. • Set theory and Venn Diagrams. • Installments. • Clocks. • Probability. • Permutations & Combinations. • Expansions – Binomial Expansion. • Co-ordinate geometry. • Logarithm. •Maxima and Minima. Points to remember (1) Always look for a shortcut to crunching numbers—a more intuitive way of getting to the right answer. (2) The typical Problem Solving question is designed to allow for a longer way as well as a shorter way of solving it. So if you find yourself doing a lot of pencil work, then there’s probably an easier way. (3) Geometry figures are not necessarily drawn proportionately—unless a figure indicates explicitly that it is drawn to scale. So don’t rely on your eye to measure angle sizes, line segment lengths, or areas. Instead, use your knowledge of mathematics along with the numbers provided to solve the problem. (4) One must be prepared to brush up on the mental arithmetic as well as review the key concepts. REAL WORLD Problems of all sub categories are explained hereunder, for direct reference: 28. The price of the scenery is Rs. R1. A shopkeeper gives a discount of x% on R1 and reduces its price to R2. He gives a further discount of x% on the reduced price R2 to reduce it further to R3, which reduces it by Rs. 415. A customer bargains with him and takes an x% discount on R3 and buys the scenery for Rs. 3,362.8. Find the original price R1 of the scenery. (a) Rs. 5,349 (b) Rs. 4,213 (c) Rs. 4,488 (d) Rs. 4,613 29. If angles of a triangle are integers x, y and z and log (x × y × z) = 3 log x + 3 log 2 + 2 log 3, then the angles x, y and z are respectively (a) 30°, 80° and 70° (b) 10°, 80° and 90° (c) 40°, 60° and 80° (d) Cannot be determined 30. If x3+y2+3xy=125 and 27x3+y3+27x2y +9xy2=0, then find (x + y). (a) –10 (b) 100 (c) –5 (d) Data insufficient 31. There are 5 questions with 4 options each. Out of 4 options one is right and 3 are wrong. A right answer adds 1 mark, and one wrong answer deducts 1/4. What is the probability of getting a zero if all the questions are mandatory? (a) 1/6 (b) 81/256 (c) 405/1024 (d) None of these 32. In the following figure, CAD and CBE are straight lines. If CA is the diameter of the circle, find ∠ADE. (a) 90° (b) 110° 84
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(c) 45° (d) Data insufficient 33. Which of the following values of x do not satisfy the inequality (x2 – 3x + 2 > 0) at all? (a) 1<=x<=2 (b) -1>=x>=-2 (c) 0>=x>=-2 (d) 0=x>=-2 34. In a mile race, Akshay can be given a start of 128 m by Bhairav. If Bhairav can give Chinmay a start of 4 m in a 100 m dash, then who out of Akshay and Chinmay will win a race of one and half miles, and what will be the final lead given by the winner to the loser? (One mile is 1,600 m.) (a) Akshay, 1/12 mile (b) Chinmay, 1/32 mile (c) Akshay,1/24 mile (d) Chinmay, 1/16 mile 35. Two liquids A and B are in the ratio 5 : 1 in container 1 and 1 : 3 in container 2. In what ratio should the contents of the two containers be mixed so as to obtain a mixture of A and B in the ratio 1 : 1? (a) 2 : 3 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 3 : 4 36. The points of intersection of three lines 2X + 3Y – 5 = 0, 5X – 7Y + 2 = 0 and 9X – 5Y – 4= 0 (a) form a triangle (b) are on lines perpendicular to each other (c) are on lines parallel to each other (d) are coincident 37. If 5 men, 20 women and 40 boys can do a piece of work in 120 days, working 6 hrs each day. In how many days will 10 men, 10 women and 20 boys do another piece of work thrice as large as the first, working 9 hrs a day, if the amount of work done by each man, woman and boy is in the ratio 4 : 2 : 1? (a) 200 days (b) 250 days (c) 350 days (d) 300 days 38. At what time, between 9 o’clock and 10 o’clock will the hands of a clock be in the same straight line but not together? (a) 16 4/11mins past 9 (b) 13 4/11mins past 9 (c) 5 4/11mins past 9 (d) None of the above 39. A college has raised 75 per cent of the amount it needs for a new building by receiving an average donation of Rs. 600 from the people already solicited. The people already solicited represents 60 per cent of the people, the college will ask for donations. If the college is to raise exactly the amount needed for the new building, what should be the average donation from the remaining people to be solicited? (a) 200 (b) 300 (c) 350 (d) Data insufficient 40. 1,1,2,3,5,8,13,21,34,………., is known as Fibonacci series. Find the remainder on dividing 400th term by 3? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) None of these 41. The difference between compound interest and simple AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
interest for 3 years at 5 per cent per annum can be found out by multiplying the principal by: (a) 1.7625 (b) 0.7625 (c) 0.07625 (d) 0.007625 42. How many even numbers of four-digits can be formed with digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 (repetition of the digit is allowed)? (a) 648 (b) 180 (c) 1296 (d) 540 43. In a village consisting of p persons, x% can read and write. Of the male alone y% and of the females alone 2% can read and write. Find the number of males in the village in terms of p, x, y and z, if z < y: (a) p(x-z)/(y+x-z) (b) p(x-z)/(y+x-2z) (c) p(y-x)/(x-z) (d) p(x-z)/(y-z) Solution / Hints: 28. This question can be solved by eliminating the options. Let the discount be Rs. x, y and z. R1 – R2 = x; R2 – R3 = y = Rs. 415; R3 – R4 = z x > y > z; y is approximately the average of x + y + z ∴ Hence, the initial price in Rs. (approximately) 3362.8 + 3(415) = 4607.80 (Option D) 29. Since x + y + z = 180° 3 logx + 2 log3 + 3 log2 = 3 logx + log9 + log8 = log(x3 × 9 × 8); = log (x × 9x × 8x) If x = 10, then the angles are 10°, 80° and 90°. Option B. 30. x3 + y2 + 3xy = 125 ... Statement I Statement II 27x3 + y3 + 27x2y + 9xy2 =0 ... ⇒ (3x + y)3 = 0 ⇒ 3x + y = 0 ⇒ 3xy + y2 = 0 . ... Statement III Putting III in I, we get x3 = 125 ⇒x=5 ⇒ y = –3x = –15, Hence, x + y = 5 – 15 = –10. Option A. 31. Total number of possible combinations = 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 = 45 = 1024 To get a score of zero ’! 1 right and 4 wrong. Each question has 1 right and 3 wrong options. If right option is chosen from question number 1, then all the other questions should be wrong.
∴ Number of combinations = 1.3.3.3.3 = 81. This will work for all 5 questions
∴ Total number of favourable combinations= 5 × 81 = 405 So the required probability =405/1024 (Option C) 32. CA is a diameter ∠ABC=90° ABED is a cyclic quadrilateral ∴ ∠ABE + ∠ADE =180° ... (i); CBE is a straight line 4
∴ ∠ΑBE = 90° ... (ii); From (i) and (ii) ∴ ∠ADE = 90° (Option A) 33. If we simplify the expression x2 – 3x + 2 > 0, we get (x – 1)(x – 2) > 0. For this product to be greater than zero, either both the factors should be greater than zero or both of them should be less than zero. Therefore, (x – 1) > 0 and (x – 2) > 0 or (x – 1) < 0 and (x – 2) < 0. Hence, x > 1 and x > 2 or x < 1 and x < 2. If we were to club the ranges, we would get either x > 2 or x < 1. So for any value of x equal to or between 1 and 2, the above equation does not follow. (Option A) 34. In a mile race, Akshay can be given a start of 128 m by 85
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Bhairav. This means that Bhairav can afford to start after Akshay has travelled 128 m and still complete one mile with him. In other words, Bhairav can travel one mile, i.e. 1,600 m in the same time as Akshay can travel (1600 – 128) = 1,472 m. Hence, the ratio of the speeds of Bhairav and Akshay = Ratio of the distances travelled by them in the same time = 1600/1472= 25 : 23. Bhairav can give Chinmay a start of 4 m. This means that in the time Bhairav runs 100 m, Chinmay only runs 96 m. So the ratio of the speeds of Bhairav and Chinmay = 100/96= 25 : 24. Hence, we have B : A = 25 : 23 and B : C = 25 : 24. So A : B : C = 23 : 25 : 24. This means that in the time Chinmay covers 24 m, Akshay only covers 23 m. In other words, Chinmay is faster than Akshay. So if they race for 1.5 miles = 2,400 m, Chinmay will complete the race first and by this time Aksahy would only complete 2,300 m. In other words, Chinmay would beat Akshay by 100 m= 1/16 mile. (Option D) 35. (Option D) 36. (Option D) 37. W=120*6*[4x*5+2x*20+x*40] 3W=N*9*[4x*10+2x*10+x*20]. Hence option D. 38. Option A. 39. 300, option B. 40. Every 4th term of the Fibonacci sequence is divisible by three. Hence Option C. 41. (Option D) 42. Unit’s place be filled in 3 ways (i.e. by 2 or 4 or 6). Each of three remaining places (i.e. ten’s hundred’s and thousand’s) can be filled in 6 ways (Q repetition is allowed) 4" Reqd. no. of nos. = 6 × 6 × 6 × 3 = 648 (Option A) 43. (Option D) Reading Comprehension The reading comprehension section of the CSAT can be tricky to solve by the candidates. This section has been introduced to check the abilities of the candidates to understand, comprehend, and their reading speed. There are three basic principles of reading comprehension that need to be understood by the aspirants of the ICS. (a) The candidates need to be sensitive to the issues of topic, scope, and author’s purpose and structure, and to the author’s voice. (b) The candidates should foremost try and get the gist of the each paragraph of the passage and look for the main idea. (c) The candidates should not obsess over details given in the passage. The typical types of passages that the candidates should expect to be asked in coming years by the UPSC: (a)Social studies: passages contain information on history, government policies, economics, or sociology. (b) Humanities: passages contain information on art, literature, music, folklore, or philosophy. (c) Physical science: passages contain information on chemistry, physics, or astronomy. (d) Biological science: passages contain information on botany, medicine, or zoology. Broad Idea of the Questions that are Expected to be Asked from the Passage: (a) Foremost, the candidates can be asked questions from the main idea, main point, or possible title of the passage. (b) To make it easy for the candidates, questions can be asked from the information that is directly stated in the passage. (c) UPSC expects candidates to answer question regarding applications of the author’s opinions or AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
ideas. (d) Finally, the style or tone of the passage can also be converted into question format. The way to solve the questions: (a) Foremost, it is advised to the candidates that they should use the information stated in the passage; they should not develop or create their own information. The answer need to be searched within the passage. (b) Once the passage has been read and answer found the candidates should read all the choices again before choosing the final answer. (c) The passage is for finding the answer it’s not for memorizing, so the candidates are advised to memorize only the main point or purpose and the structure of the passage. Logical Reasoning Outline Logical Reasoning (LR) probably is the closest to the real life problems students would face in real world. Here questions can be based on a short passage, graphical or tabulated information or a cluster of conditions. This section measure a candidate’s ability to analyze a given structure of arbitrary relationships and deduce new information from that structure. Most problems give a variety of conditions and you have to choose the best hint or clue before starting to solve the problem. When practicing logic with reasoning making a chart or drawing a picture are good strategies. In terms of marks and time it’s a big gamble, because in case you hit the hidden concept right then you get a direct bonus of 3-4 questions. But in case, after reading whole passage and preparing a table, you are not able to hit the appropriate logic; then its not only loss of marks but also major time is lost. Basic conept of these type of questions is that don’t just read the paragraph. While reading it, try to deduce it down to paper, the thing which you are able to understand. After reading the paragraph you should have a pictorial view of what the paragraph has to say. If you have done this successfully than 90 per cent of your work is over. Just need to apply common sense to solve the questions. Structure Few important Topics of Logical reasoning and analytical ability includes • Family tree • Number problems • Logical Problems • Venn Diagrams • Pictorial puzzles • Letter and Symbol Series • Analogies • Logical Games Types of Questions i. Family tree • Generally questions are based on family tree along with criteria like age order, profession, habits etc. • Try to use your own special symbols for male/female, relationship etc. and make sure that you are comfortable with all the relationship tags • Always try to convert the language form into tabular format and then follow • Before working on the problem statement fully, make sure that you have a idea of questions asked. Because many a 86
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times only partial information can be inferred from given data, and only those things are asked. ii. Venn diagrams: • It’s just a pictorial aid to your arithmetic calculations • Generally question with simple 2 or 3 sets (circles) will appear (However a tough and tricky problem based on 4 sets is explained in following section). • Always try to convert any language problem with numbers included, into venn diagram. • Mostly a common situation is associated with many questions (2-4 questions) iii. Mathematical logic / Number-logic • This questions are based on finding unknown numbers, which follow a particular logic or mathematical relation • In order to solve these type of questions, a feel of basic numbers 1-9 is required • Always try to avoid any sort of bunch equations because if it’s a simple algebra question, then it’s ideal section is Quantitative and not Logical Reasoning • Going through options could be better option, sometimes. iv. Arrangement • Always try to convert the question data into pictorial image • Never neglect concept of direction (NEWS), left-right etc. It’s not the end, many question of totally new genre with a hit on logic are asked in CSAT. Tips / Points to remember Following is a long list of tips / caution to be taken care of, while solving LR questions. Try to remove the points in which you are already comfortable, and focus on the remaining ones. (a) LR questions appear lengthy as compared to DI sets as they typically offer more information in text. While reading them, one might feel a lot of time is wasted. Yet, it helps to understand every condition thoroughly before attempting the questions. You may need to revisit the conditions while solving questions. Consider it time utilized not wasted. (b) A common mistake students make is interpreting the given information incorrectly. The precise meaning of a statement should be understood for it to be used in conjunction with other statements correctly. For example, when referring to averages, “the average of the group reduces to” is not the same as “the average of the group reduces by” (c) Develop your own notations so that u can represent the problem using proper symbols , diagrams etc (d) Try elimination strategy where-ever possible (e) Try using Venn diagrams, wherever applicable (f) LR questions need to be solved with a particular line of thinking. You might know all the conditions necessary to solve the problems, but it is important to know which condition to use when and arrive at the solution in the minimum time possible. This is what we mean by intuitive thinking or the sixth sense that you need to develop to solve the questions. This comes only by practice. You can still develop it with fewer days in hand. (g) NEVER assume or use any data or information that the question fails to give you. This is NOT an assessment of how much you know about economics in general. Consider ONLY the information given in each reading passage when AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
choosing among the alternative responses. (h) Always give respect to common ‘D’ options like “Data insufficient” and “None of these” (i) Pay special attention to words like “all,” “some,” or “none” when you read the factual information each question gives you. Other qualifying words such as “other than,” “only” or “unless” are important, too. (j) Avoid making guesses or reading in a hurry as it would lead to decreased accuracy. (k) As far as possible do not attempt LR in the beginning. If you get the set wrong or if it is tough and takes more time, that would affect your performance subsequently. (l) And again the most important: Practice and practice more. There is no tip for that and no substitute either. Real World Information for questions 44 to 46: Everyday Miss Yadav, Miss Sharma, Miss Toppo and Miss Hussain go to a park for morning walk. One day, they reach the gate of the park at the same time and immediately start walking on the only circular track adjacent to the gate. Miss Yadav, Miss Toppo and Miss Hussain go on a clockwise direction while Miss Sharma goes anti-clockwise. Miss Hussain who is asthmatic is the slowest among the four and soon others move away from her. Like every day she could walk only one round taking almost the same time as others to complete their morning walk. After her walk Miss Hussain reads the following instruction written at the gate while others join her one after another. “Walkers are requested to use only the 500 m walking track. Plucking of flowers and leaves are strictly prohibited. The park will remain closed from 6 pm to 5 am.” While walking Miss Yadav overtakes Miss Hussain twice; once near the fountain and the other time at the signature rock. Miss Toppo and Miss Sharma cross her three times. 44. What is the total distance covered by Miss Sharma and Miss Toppo together? (a) 3500 m (b) 4000 m (c) 2500 m (d) 3000 m 45. How many times Miss Yadav and Miss Sharma cross each other on the track? (a) Twice (b) Three times (c) Four times (d) Five times 46. How many times Miss Toppo would overtake Miss Yadav? (a) Never (b) Once (c) Twice (d) Three times Answer Q47 to Q49 based on following information: You are locked inside a room with 6 doors - A, B, C, D, E, F. Out of which 3 are Entrances only and 3 are Exits only. One person came in through door F and two minutes later second person came in through door A. He said, “You will be set free, if you pass through all 6 doors, each door once only and in correct order. Also, door A must be followed by door B or E, door B by C or E, door C by D or F, door D by A or F, door E by B or D and door F by C or D.” After saying that they both left through door B and unlocked all doors. 47. Which door should be opened at first? (a) E (b) B (c) C (d) D 48. Which door should be opened at last? 87
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(a) E (b) B (c) C (d) D 49. Which of the following could be the correct order? (a) CFDABE (b) FCDBAE (c) CDFABE (d) None of these Answer Q50 to Q54 based on following information: Each of the five characters in the word BRAIN has a different value between 0 and 9. B R A I N 31 B B R B A 31 N I A B B 32 N I B A I 30 I R A AA 23 37 29 25 27 29 The numbers on the extreme right represent the sum of the values represented by the characters in that row. Also, the numbers on the last raw represent the sum of the values represented by the characters in that column.e.g. B + R + A + I + N = 31 (from first row) Match the following table:
Answer Q55 to Q59 based on following information: Mr. D’souza has bought four cars - Merc, Honda, Ford, Zen - as presents for his sons’ birthdays, all of which are next week. Alan will not get the Honda unless Barry gets the Merc and Denzil gets the Ford. Barry will not get the Ford unless Carl gets the Zen and Alan gets the Merc. Denzil will not get the Zen unless Alan gets the Honda and Barry gets the Merc. Alan will not get the Merc unless Carl gets the Zen and Denzil gets the Ford. Barry will not get the Merc unless Alan gets the Zen and Denzil gets the Ford. Alan will not get the Zen unless Barry gets the Honda and Carl gets the Merc. Carl will not get the Zen unless Barry gets the Honda and Alan gets the Ford. Alan will not get the Ford unless Barry gets the Zen and Denzil gets the Honda. Carl will not get the Merc unless Denzil gets the Honda. Match the following table.
Solution / Hints: 44. Given, Length of track = 500 m. Miss Yadav, Miss Toppo and Miss Hussaini run in the clockwise direction whereas Miss Sharma runs in the anti-clockAUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
wise direction. Miss Hussaini walked only one round in total. Since Miss Yadav overtakes Miss Hussaini twice and theyboth are walking in the same direction around the circulartrack, Miss Yadav would have walked 2 more rounds thanMissHussaini, i.e., 3 rounds. For the similar reason Miss Toppo would have covered 4 rounds. Miss Sharma and Miss Hussaini are walking in the oppositedirection and they crossed each other three times, Miss Sharmawouldhave covered two more rounds than Miss Hussaini, i.e.3 rounds. Total distance covered by Miss Sharma= 3× 500m = 1500 m; Total distance covered by Miss Toppo= 4× 500m = 2000 m; Hence the required answer is (1500 + 2000) m = 3500m. (Option A) 45. Since Miss Yadav and Miss Sharma have covered 3rounds each walking in the opposite direction the will cross each other twice for every round covered, but on the finish of the last round they will meet but will not cross each other. Hence they will cross each other five times on the track. (Option D) 46. Since Miss Toppo and Miss Yadav Have covered 4and 3 rounds respectively and walking in the same direction, Miss Toppo will overtake Miss Yadav once. (Option B) 47. It is given that one person came in through door F and second person came in through door A. It means that door A and door F are Entrances. Also, they both left through door B. Hence, door B is Exit. As Exit and Entrance should alter each other and we know two Entrances, let’s assume that the third Entrance is W. Thus, there are 6 possibilities with “_” indicating Exit. (1) _W_A_F (2) _W_F_A (3) _F_W_A (4) _F_A_W (5) _A_W_F (6) _A_F_W As door A must be followed by door B or E and none of them lead to the door F, (1) and (6) are not possible. Also, door D must be the Exit as only door D leads to the door A and door A is the Entrance. (2) _W_FDA (3) _F_WDA (4) _FDA_W (5) DA_W_F Only door D and door C lead to the door F. But door D is used. Hence, door C must be the Exit and precede door F. Also, the third Exit is B and the W must be door E. (2) BECFDA (3) CFBEDA (4) CFDABE (5) DACEBF But only door B leads to the door C and both are Exits. Hence, (2) and (5) are not possible. Also, door F does not lead to door B - discard (3). Hence, the possible order is (4) i.e. CFDABE. Hence Option C. 48. Option A. 49. Option A. 50. Make total 10 equations - 5 for rows and 5 for columns and solve them. From Row3 and Row4; N + I + A + B + B = N + I + B + A + I + 2; B = I + 2 From Row1 and Row3; B + R + A + I + N = N + I + A + B + B - 1; R = B – 1 From Column2; R + B + I + I + R = 29; B + 2R + 2I = 29 B + 2(B - 1) + 2I = 29; 3B + 2I = 31; 3(I + 2) + 2I = 31 5I = 25; I = 5; Hence, B=7 and R=6 From Row2; B + B + R + B + A = 31; 3B + R + A = 31 3(7) + 6 + A = 31; A = 4; From Row1; B + R + A + I + N = 31 7 + 6 + 4 + 5 + N = 31; N = 9 Thus, B=7, R=6, A=4, I=5 and N=9; Hence Option A. 51. Option C. 52. Option D. 53. Option C. 54. Option C. 55. Let’s put given 9 information in a table. The person in 88
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Bold Font will not get the corresponding car unless the persons in Normal Font get the corresponding cars. Also, the person will Italics will get the remaining car. Now, let’s assume that Alan gets the Merc. Then from (4), Barry gets the Honda, Denzil gets the Ford and Carl gets the Zen. But from (7), Carl will not get the Zen unless Barry gets the Honda and Alan gets the Ford. Thus, it contradicts the original assumption. Hence, Alan will not get the Merc. Let’s assume that Alan gets the Honda. Then from (1), Barry
gets the Merc, Denzil gets the Ford and Carl gets the Zen. But from (5) or from (7), it contradicts the original assumption. Hence, Alan will not get the Honda. Let’s assume that Alan gets the Ford. Then from (8), Carl gets the Merc, Denzil gets the Ford and Barry gets the Zen - which does not contradict any of the statement. Similarly, you can assume that Alan gets the Zen. (which is contradictory to (9)) Hence, Alan gets the Ford, Barry gets the Zen, Carl gets the Merc and Denzil gets the Honda. Hence Option A. 56. Option B 57. Option C 58. Option D Reasoning Outline “There is no penalty for wrong answers for these eight items.” (CSAT 2011) Apart from the aptitude ability candidate must possess moral and ethical qualities which plays a vital role while taking any correct decisions. Reasoning and Decision making is a capacity of an individual which is dependent on his/her intellectual, ethical, social and logical ability. I is test to sideline the bookish knowledge. Generally decision making in CSAT type of exams is not treated as a separate topic. In this section, candidates can expect questions which test their “ethical and moral dimension of decision-making”. Content In this section the ability to make appropriate decision, depends on various factors: • Topics of Public Administration • Moral and ethical aspects • Psychology: Conflict-management, Administrative behavior, Human behavior etc. • Management objectives Tips / Points to remember: Situation analysis is designed in such a way that the questions asked in paper are from real situations and real conditions. Hence it is very essential AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
that the candidate must have practical approach toward such questions and must not get carried away with the situation provided. The situation provided can easy as well as complicated. Now let us discuss the approach towards the question. Here are some tips for approaching such questions in examination: 1. Read the question very carefully and understand the situation. 2. Try to get into the role assigned to you and think about it. “Indicate the response you find- most appropriate” (CSAT 2011) 3. Then give a thought to the position and think about the responsibility, power and limitations of that power. 4. Then implement all such power and limitation into the situation and draw the boundary of decision by yourself. 5. Look into the option been provided to you and think about their viability to the situation provided. 6. The candidate must have vis-à-vis to such situation by reading newspaper, magazines which will help him to understand and take decision. 7. In questions that ask you to select a valid conclusion, always choose the one conclusion that must definitely follow from the information you are given. In questions that ask you to find the invalid alternative, choose the one conclusion that does not definitely follow from the information. CAUTION • Candidate must not be too aggressive with situation and on the other hand must not take it light as well. • These questions do not carry any negative marks so students should not make any guesses as these questions are designed to understand candidate decision capability. • Candidates must also aware of the fact that they may end up in choosing one between two close situations. Then they must be take decision very carefully and should not panic under such situation. • Better leave if they find it very difficult to choose the option very close to each other and they are not able to reach any answer confidently. • Before taking any decision, understanding the context of the problems is very important quality for the correct solutions to apply. • Unlike other sections in which there is always one correct option, in this section individual perception matters a lot. Real World For example there is probably no generally correct answer to questions like, “Which is more important, telling the truth or preventing harm?” A lot depends on context. In some cases, it is probably more important to tell the truth. In others, it is probably more important to prevent harm. A number of factors make up the context, including factors of time and place, the type and nature of the relationships involved other people’s reasonable expectations, and the relevant history of the situation. A standard example of a context in which it seems right to lie is this: you are a citizen of Nazi Germany, 1940. You are hiding a family of Jews in your attic. The German police come to your door and ask whether you know the whereabouts of that particular family of Jews. This seems a clear case in which preventing harm seems more important than telling the truth. 89
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GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER-1) Time Allowed: Two Hours
Maximum Marks: 200 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong Answers: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. 1. Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the diet since they are a good source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants help a person maintain health and promote longevity? (a) They activate the enzymes necessary for vitamin synthesis in the body and help prevent vitamin deficiency. (b) They prevent excessive oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the body and help avoid unnecessary wastage of energy. (c) They neutralize the free radicals produced in the body during metabolism. (d) They activate certain genes in the cells of the body and help delay the ageing process. Answer: (c): Beta-carotene absorbs free radicals that target molecules in the cell membrane. It is a source of Vitamin A. It reduces risk of cataract, cancer, and Performance CST heart attack, risk of stroke. Beta-carotene 60 plus out of 100 found in orange- Expected cut-off colored fruits and 35/100 vegetables and dark green, leafy vegetables. Some of the best sources of betacarotene are sweet potatoes, spinach, and carrots. Source: CST Science Special, Page No. 136. In fact free radicals are atoms, molecules, or ions with unpaired electrons on an open shell configuration and if is allowed to be uncontrolled then it may be involved in AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
degenerative diseases and carcinogenic tendencies. Although flax seeds themselves contain lignans, a class of phytoestrogens considered to have antioxidant and cancerpreventing properties. CST Geography: India and the world, Page No. 211 Explanation: Antioxidants are the vitamins and minerals found in foods and it helps us to fight off diseases. Antioxidants like Vitamin C, E and A are found in fruits and vegetables. By adding antioxidants in food, a person can be kept young and given a healthier and longer life. 2. Regarding the Indus Valley Civilisation, consider the following statements: 1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene. 2. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 or 2 Answer: (c): The cotton called Sindon was the greatest contribution of the IVC not only to the Indian culture but also to the world civilization. Source: CST Indian History, Page No. 25 In the absence of literary sources, the informations are conjectural and speculative and therefore, the domination of priests cannot be ruled out on the basis of archaeological sources. The presence of Great Bath, sculpture of priests 90
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substantiate this view also. In fact, the question is controversial and answer may (b) also. 3. The lower Gangetic plain is characterized by humid climate with high temperature throughout the year. Which one among the following pairs of crops is most suitable for this region? (a) Paddy and cotton (b) Wheat and Jute (c) Paddy and Jute (d) Wheat and cotton Answer: (c) Rice is a tropical and sub-tropical crop and requires high heat and high humidity. Source: CST Geography, Page 658 Temperature 240C-350C The Jute plant requires a high relative humidity between 80 and 90 per cent. Jute requires flooded fields. Source: CST Geography, Page 660 Explanation: Both paddy and jute cultivation in India requires humid climate with temperature fluctuating between 22-32 degree Celsius. The temperature must be higher during growing season. It thrives well in plenty of bright sunshine with an average temperature of 27 degree C and water. Cultivation of both requires abundant rainfall, ranging from 125-175 cm. New grey alluvial soil of good depth receiving silt from annual floods is most suitable for jute growth. However jute is grown widely in sanding looms and clay loams. This typical type of climatic conditions is found in the lower Gangetic plains; hence option C is the correct one. Wheat is a rabbi crop in India and it requires a moderate cool climate with moderate rain. In India, it is grown in winter. It needs temperature 10 degree C to 15 degree C for its cultivation. It thrives well in an average temperature of 16-degree C. Cotton is essentially a tropical crop; but it is also grown in subtropical regions where there is no frost. Cotton plant requires medium temperature and rainfall. It needs summer temperatures between 20 degree C and 30 Degree C. Abundant sunshine are necessary during the growth of the plant. The plant requires rainfall of 50 cm to 80 cm. 4. What could be the main reason/reasons for the formation of African and Eurasian desert belt? 1. It is located in the sub-tropical high pressure cells. 2. It is under the influence of warm ocean currents. Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (a): Canary Current, which is cold current flows along the western coast of North Africa between Maderia and Cape Verde. Source: CST Geography, Page No. 152 hot deserts are located between 20 degree - 30 degree latitude in both the hemisphere on the western coast of the continents. They are also called Tropical Deserts. They are different from the min-latitude deserts and cold deserts. Hot deserts are found in High pressure belts along the Tropics in the trade winds region. Distribution of Hot Deserts: (i) Asia- Thar desert and the Arabian Desert; (ii) Africa- The Sahara and the Kalahari; (iii) N.America- Lower California and Arizona states of USA; (iv) S.America-Atacama desert; (v) Australia- The Great Australian desert. Source: CST Geography, Page No. 193 Explanation: Desert Zone of the Temperate Belt: - It is a natural zone in the temperate belt of the northern AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
hemisphere in which the predominant landscapes are deserts. In Eurasia the zone stretches from the shores of the Caspian Sea in the west to the Ordos Plateau in the east and has a maximum width of 700-800 km. In North America the deserts of the temperate belt occur in patches in the broad inter-montane basins of the Great Basin highlands, where their existence is the result of topographic features. The Cascade Range acts as a barrier that intercepts much of the precipitation carried by the prevailing westerly winds. Deserts do not occur in the temperate belt of the southern hemisphere. (II) Desert Zones of Tropical Belts: - It is a natural zone in the tropical belts of the northern and southern hemispheres whose dominant landscapes are deserts. These zones lie in the interior and along the western coasts of most continents. The largest tropical desert zones are found in Asia and North Africa, where they form a distinct east-west belt that includes the Sahara, the world's largest desert, the Arabian Desert, and the deserts of India and Pakistan (Thar). (III) Desert Zones of Subtropical Belts:It is a natural zone in the subtropical belts of the northern and southern hemispheres in which desert landscapes predominate. Whereas in North Africa these Performance CST desert zones stretch along the southern 60 plus out of 100 Mediterranean coast, in Expected cut-off Asia they are not 35/100 continuous. They occur in parts of southern Middle Asia (south of 40° N. lat.), within the Iranian Plateau, and in patches in the semi-desert area of northern Syria and Iraq. The desert zones of the subtropical belts also include the high-altitude "cold" deserts of the Eastern Pamirs and Tibet. In North America, subtropical deserts are found in the southern part of the Great Basin, the Mojave Desert, and the northern part of the Mexican Meseta Central. In Australia, subtropical desert zones occupy the southern parts of the continent, where they are a continuation of the deserts of the tropical belt. In South Africa, the landscapes of the subtropical deserts lie on plateaus and within the intermontane depressions of the Great Karroo. 5. The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What could be the appropriate explanation? 1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere. 2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere. Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (c): Stratosphere: From Tropopause to about 50 Km; it is an Isothermal region and extremely dry free with clouds, water vapour and dust; here air is at rest and movement is almost horizontal. Some clouds found are called Mother of Pearls or Nacreous. Source: CST Geography. Page No. 102 Explanation: At stratosphere, the temperature increases with increase in altitude. It extends to an altitude of about 50 Km. Airflow in the stratosphere is much less turbulent than in the troposphere. Here the air doesn't flow up and down, but flows parallel to the earth in very fast moving 91
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air streams. This is the layer where most jet planes fly. Hence option C is the correct one. 6. Consider the following statements: 1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes. 2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (c) Gradient of Biodiversity: Biodiversity varies with the change in latitude or altitude. As we move from high to low latitudes, broadly speaking, the biological diversity increases. Similarly, we generally notice a decrease in species diversity from lower to higher altitudes on a mountain. Source: CST General Science, Page No. 183 7. The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong rivers originate in the Tibet and flow through narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches. Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a “U” turn in its course to flow into India. This “U” turn is due to (a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series (b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas (c) Geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded mountain chains (d) Both (a) and (b) above Answer: (b) Most of the other Himalayan rivers drain the Ganga-Brahmaputra Basin. Its two main rivers are the Ganga and the Brahma and the Yamuna among other tributaries. The Brahmaputra originates as the Yarlung Tsangpo River in western Tibet, and flows east through Tibet and west through the plains of Assam. The Ganga and the Brahmaputra meet in Bangladesh, and drain into the Bay of Bengal through the world's largest river delta. The eastern-most Himalayan rivers feed the Ayeyarwady River, which originates in eastern Tibet and flows south through Myanmar to drain into the Andaman Sea. The Salween, Mekong, the Yangtze and the Huang He (Yellow River) all originate from parts of the Tibetan plateau that are geologically distinct from the Himalaya mountains, and are therefore not considered true Himalayan rivers. Source: CST Geography, Page 383 Syntaxial bending means having the form of a bow; curved. 8. A state in India has the following characteristics: 1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid. 2. Its central part produces cotton. 3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops. Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics? (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Gujarat (c) Karnataka (d) Tamil Nadu Answer: (b): Gujarat is the main producer of Cotton, Groundnut and Tobacco in the country and provides input for important industries like Textile, Oil and Soap. Other important cash crops are teak, khair, salad, haldariyo and manual bamboos. There has been increase in agriproduction. Gujarat has put its feet on prio-tech, biodiversity etc. The agro production export has also growing. AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
Source: CST Year Book 2011, Page No. 308 9. What is “Virtual Private Network”? (a) It is a private computer network of an organization where the remote users can transmit encrypted information through the server of the organization. (b) It is a computer network across a public Internet that provides users access to their organization’s network while maintaining the security of the information transmitted (c) It is a computer network in which users can access a shared pool of computing resources through a service provider. (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is a correct description of Virtual Private Network. Answer: Source: (b) CST Science and Technology, Page No. 136. Virtual Private Network allows a user to connect to a network through a tunnelling protocol and access internal internet and intranet websites and e-mail. Note: There may a confusion between option (a) and (b) due to the term ‘private network’ but the main point is the secrecy of the user on the public network. Explanation: A VPN is a network that uses a public telecommunication infrastructure, such as the Internet, to provide remote offices or individual users with secure access to their organization's network. VPN clients and VPN servers are used in three scenarios:- (a) To Performance CST support remote access 60 plus out of 100 to an intranet. (b) to support connections Expected cut-off between multiple 35/100 intranets within the same organization. (c) To join networks between two organizations, forming an extranet. 10. The “dharma” and “rita” depict a central idea of ancient Vedic civilization of India. In this context, consider the following statements: 1. Dharma was a conception of obligations and of the discharge of one’s duties to oneself and to others. 2. Rita was the fundamental moral law governing the functioning of the universe and all it contained. Which of the statements given above is/are correct. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (c): Source: CST Indian History, Page No. 134. Purushartha : It refers to a goal, end or aim of human existence and found in four forms and important elaborations are being made in Kamasutra of Vatsyayana (treating kama, particularly as "sexual gratification"), the Arthashastra of Kautilya (treating artha as "material pursuits"), the Dharmasastras of various authors, most notably Manu (treating dharma as "religious, social and personal ethics") and the principle sutras of the six orthodox schools of philosophy or darsanas, all of which are principally concerned with the attainment of moksha, often referred to as the parama-purusartha or "chief end of human life". Source: CST Indian History, Page No. 50 Varuna: – Was an icon of mortality, He has been mentioned in Bhogaz – Koi inscriptions; He has been mentioned in 30 hymns; He is also called head of the ethics as well as Rta; 92
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Explanation: The Vedic literature describes Rita as power of consciousness, of action and force. Rita is thus the law of action emanated from the consciousness and is given a supreme status in the Vedic literature. Dharma on the other hand is the fulfillment of once obligations and duties according to the prescribed norms and righteousness. Hence option C is the correct one. 11. In the context of global oil prices, “Brent crude oil” is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply? 1. It is a major classification of crude oil. 2. It is sourced from North Sea. 3. It does not contain sulphur. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (b): Explanation: Basically, Brent Crude is one of the basis of the classifications of crude oil and is sourced from North Sea and used to price two thirds of the world's internationally traded crude oil supplies. Other classifications are Brent Sweet Light Crude, Oseberg, Ekofisk, Forties, OPEC Reference Basket, Dubai Crude and West Texas Intermediate. In many countries, including those in Europe, Brent Crude is used as a benchmark for pricing other classifications of oil. And it contains approximately 0.37 per cent of sulphur. 12. The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to (a) Slow down the speed of neutrons (b) Increase the speed of neutrons (c) Cool down the reactor (d) Stop the nuclear reaction Answer: (a) Source: CST Year Book, Page No. 130 Under the first stage of the Department of Atomic Energy’s nuclear power programme, a series of Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors, using natural uranium as fuel and heavy water as both coolant and moderator, has already been built. Explanation: In nuclear reactor heavy water is used as a moderator. It's there to act as a neutron Performance CST moderating fluid. 60 plus out of 100 Moderator is the material in the core Expected cut-off which slows down the 35/100 neutrons released from fission so that they cause more fission. It is usually water, but may be heavy water or graphite. If graphite or heavy water is used as moderator, it is possible to run a power reactor on natural instead of enriched uranium. Natural uranium has the same elemental composition as when it was mined (0.7 per cent U-235, over 99.2 per cent U-238), enriched uranium has had the proportion of the fissile isotope (U-235) increased by a process called enrichment, commonly to 3.5 - 5.0 per cent. In this case the moderator can be ordinary water, and such reactors are collectively called light water reactors. Because the light water absorbs neutrons as well as slowing them, it is less efficient as a moderator than heavy water or graphite. 13. In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to? 1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
institutions. 2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha 3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (c): CST Indian Political System, Page No. 191 (Box). Article 30 : Clause (1) All minorities whether based on religion or language shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. CST India Year Book, Page No. 181 The President of India in his address to the Joint session of Parliament on 25th February, 2005 announced that the Government of India would recast the 15 point program for Welfare of Minorities, in order to incorporate program specific interventions. The earlier program has been revised as the Prime Minister’s New 15 Point Program for the welfare of Minorities. Explanation: According to Article 30(1) of our constitution the minorities have been given the right to establish and administer educational institutions. Option 2 is incorrect because as per article 331 of our constitution notwithstanding anything in Article 81, the President may, if he is of opinion that the Anglo Indian community is not adequately represented in the House of the people, nominate not more than two members of that community to the House of the People. Option 3 is true as minorities are eligible for benefits under PMs 15 point programme. Hence option 1 and 3 are correct. 14. India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available to them under the law? 1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools. 2. Preferential allotment of land for setting up business. 3. Ramps in public buildings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (d): Explanation: All the three are correct. All the three benefits available to disabled in India are well explained in the Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995. But it is very difficult to remember all the provisions of the Act 15. With what purpose is the Government of India promoting the concept of “Mega Food Parks”? 1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the food processing industry. 2. To increase the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage. 3. To provide emerging and eco-friendly food processing technologies to entrepreneurs. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (b): Source: CST May 2010, Page No. 15 Government of India is providing an assistance of Rs. 50 crores in this project. It is expected to leverage an investment of about Rs.200-250 crores in the form of food processing 93
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units proposed to be set up in the mega food park. It will also attract a sizeable amount of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), as FDI up to 100 per cent is under automatic route for most of the processed food products. This is a unique project and first of its kind the State because this would be the only project which will address the needs of the farmers and will ensure a sizeable investment in the State/Region and has the potential of being the engine to drive economic growth in the region. Around 27 processing and ancillary units com- Performance CST ing up in this food park will process about 60 plus out of 100 180,000TPA of raw ma- Expected cut-off terials primarily com35/100 prising of fruits and vegetables, rice and spices and will generate sizeable employment generation opportunities. Explanation: The Union government had rechristened the Scheme of Food Parks launched under the 10th Five Year Plan and reformulated it as Mega Food Parks Scheme (MFPS) for the 11th Five Year Plan period. It aims to raise the processing of food items in the country from the existing 6 per cent to 20 per cent, value addition from 20 per cent to 35 per cent and increase India's share in the global food trade from 1.5 per cent to 3 per cent by the year 2015. The scheme aims to facilitate the establishment of a strong food processing industry backed by an efficient supply chain, which would include collection centres, primary processing centres and cold chain infrastructure. The MFPS scheme will be demand driven, pre marketed and would facilitate food processing units to meet environmental, safety and social standards. 16. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from (a) The President of India (b) The Parliament of India (c) The Prime Minister of India (d) The Union Finance Minister Answer: (b) Source: CST Indian Political System, Page No. 299. Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266): All revenues received by the government, loans raised by it and also its receipts from recoveries of loans granted by it are accounted in the CFI. No amount can be withdrawn from the CFI without the approval and authorization of the Parliament. Explanation: Article 283(1) of our constitution clearly states that the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India and the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into such Funds, the withdrawal of moneys therefrom, the custody of public moneys other than those credited to such Funds received by or on behalf of the Government of India, their payment into the public account of India and the withdrawal of moneys from such account and all other matters connected with or ancillary to matters aforesaid shall be regulated by law made by Parliament, and, until provision in that behalf is so made, shall be regulated by rules made by the President and 283(2) states that the custody of the Consolidated Fund of a State and the Contingency Fund of a State, the payment of moneys into such Funds, the withdrawal of moneys therefrom, the custody of public moneys other than those credited to such AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
Funds, received by or on behalf of the Government of the State, their payment into the public account of the State and withdrawal of moneys from such account and all other matters connected with or ancillary to matters aforesaid shall be regulated by law made by the Legislature of the State, and, until provision in that behalf is so made, shall be regulated by rules made by the Governor of the State. 17. All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the (a) Contingency Fund of India (b) Public Account (c) Consolidated Fund of India (d) Deposits and Advances Fund Answer: (c) Source: CST Indian Political System, Page No. 299. Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266): All revenues received by the government, loans raised by it and also its receipts from recoveries of loans granted by it are accounted in the CFI. Explanation: Article 266 of the constitution of India clearly states that all revenues received by the Government of India, all loans raised by that Government by the issue of treasury bills, loans or ways and means advances and all moneys received by that Government in repayment of loans shall form one consolidated fund to be entitled the Consolidated Fund of India, and all revenues received by the Government of a State, all loans raised by that Government by the issue of treasury bills, loans or ways and means advances and all moneys received by that Government in repayment of loans shall form one consolidated fund to be entitled the Consolidated Fund of the State. 18. Microfinance is the provision of financial services to people of low-income groups. This includes both the consumers and the self-employed. The service/services rendered under micro-finance is/are: 1. Credit facilities 2. Savings facilities 3. Insurance facilities 4. Fund Transfer facilities Select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 only Answer: (d) Explanation: Microfinance is defined as financial services for poor and low-income clients. In practice, the term is often used more narrowly to refer to loans and other services from providers that identify themselves as "microfinance institutions" (MFIs). Microfinance thus includes basic financial services - including small loans, savings accounts, fund transfers and insurance. Microfinance clients are poor and low-income people that do not have access to other formal financial institutions. Microfinance clients are usually self-employed, household-based entrepreneurs. 19. Southeast Asia has captivated the attention of global community over space and time as a geostrategically significant region. Which among the following is the most convincing explanation for this global perspective? (a) It was the hot theatre during the Second World War. (b) Its location between the Asian powers of China and India. 94
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(c) It was the arena of superpower confrontation during the Cold War period. (d) Its location between the Pacific and Indian oceans and its pre-eminent maritime character. Answer: (d) Explanation: According to UNDP Report, the Southeast Asian countries and the maritime character that shaped the societies and economies of the majority of these countries. Therefore, its location and maritime time opportunities has attracted the world and thus the option ‘d’ seems to be the most appropriate answer. 20. A company marketing food products advertises that its items do not contain trans-fats. What does this campaign signify to the customers? 1. The food products are not made out of hydrogenated oils. 2. The food products are not made out of animal fats/oils. 3. The oils used are not likely to damage the cardiovascular health of the consumers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (c): Source: CST General Science Special 2011, Page No. 57. Trans fats: by-products of hydrogenation, a chemical process used to change liquid unsaturated fat to a more solid fat. Structurally similar to saturated fat, trans fatty acids may have a great impact on raising total and LDL cholesterol levels. Examples include stick margarine and fats found in commercially prepared cakes, cookies, and snack foods. Total fat intake should be no more than 30 percent of your daily calorie intake. Source: CST General Science Special 2011, Page No. 65. Unsaturated fats may be converted to saturated fats by adding hydrogen atoms in a process known as hydrogenation. This process creates saturated fats called trans-fatty acids. Explanation: Trans-fats are chemically altered vegetable oils. They are produced artificially in a process called hydrogenation which turns liquid oil into solid fat. Transfats are found in many processed foods from sweets and biscuits to ready meals. They are used because they are cheap, add bulk to products, have a neutral flavour and give products a long shelf life. They have no nutritional value. Trans-fats have been linked to high cholesterol, which can lead to health conditions such as heart attacks and strokes. Trans fats may be monounsaturated or polyunsaturated but never saturated. 21. Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act”? (a) Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households. (b) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households. (c) Adult members of households of all backward communities. (d) Adult members of any household. Answer: (d): Source: CST Indian Economy, Page No. 400. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS): This flagship programme of the Government of India touches the lives of the rural poor and promotes inclusive growth. The MGNREGS aims at enhancing livelihood security of households in rural areas AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
of the country by providing at least one hundred days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to every household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. It also mandates 33 per cent participation for women. Explanation: The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MNREGA) is a flagship social security programme of the government. It was introduced through legislation on August 25, 2005. The scheme provides a legal guarantee for one hundred days of employment in every financial year to adult members of any rural household willing to do public work-related unskilled manual work at the statutory minimum wages. The scheme aims to improve the purchasing power of the rural people, by providing them semi or un-skilled work, whether or not they are below the poverty line. Hence option D is the correct one. 22. With reference to “Look East Policy” of India, consider the following statements: 1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in the East Asian affairs. 2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of Cold War. 3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbours in Southeast and East Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (b): Source: CST India’s Foreign Policy, Page No. 227-228. India's Look East Policy was a significant shift in India's policy prioritization because hitherto India did not have any concrete strategy to create an economic hub in its North Eastern Region by exploring the trade and commerce potential with its ASEAN neighbours. Since 1992, the government - especially the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region - DoNER - has made some fast track initiatives to reinvent NER economy to make it more sustainable and selfsufficient. One can Performance CST recollect that the 60 plus out of 100 economy of north-east heavily depends on the Expected cut-off central funding. In this 35/100 process, both BIMSTEC and SAARC have made a number of programmes and projects to promote trade and investment in the region. At the same time, the integration of existing diverse groups could be done through communication and contacts and in this respect LEP may provide them that opportunity wherein they may find roots in their past while at the same time assimilating with their present weaving a tapestry of growth and affluence for the future. Explanation: India’s Look east policy started in 1992 and the WW II ended in 1945 and therefore, the second option seems to be out of question. 23. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha (a) the Budget is modified and presented again (b) the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions (c) the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign (d) the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council 95
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of Ministers Answer: (d) According to Article 110 of the constitution dealing with the definition scope and dimensions of the money bill, a money bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and that too on the recommendations of the President. The Rajya Sabha has restricted powers with regard to a money bill. It cannot reject or amend a money bill. It can only make the recommendations. The Lok Sabha can either accept or reject all or any of the recommendation of the Rajya Sabha. Further, when a money bill is presented to the President, he may either give assent to the bill or withhold his assent to the bill but cannot return the bill for reconsideration of the houses. The defeat of the money bill in the Lok Sabha leads to the resignation of the government. The PM and his council are jointly accountable to the Lok Sabha, they sink and swim together, and the defeat of the government on a policy statement like budget, leads to loss of confidence of the house. Hence option A, B, C are incorrect and D is the best suited one. (Source D.D. Basu "Introduction to the Constitution of India" Page 214-215) and M. Laxmikant "Indian Polity" Page 197-198) 24. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty? (a) To vote in public elections (b) To develop the scientific temper (c) To safeguard public property (d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals Answer: (a) Source: CST Indian Political System, Page No. 215. The 11 Fundamental duties are: (1) To abide by constitution and respect its ideal and institutions, the National Flag and National Anthem. (2) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom. (3) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India. (4) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so. (5) To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women. (6) To value and preserve the right heritage of our composite culture. (7) To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creature. (8) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform. (9) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence. (10) To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievements. (11) Every citizen who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years. (inserted by the 86th Amendment Act, 2002). Explanation: The Fundamental Duties (Article 51 A) of citizens were added to our Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. The duties were originally ten in number, but the 86th Amendment in 2002, added the 11th duty on AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
every parent or guardian to ensure that their child or ward was provided opportunities for education between the ages of six and fourteen years. The other Fundamental Duties require all citizens to respect the national symbols of India, including the Constitution, to cherish its heritage, preserve its composite culture and assist in its defence. They also obligate all Indians to promote the spirit of common brotherhood, protect the environment and public property, develop scientific temper, abjure violence, and strive towards excellence in all spheres of life. 25. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct? (a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development (b) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings (c) It ensures transparency in financial administration (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context. Answer: (d) Source: CST Indian Political System, Page No. 412. The precise manner of sharing taxes and the actual determination of grants is left to the deliberations of the Finance Commission, under Article 280, appointed by the President of India every quinquennium. Though the President is not bound to accept the recommendations of Finance Commission, they are generally accepted with the view of the quasi-judicial nature of the Commission. Explanation: As per article 280 of our constitution the President shall, within two years from the commencement of this Constitution and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year or at such earlier time as the President considers necessary, by order constitute a Finance Commission which shall consist of a Chairman and four other members to be appointed by the President. The Function of the Finance Commission include: - (a) It recommends to the President the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them and the allocation between the Performance CST States of the respective 60 plus out of 100 shares of such proceeds. (b) Determine the Expected cut-off principles which should 35/100 govern the grants-inaid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India. (c) Suggest the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats in the State. (d) Suggest the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State. (e) Any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of sound finance. Hence none of the statements given in the question is correct. 26. The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as a safety hedge? (a) The mangrove swamps separate the human settlements from the sea by a wide zone in which people neither live nor venture out 96
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(b) The mangroves provide both food and medicines which people are in need of after any natural disaster (c) The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies and serve as an excellent shelter during a cyclone or Tsunami (d) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their extensive roots. Answer: (d): Source: CST December 2010, Page 79, Col, II. They colonise tidal shores and brackish waters in the tropics and subtropics and in doing so not only stabilize shorelines but also create new land by trapping debris, silt and mud along their interlacing roots. Mangroves spread out to the water by sending their branches roots that reach into the mud and develop into sturdy supporting props. Gujarat has increased its mangrove cover by almost 10 times which acts as protection from tsunami. As they have their existence on mud flats and survive the daily tidal cycles, most species of mangroves either have prop roots or pneumatophores, i.e. additional roots, underground root system and grow erect out of the mud. This underground root system can obtain oxygen in an anaerobic substrate. 27. The Jain philosophy holds that the world is created and maintained by (a) Universal Law (b) Universal Truth (c) Universal Faith (d) Universal Soul Answer: (a): Explanation: “The world, for the Jain, is not created, maintained or destroyed by a personal deity, but functions only according to universal law”. (Source Book “The Wonder That Was India” by A. L. Basham, Page number 290. 28. Salinization occurs when the irrigation water accumulated in the soil evaporates, leaving behind salts and minerals. What are the effects of salinization on the irrigated land? (a) It greatly increases the crop production (b) It makes some soils impermeable (c) It raises the water table (d) It fills the air spaces in the soil with water Answer: (b) Explanation: Irrigation salinity is the rise in salinity of groundwater and the build-up of salt in the soil surface in irrigated area. Salinity is the presence of soluble salts in the soil or water; it is generally used to describe the presence of elevated levels of different salts such as sodium chloride, magnesium, calcium sulfate and Bicarbonate in the soil and water table rising to or close to the ground surface. Saline soils are soil having excessive soluble salts that make the soils solution sufficient concentrated to injure plants and hinder soil productivity. Soil salinity problems generally occur in arid and semiarid regions, it reduces crop production at different levels and makes the soil impermeable. Salinity is a major limiting factor for crop yield in poorly drained soils. 29. The “Red Data Books” published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of 1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots. 2. Threatened plant and animal species. 3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries. AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only Answer: (b): Source: CST December 2010, Page No. 44, Col. I and II. As per the IUCN Red List (2008), India has 413 globally threatened faunal species, which is approximately 4.9 per cent of the world’s total number of threatened faunal species. The global estimates as per IUCN Red List, 2008 suggest that 10 per cent (5,966 Performance CST species) of vertebrate 60 plus out of 100 and 0.20 per cent (2,496 species) of invertebrate Expected cut-off described fauna is 35/100 threatened. In 2004, one species, Megaptera novaeangliae, showed an upward trend of population while eleven species showed stable populations. Further, of the total 447 threatened species, for which trends are available, 218 are showing decreasing trend of population as per the 2004 status. The 2008 report, however, indicates upward population trend of one-horned rhinoceros in the country, as a result, the threat category has improved from endangered to vulnerable. CST General Science, Page No. 183 The IUCN Red List Categories The IUCN Red List is a catalogue of taxa that are facing the risk of extinction. It is important to understand that the Red List aims to impart information about the urgency and scale of conservation problems to the public and policy makers. The uses of the Red List are: (i) Developing awareness about the importance of the threatened biodiversity; (ii) Identification and documentation of endangered species; (iii) Providing a global index of the decline of biodiversity; (iv) Defining conservation priorities at the local level and guiding conservation action. The World Conservation Union has recognised 8 RED LIST Categories of species: Extinct, Extinct in the Wild, Critically Endangered, Engandered, Vulnerable, Lower Risk, Data Deficient and Not Evaluated. This has been summarized in the table given hereunder: The Red List also provides information to international agreements, such as the Convention on Biological Diversity and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora. 30. Why is the offering of ‘teaser loans” by commercial banks a cause of economic concern? 1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of subprime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future. 2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units. Which of the statements given above is/are correct. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (a): Source: CST Year Book 2011, Page No. 170. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) resorted to forestall a housing bubble by hiking the risk weightage for housing loans above Rs. 75 lakh to 125 per cent. The RBI also increased the standard asset provisioning by commercial banks for all housing loans with teaser rates to two per cent “in view of 97
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the higher risk associated with such loans.” Explanation: Teaser Loans are an adjustable-rate mortgage loan in which the borrower pays a very low initial interest rate, which increases after a few years. Teaser loans try to entice borrowers by offering an artificially low rate and small down payments, claiming that borrowers should be able to refinance before the increases occur. Teaser loans are considered an aspect of subprime lending, as they are usually offered to low-income home buyers. This method of loaning is considered risky, as default rates are high. 31. An artificial satellite orbiting around the Earth does not fall down. This is so because the attraction of Earth (a) does not exist at such distance (b) is neutralized by the attraction of the moon (c) provides the necessary speed for its steady motion (d) provides the necessary acceleration for its motion Answer: (d) Source: CST Science and Technology, Page No. 418. By orbiting at the same rate, in the same direction as Earth, the satellite appears stationary (synchronous with respect to the rotation of the Earth). Explanation: An artificial satellite orbiting around the Earth does not fall down because the earth’s gravity provides the necessary centripetal acceleration that keeps the satellite moving in a curved path. Hence option D is the correct one. (Source: - ‘Certificate Physical and Human Geography” by G. C. Leong and NCERT Class IX). 32. In the context of Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily increased in the last five years. 2. The growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in the last five years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (b) Source: Economic Survey 2008-09: Economic growth decelerated in 2008-09 to 6.7 per cent. This represented a decline of 2.1 per cent from the average growth rate of 8.8 per cent in the previous five years (2003-04 to 2007-08). Backed by robust economic growth, India's per capita income has increased to Rs 33,283 in 2007-08 indicating an overall improvement in the living standards of the people. Rising by almost 60 per cent since 2003-04, India's per capita income, which indicates what an average person earns, has increased to Rs 33,283 in 2007-08, reveals the quick estimates of national income released by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO). The country's per capita income, has been growing at an annual rate of over 10 per cent since 2003-04. India's per capita income is projected to grow by 17.3 per cent to Rs 54,527 in 2010-11 from Rs 46,492 in the year-ago period. The per capita income was slightly higher than Rs 43,749 as calculated by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) in its advance estimates for FY10. However, per capita income grew by 5.6 per cent last fiscal if it is calculated on the basis of 2004-05 prices, which is a better way of comparison and broadly factors inflation. 33. In India, which of the following have the highest share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture and allied acAUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
tivities? (a) Commercial Banks (b) Banks (c) Regional Rural Banks (d) Microfinance Institutions Answer: (a): Source: CST April 2011, Page No. 22, Col 2 In view of enhanced target for flow of agriculture credit, capital base of NABARD to be strengthened by Rs 3,000 crore in phased manner Agriculture development is central to our growth strategy. Measures taken during the current year have started attracting private investment in agriculture and agro-processing activities. This process has to be deepened further. Rs 10,000 crore to be contributed to NABARD’s Short-term Rural Credit fund for 2011-12. 34. Which of the following can aid in furthering the Government’s objective of inclusive growth? 1. Promoting Self-Help Groups 2. Promoting Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises 3. Implementing the Right to Education Act Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (d): Source: CST April 2011, Page 12, Col. 1 The inclusive growth agenda of the Government is reflected in the 59 per cent rise in Net Bank Credit. The expenditure on Social sector programs has been stepped up by 5 percent point of GDP over the past five years. CST April 2011, Page 17 and Col 3 Social sector and inclusive growth: The Central Government expenditure on social services and rural development (Plan and non-Plan) which contributes to human development has gone up consistently over the years. It has increased from 13.75 per cent in 2005-06 to 19.27 per cent in 2010-11. In the Budget 2011-12, the allocation for social sector has been increased by 17 per cent to Rs. 1,60,887 crore which amounts to 36.4 per cent of the total plan allocation. Employment: There is a need for better convergence of the schemes to address the issues of unemployment and poverty alleviation could avoid duplication and Performance CST leakages. Further im- 60 plus out of 100 provements in the Mahatma Gandhi National Expected cut-off Rural Employment 35/100 Guarantee Scheme suggested such as shifting to permanent asset building and infrastructure development activities, reducing transaction costs, better monitoring and extension of the scheme to urban areas. In the long run the potential engines of growth for the country could be from skill development and innovative activity and therefore, efforts should be made to promote them. On the National Skill Development Mission, it said that much more is required both in terms of achievements and speed. The National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC), set up in July 2008, has been mandated to achieve the target of creation of skilled work force of 150 million people by 2022. By the end of December 2010, 28 states and union territories had set up Skill Development Mission. Explanation: The term "inclusive growth" was made popular by the India Development Policy Review 2006 titled "In98
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clusive Growth and Service Delivery: Building on India's Success". Promoting inclusive growth includes revamping labour regulations, improving agricultural technology and infrastructure, helping lagging states and regions catch up, and empowering the poor through proactive economic and social policies that help them to take part in the market on fair and equitable terms. Hence all the three option given in the question can help in achieving the goal of inclusive growth; hence option D is the correct one. 35. Why is the Government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)? 1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned from the disinvestment mainly to pay back the external debt. 2. The Government no longer intends to retain the management control of the CPSEs Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (d): Source: CST Indian Economy, Page No. 367 One of the greatest advantage of the disinvestment is that it generates non-inflationary funds for the investment in the social and infrastructural sector. The new UPA Government has decided to go with the policy of disinvestment. It reduces Government borrowings to meet its expenditure. It will reduce non-planned expenditure of the Government and ultimately the fiscal deficit. It will produce non-inflationary revenues to Government to finance social sectors and infrastructural development. Explanation: Disinvestment of public sector undertakings (PSUs) is one of the policy measures adopted by the government of India for providing financial discipline and improve the performance of this undertaking in tune with the new economic policy of Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation (LPG) through the 1991 Industrial Policy Statement. The aims of disinvestments policy are: (i) Raising of resources to meet fiscal deficit; (ii) Encouraging wider public participation including that of workers; (iii) Penetrating market discipline within public enterprises; and (iv) Improving performance. 36. What is the difference between asteroids and comets? 1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are formed of frozen gases held together by rocky and metallic material. 2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and Mercury. 3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (b): Source: CST Geography: India and the World, Page No. 14-15 Most of the asteroids orbit in a region between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter, while the home of comets lies far beyond the orbit of Pluto, in the Oort Cloud. Page 16: Asteroid belt composed mainly of refractory rocky and metallic minerals. The main asteroid belt occupies the orbit between Mars and Jupiter. Page 32: Comets are made up of frozen ammonia, dust particles and ice crystals and other chemicals. Comets are someAUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
times called dirty snowballs or "icy mud balls". Comets making journey towards sun develop small head and long tail, due to heat only as it approaches Jupiter. Explanation: Asteroids are tiny rocky planets that orbit the Sun. They can be as small as 1 kilometre (km) across or as large as 700 km. There are thousands of asteroids in our Solar System. Most of them can be found in an asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter. Asteroids whose orbits cross the Earth's orbit are called Apollo asteroids. There are so many asteroids that scientists just identify them with numbers or they may name them after people. On the other hand comets are mixtures of ice and dust. Comets are also known by their nickname of "dirty snowballs". They have many parts, like (a) Nucleus--Consists of mostly ice and gas, with some dust and other solids. (b) Coma-A dense water cloud, made up of carbon dioxide and neutral gases that come off of the nucleus. (c) Hydrogen cloud--A huge section of hydrogen. (d) Dust tail--The most visible part of the comet made of dust particles from the nucleus. Dust tails are very long and smoke-like. (e) Ion tail--Even longer than the dust tail, consists of plasma. This is the part of the tail that interacts with the solar wind. Hence option B is the Performance CST correct one. 60 plus out of 100 “Apart from the stars, planets and satellites, Expected cut-off there are numerous tiny 35/100 bodies which also move around the sun. These bodies are called asteroids. They are found between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. The largest asteroid is the Ceres. Scientists are of the view that asteroids are parts of a planet which exploded many years back. On the other hand comets are mixtures of ice and dust. Comets are also known by their nickname of "dirty snowballs". Further Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not. Hence option B is the correct one. (Source NCERT Class VI, Chapter 1 – The Earth in the Solar System”) 37. Economic growth is usually coupled with (a) Deflation (b) Inflation (c) Stagflation (d) Hyperinflation Answer: (b): CST August 2010, Page 33 and Col II. The short-term macroeconomic challenges of monetary and fiscal policy and the medium-term challenge of returning to the high growth path. Short-term macroeconomic challenges: It covers issues such as the trade-off between inflation and growth, the use of monetary policy versus use of fiscal policy, their relative effectiveness and coordination between the two. Medium-term challenges: It includes the tension between short-and long-term fiscal policy, the immediate longer term imperatives of monetary policy and the policy and institutional reforms necessary for restoring high growth. Also CST Year Book 2011, Page No. 170. (Eighth line). IMF Managing Director Dominique Strauss-Kahn visited India. He described India as an economic powerhouse and leading power but warned that a higher economic growth than what is being achieved could lead to risks such as inflation coupled with a high current account deficit. Explanation: Inflation and economic growth are parallel lines and can never meet. Inflation is a condition, when cost 99
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of services coupled with goods rise and the entire economy seems to go haywire. Inflation has never done well to the economy. Inflation reduces the value of money and makes it difficult for the common people. The effect of inflation and economic growth is manifested in the following cases: (I) Investment (II) Exchange rates (III) Interest rates (IV) Unemployment (V) Stocks. Hence it can be concluded that inflation and economic growth are closely related to each other. Low inflation rate and an upward economic growth is never possible. Nevertheless, low inflation rate means slow economic growth. 38. The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve Bank of India leads to (a) More liquidity in the market (b) Less liquidity in the market (c) No change in the liquidity in the market (d) Mobilization of more deposits by commercial banks Answer: (a): Source: CST Indian Economy, Page 17 It is a weapon of control of money supply–An increase in the Bank Rate by raising the cost of borrowed reserves, other things being the same, discourages bank borrowings from the Central Bank. Explanation: This is the rate at which central bank (RBI) lends money to other banks or financial institutions. If the bank rate goes up, long-term interest rates also tend to move up, and vice-versa. Thus, it can said that in case bank rate is hiked, there is going to be more liquidity in the market in all likelihood banks will hikes their own lending rates to ensure and they continue to make a profit. 39. Westerlies in southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent than in northern hemisphere, Why? 1. Southern hemisphere has less landmass as compared to northern hemisphere. 2. Coriolis force is higher in southern hemisphere as compared to northern hemisphere Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (a): Source: CST Geography: India and the World, Page No. 108. Comparatively, anti-trade winds are faster in southern hemisphere than in the northern; Due to Coriolis force, they become South Westerlies in the north and North Westerlies in the south. In the southern hemisphere, due to oceans between 40 degree-60 degree South Westerlies blow with much greater force with regularity throughout the year. Here three types of winds are found:- Roaring 40s, Furious 50s, and Shrieking sixties 60s. Explanation: The westerlies in the Southern Hemisphere are slightly faster than the westerlies in the Northern Hemisphere because (I) The Earth bulges out more in the Northern Hemisphere than in the Southern Hemisphere (II) The South Pole is colder than the North Pole (III) The Coriolis force turns motion to the left in the Southern Hemisphere but to the right in the Northern Hemisphere (IV) Gravitational Pull of the moon is stronger in the Southern Hemisphere. Hence only option 1 is correct. 40. Between India and East Asia, the navigation-time and distance can be greatly reduced by which of the following? 1. Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia and InAUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
donesia 2. Opening a new canal across the Kra isthmus between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman Sea. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (c): Explanation: As the link between the Indian Ocean and the South China Sea, the Strait of Malacca is the shortest sea route between India and China. Malaccamax is a naval architecture term for the largest size of ship capable of fitting through the 25 metres (82 ft)-deep Strait of Performance CST Malacca. Because the 60 plus out of 100 Sunda Strait is even shallower at 20 metres Expected cut-off (66 ft) minimum depth, 35/100 a post-Malaccamax ship would need to use even longer alternate routes such as: Lombok Strait, Makassar Strait, Sibutu Passage and Mindoro Strait Ombai Strait, Banda Sea, Lifamatola Strait between the Sula Islands and Obi Islands, and Malacca Sea around Australia or artificially excavated new routes such as: deepening the Strait of Malacca, specifically at its minimum depth in the Singapore Strait. the proposed Kra Canal, which however would take much more excavation. 41. Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the following ways: 1. Soil formation 2. Prevention of soil erosion 3. Recycling of waste 4. Pollination of crops Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer: (d): Source: Science and Technology, Page No. 368. Why to conserve Bio-diversity? Each genetic resource has a certain specific character of its own. The genetic material can be exploited by the man in the form of food, medicines and specimens. For example, plant bio-diversity can be used to develop transgenic plants that can yield more production and are resistant to diseases, drought, and pests. Grains with higher percentage of protein and biofertilizer can also be produced by these genetic resources. 42. Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the market. It consists of amino acids and provides calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as a low calorie sweetening agent in food items. What is the basis of this use? (a) Aspartame is as sweet as table sugar, but unlike table sugar, it is not readily oxidized in human body due to lack of requisite enzymes (b) when aspartame is used in food processing, the sweet taste remains, but it becomes resistant to oxidation (c) Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but after ingestion into the body, it is converted into metabolites that yield no calories (d) Aspartame is several times sweeter than table sugar,
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hence food items made with small quantities of aspartame yield fewer calories on oxidation Answer: (d) Explanation: Aspartame is a sugar substitute used in products like diet soda. Unlike sugar, aspartame is a non-carbohydrate based product, so it contains virtually no calories. Hence option D is the correct one. It is also used in very small amounts because aspartame is approximately 180 times sweeter than sugar. The product is the result of an accidental discovery in 1965 by James Schlatter, who was working on a drug to prevent ulcers. 43. What was the purpose with which Sir William Wedderburn and W.S. Caine had set up the Indian Parliamentary Committee in 1893? (a) To agitate for Indian political reforms in the House of Commons (b) To campaign for the entry of Indians into the Imperial Judiciary (c) To facilitate a discussion on India’s Independence in the British Parliament. (d) To agitate for the entry of eminent Indians into the British Parliament Answer: (a) Explanation: Sir William Wedderburn entered Parliament in 1893 as a Liberal member and sought to voice India's grievances in the House. He formed the Indian Parliamentary Committee with which he was associated as Chairman from 1893 to 1900. 44. What is the difference between a CFL and an LED lamp? 1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour and phosphor while an LED lamp uses semi-conductor material 2. The average life span of a CFL is much longer than that of an LED lamp. 3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared to an LED lamp Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (c): Explanation: Compact Fluorescent Lamps (CFL's) work by passing electricity through mercury vapour, which in turn produces ultraviolet light. The ultraviolet light is then absorbed by a phosphor coating inside the lamp, causing it to glow, or fluoresce. While the heat generated by fluorescent lamps is much less than its incandescent coun- Performance CST terpart, energy is still 60 plus out of 100 lost in generating the ultraviolet light and Expected cut-off 35/100 converting this light into visible light.LEDs are based on the semiconductor diode. When the diode is forward biased (switched on), electrons are able to recombine with holes and energy is released in the form of light. LEDs present many advantages over traditional light sources including lower energy consumption, improved robustness, smaller size and faster switching. The life time of CFLs is approximately 1,200 hours to 20,000 hours while the life time of LEDs is longer then CFL. Hence option 1 and 3 are correct while 2 is a wrong statement. Thus the correct answer is option C. AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
45. Recently, “oilzapper” was in the news. What is it? (a) It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills (b) It is the latest technology developed for under sea oil exploration (c) It is a genetically engineered high biofuel-yielding maize variety (d) It is the latest technology to control the accidentally caused flames from oil wells Answer: (a) Explanation: This is an innovative technology developed by TERI, consisting of a bacterial consortium that degrades crude oil and oily sludge. The Oilzapper is essentially a mix of five different bacterial strains that are immobilized and mixed with a carrier material. The Oilzapper bio remediation process feeds on hydrocarbon compounds present in crude oil and oily sludge (a hazardous hydrocarbon waste generated by oil refineries) and converts them into harmless CO2 and water. The Oilzapper is neatly packed into sterile polythene bags and sealed aseptically for safe transport. 46. A married couple adopted a male child. A few years later, twin boys were born to them. The blood group of the couple is AB positive and O negative. The blood group of the three sons is A positive, B positive, and O positive. The blood group of the adopted son is (a) O positive (b) A positive (c) B positive (d) Cannot be determined on the basis of the given data Answer: (a): Source: CST General Science, Page No. 48 Explanation: Blood group of child
One of parent
The other parent
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Can’t be
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AB
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47. Mahatma Gandhi said that some of his deepest convictions were reflected in a book titled, “Unto this Last” and the book transformed his life. What was the message from the book that transformed Mahatma Gandhi? (a) Uplifting the oppressed and poor is the moral responsibility of an educated man (b) The good of individual is contained in the good of all. (c) The life of celibacy and spiritual pursuit are essential for a noble life (d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct in this context Answer: (b) Explanation: Unto This Last was originally written by John Ruskin in December 1860 which Gandhiji read in 1904 and summerised into (a) The good of the individual is contained
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in the good of all; (b) A lawyer’s work has the same value as the barber’s, as all have the same right of earning their livelihood from their work; and (c) A life of labor, i.e. the life of the tiller of the soil and the handicraftsman is the life worth living. 48. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta is well-known for (a) Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of Quit India Movement (b) Participating in the Second Round Table Conference (c) Leading a contingent of Indian National Army (d) Assisting in the formation of Interim Government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru Answer: (a): Source: CST Indian History, Page No. 397 A transmission was opened at Choupati with following members: Daya Bhai Patel, Vitthal Das K.Javeri, Usha Mehta, Chandrakant Javeri and Vitthal Dhar Babubhai. Explanation: Usha Mehta (1920 - 2000), the renowned Gandhian and one of the prominent women freedom fighters of India is remembered for broad casting the Congress Radio, and called her the Secret Congress Radio, an underground radio station, which was functioned for few months during the Quit India Movement of 1942. When she was just 8 years old, she participated in a protest march against the Simon Commission. 49. A new optical disc format known as the Blu-ray Disc (BD) is becoming popular. In what way is it different from the traditional DVD? 1. DVD supports Standard Definition video while BD supports High Definition video 2. Compared to a DVD, the BD format has several times more storage capacity. 3. Thickness of BD is 2-4 mm while that of DVD is 1.2 mm. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (b) Explanation: Blu-Ray uses a blue-violet laser as opposed to the red laser used on DVDs. This allows Blu-Ray discs to hold a lot more information on them than DVDs. BD offers more than five times the storage capacity of traditional DVDs and can hold up to 25GB on a single-layer disc and50GB on a dual-layer disc. Disc thickness of both, the BD and the DVD is 1.2 mm. Hence option 1 and 2 are correct and 3 is incorrect. 50. With reference to the period of Indian freedom struggle, which of the following was/were recommended by the Nehru report? 1. Complete Independence for India. 2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for minorities 3. Provision of fundamental rights for the people of India in the Constitution. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (b): Source: CST Indian History, Page No. 428 The Features of Nehru Report -Produced in Calcutta session in 1928 and it was ratified by all parties, except, Muslim League. - It was presided by M.A. Ansari - Features: AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
1. Dominion status most viable option; 2. Envisioned future link-up with British and the Indian Federal States 3. Recommended joint electorate with reservation of seats for minorities based on population with the right to contest additional seats. 4. Protection to the interest of both Hindus and Muslims. 5. 19 fundamental rights 6. Indian Parliament to be constituted: - Senate elected for 7 year. 200 members elected by provincial council; - House of Representatives with 500 members for 5 years through adult franchise; 7. Governor General to be paid out of Indian revenues but to be appointed by British government 8. Governor General to act on behalf of Executive Council, collectively responsible to the Parliament 9. Provincial Council to be elected on Adult Franchise. 51. Among the following States, which one has the most suitable climatic conditions for the cultivation of a large variety of orchids with minimum cost of production, and can develop an export oriented industry in this field? (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Arunachal Pradesh (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh Answer: (b) Explanation: Orchids can be divide into two groups - monopodial or sympodial depending upon their habit of growth. Arunachal Pradesh provides cool mountain areas where the average temperature is chilly between 18-27 degrees centigrade, which is good for cultivation of orchids. Orchids are prevalent in the tropical and sub- Performance CST tropical areas. It is inter- 60 plus out of 100 esting to note that out of 1200 varieties of orchids Expected cut-off found in India, 800 are 35/100 found in the north-eastern parts. Arunachal Pradesh also has an orchid sanctuary at Tapi. 52. Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ method of conservation of flora? (a) Biosphere Reserve (b) Botanical Garden (c) National Park (d) Wildlife Sanctuary Answer: (b): Source: CST December 2010, Page No. 65 India’s major strength in in-situ conservation lies in its impressive Protected Area (PA) network, which currently comprises 661 PAs which includes ninety nine National Parks and five hundred fifteen Wildlife Sanctuaries, forty three Conservation Reserves and four Community Reserves. Explanation: In-situ conservation is the conservation of species in their natural habitats. It is considered the most appropriate way of conserving biodiversity. Conserving the areas where populations of species exist naturally is an underlying condition for the conservation of biodiversity. This type of conservation efforts can be adopted in National Parks, Biosphere Reserves and Wildlife Sanctuaries. On the other hand Ex-situ conservation is the preservation of components of biological diversity outside their natural habitats. This involves conservation of genetic resources, as well as wild and cultivated or species. 53. Consider the following statements:
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In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee 1. is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India. 2. prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area. 3. has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a): Source: CST Indian Political System, Page No. 377. Institutions for planning (Article 243ZX and 243ZE) Explanation: Article 243ZE of the constitution clearly states the structure and functions of the Committee for Metropolitan Planning. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Chairperson of every Metropolitan Planning Committee forwards the development plan, as recommended by such Committee, to the Government of the State and thus it doesn’t has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area. Hence option A is the correct one. (Source D.D. Basu “Introduction to the Constitution of India” Page 280-81-215) and M. Laxmikant “Indian Polity” Page 290-91). 54. What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim budget”? 1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an “interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government. 2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in Governments budget, while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (b) Source: CST Indian Political System, Page No. 298. An interim budget is a statement of accounts that does not incorporate changes in the taxation rates from the prevailing rates at the time of budget being presented. Usually a caretaker government presents such budgets. In 1991, the Chandra Shekhar government presented such a budget. Vote on Account. Article 116 empowers the Lok Sabha to make any grant in advance for a part of any financial year pending the completion of the Budgetary Process. A vote on account would be necessary to cover government’s expenditure for the period between the budget being presented and its being passed. A vote on account only pertains to the expenditure side. Explanation: Only option 2 is correct because a vote-anaccount deals only with the expenditure in Government's budget, while an interim budget includes both expenditure and receipts. But both, vote on account and interim budget are generally adopted by the a caretaker government in place of full budget. 55. Regarding the International Monetary Fund, which one of the following statements is correct? (a) It can grant loans to any country (b) It can grant loans to only developed countries (c) It can grant loans to only member countries (d) It can grant loans to the central bank of country Answer: (c): Source: CST Indian Economy, Page No. 199 AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
Under General Agreement to Borrow (GAB) 11 industrial countries have undertaken to lend to IMF. Right now the total borrowing can be $17 million from these nations. IMF lends to its members through a lot of schemes. 56. Consider the following: 1. Right to education 2. Right to equal access to public service 3. Right to food Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration Human Rights”? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (d) Explanation: All the three statements confer with Article 21, 25 and 26 of the declaration of Universal Declaration of Human Rights charter. This Universal Declaration of Human Rights as a common standard of achievement for all peoples and all nations, to the end that every individual and every organ of society, keeping this Declaration constantly in mind, shall strive by teaching and education to promote respect for these rights and freedoms and by progres- Performance CST sive measures, national 60 plus out of 100 and international, to secure their universal and Expected cut-off effective recognition 35/100 and observance, both among the peoples of Member States themselves and among the peoples of territories under their jurisdiction. Article I: All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights. They are endowed with reason and conscience and should act towards one another in a spirit of brotherhood. Article 2: Everyone is entitled to all the rights and freedoms set forth in this Declaration, without distinction of any kind, such as race, colour, sex, language, religion, political or other opinion, national or social origin, property, birth or other status. Furthermore, no distinction shall be made on the basis of the political, jurisdictional or international status of the country or territory to which a person belongs, whether it be independent, trust, non-self-governing or under any other limitation of sovereignty. Article 3: Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person. Article 4: No one shall be held in slavery or servitude; slavery and the slave trade shall be prohibited in all their forms. Article 5: No one shall be subjected to torture or to cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment. Article 6: Everyone has the right to recognition everywhere as a person before the law. Article 7: All are equal before the law and are entitled without any discrimination to equal protection of the law. All are entitled to equal protection against any discrimination in violation of this Declaration and against any incitement to such discrimination. Article 8: Everyone has the right to an effective remedy by the competent national tribunals for acts violating the fundamental rights granted him by the constitution or by law. Article 9: No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile.
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Article 10: Everyone is entitled in full equality to a fair and public hearing by an independent and impartial tribunal, in the determination of his rights and obligations and of any criminal charge against him. Article 11: (1) Everyone charged with a penal offence has the right to be presumed innocent until proved guilty according to law in a public trial at which he has had all the guarantees necessary for his defence. (2) No one shall be held guilty of any penal offence on account of any act or omission which did not constitute a penal offence, under national or international law, at the time when it was committed. Nor shall a heavier penalty be imposed than the one that was applicable at the time the penal offence was committed. Article 12: No one shall be subjected to arbitrary interference with his privacy, family, home or correspondence, nor to attacks upon his honour and reputation. Everyone has the right to the protection of the law against such interference or attacks. Article 13: (1) Everyone has the right to freedom of movement and residence within the borders of each State. (2) Everyone has the right to leave any country, including his own, and to return to his country. Article 14: (1) Everyone has the right to seek and to enjoy in other countries asylum from persecution. (2) This right may not be invoked in the case of prosecutions genuinely arising from non-political crimes or from acts contrary to the purposes and principles of the United Nations. Article 15: (1) Everyone has the right to a nationality. (2) No one shall be arbitrarily deprived of his nationality nor denied the right to change his nationality. Article 16: (1) Men and women of full age, without any limitation due to race, nationality or religion, have the right to marry and to found a family. They are entitled to equal rights as to marriage, during marriage and at its dissolution. (2) Marriage shall be entered into only with the free and full consent of the intending spouses. (3) The family is the natural and fundamental group unit of society and is entitled to protection by society and the State. Article 17: (1) Everyone has the right to own property alone as well as in association with others. (2) No one shall be arbitrarily deprived of his property. Article 18: Everyone has the right to freedom of thought, conscience and religion; this right includes freedom to change his religion or belief, and freedom, either alone or in community with others and in public or private, to manifest his religion or belief in teaching, practice, worship and observance. Article 19: Everyone has the right to freedom of opinion and expression; this right includes freedom to hold opinions without interference and to seek, receive and impart information and ideas through any media and regardless of frontiers. Article 20: (1) Everyone has the right to freedom of peaceful assembly and association. (2) No one may be compelled to belong to an association. Article 21: (1) Everyone has the right to take part in the government of his country, directly or through freely chosen representatives. (2) Everyone has the right to equal access to public serAUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
vice in his country. (3) The will of the people shall be the basis of the authority of government; this will shall be expressed in periodic and genuine elections which shall be by universal and equal suffrage and shall be held by secret vote or by equivalent free voting procedures. Article 22: Everyone, as a member of society, has the right to social security and is entitled to realization, through national effort and international co-operation and in accordance with the organization and resources of each State, of the economic, social and cultural rights indispensable for his dignity and the free development of his personality. Article 23: (1) Everyone has the right to work, to free choice of employment, to just and favourable conditions of work and to protection against unemployment. (2) Everyone, without any discrimination, has the right to equal pay for equal work. Performance CST (3) Everyone who works has the right to 60 plus out of 100 just and favourable re- Expected cut-off muneration ensuring 35/100 for himself and his family an existence worthy of human dignity, and supplemented, if necessary, by other means of social protection. (4) Everyone has the right to form and to join trade unions for the protection of his interests. Article 24: Everyone has the right to rest and leisure, including reasonable limitation of working hours and periodic holidays with pay. Article 25: (1) Everyone has the right to a standard of living adequate for the health and well-being of himself and of his family, including food, clothing, housing and medical care and necessary social services, and the right to security in the event of unemployment, sickness, disability, widowhood, old age or other lack of livelihood in circumstances beyond his control. (2) Motherhood and childhood are entitled to special care and assistance. All children, whether born in or out of wedlock, shall enjoy the same social protection. Article 26: (1) Everyone has the right to education. Education shall be free, at least in the elementary and fundamental stages. Elementary education shall be compulsory. Technical and professional education shall be made generally available and higher education shall be equally accessible to all on the basis of merit. (2) Education shall be directed to the full development of the human personality and to the strengthening of respect for human rights and fundamental freedoms. It shall promote understanding, tolerance and friendship among all nations, racial or religious groups, and shall further the activities of the United Nations for the maintenance of peace. (3) Parents have a prior right to choose the kind of education that shall be given to their children. Article 27: (1) Everyone has the right freely to participate in the cultural life of the community, to enjoy the arts and to share in scientific advancement and its benefits. (2) Everyone has the right to the protection of the moral and material interests resulting from any scientific, literary or artistic production of which he is the author. Article 28: Everyone is entitled to a social and international
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order in which the rights and freedoms set forth in this Declaration can be fully realized. Article 29: (1) Everyone has duties to the community in which alone the free and full development of his personality is possible. (2) In the exercise of his rights and freedoms, everyone shall be subject only to such limitations as are determined by law solely for the purpose of securing due recognition and respect for the rights and freedoms of others and of meeting the just requirements of morality, public order and the general welfare in a democratic society. (3) These rights and freedoms may in no case be exercised contrary to the purposes and principles of the United Nations. Article 30: Nothing in this Declaration may be interpreted as implying for any State, group or person any right to engage in any activity or to perform any act aimed at the destruction of any of the rights and freedoms set forth herein. 57. There is a concern over the increase in harmful algal blooms in the seawaters of India. What could be the causative factors for this phenomenon. 1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries. 2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon. 3. Upwelling in the seas. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (d): Source: CST General Science. Page No. 192. Eutrophication: Besides inorganic nutrient input with the inflow of wastewater, decomposition of organic wastes too, increases the nutrient content of the water bodies. Availability of excess nutrients causes profuse growth of algae (algal bloom), especially the blue-green algae. Such algal blooms may totally cover the water surface, often release toxins in water, and sometimes cause deficiency of oxygen in the water. Thus, in bloom-infested water body the growth of other algae may be inhibited due to toxins, and aquatic animals (e.g., fish) may die due to toxicity or lack of oxygen. The process of nutrient enrichment of water and consequent loss of species diversity is referred to as eutrophica Explanation: All the three statement correctly highlight the reasons for the formation of algal blooms in the seawaters of India. 58. Consider the following: 1. Photosynthesis 2. Respiration 3. Decay of organic matter 4. Volcanic action Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on Earth? (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 3 and 4 Answer: (c) Explanation: The processes of Respiration, Decaying of organic matter and volcanic action result in addition of Carbon dioxide, but the process of photosynthesis helps in removal of Carbon dioxide from the air and also assist the food production process of plants. 59. Recently, the USA decided to support India’s membership in multi-lateral export control regimes called the “AusAUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
tralia Group” and the “Wassenaar Arrangement”. What is the difference between them? 1. The Australia Group is an informal arrangement which aims to allow exporting countries to minimize the risk of assisting chemical and biological weapons proliferation, whereas the Wassennar Arrangement is a formal group under the OECD holding identical objectives. 2. The Australia Group comprises predominantly of Asian, African and North American countries, whereas the member countries of Wassenaar Arrangement are predominantly from the European Union and American continents. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (d) Explanation: Both the options are incorrect. The Australia Group (AG) is an informal forum of countries which, through the harmonisation of export controls, seeks to ensure that exports do not contribute to the development of chemical or biological weapons, while the Wassenaar Arrangement, formally established in July 1996, is Performance CST a voluntary export con60 plus out of 100 trol regime whose 40 members exchange in- Expected cut-off formation on transfers 35/100 of conventional weapons and dual-use goods and technologies. Australia Group has 41 members, including all Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) members except Mexico, the European Commission, all 27 Member States of the European Union, Croatia, Ukraine and Argentina. There is not even a single member from Africa. 60. The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid. What is the reason? (a) Ice is a bad conductor of heat (b) Since the surface of the lake is at the same temperature as the air, no heat is lost (c) The density of water is maximum at 40C (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct Answer: (c) Explanation: At 4 °C, water has the least volume and maximum density. This expansion plays an important role by only freezing the upper layer in lakes and rivers. 61. A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species. The animal has no predators in that area but its existence is threatened due to the destruction of its habitat. Which one of the following could be that animal? (a) Indian wild buffalo (b) Indian wild ass (c) Indian wild boar (d) Indian gazelle Answer: (both b and c): Source: CST Geography: India and the World, Page No. 190 The biome represents the largest number of domesticated mammals because of the development of agriculture. (The lions of Gir forest of Gujarat, together with other animals like leopards, spotted deer, sambhar deer, Indian gazelle, Nilgai antelope, wild boar etc. are now endangered species because of enormous destruction of the Gir forest Ecosystem.)
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62. La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in Australia. How is La Nina different from El Nino? 1. La Nina is characterized by unusually cold ocean temperature in equatorial Indian Ocean whereas El Nino is characterized by unusually warm ocean temperature in the equatorial Pacific Ocean. 2. El Nino has adverse effect on south-west monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect on monsoon climate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (d): Source: CST Geography: India and the World, Page No. 418 El-Nino effect-It is responsible for the widespread flood and drought in the tropical regions of the world. Sometimes it increases becomes intense and increases the water temperature by 10 degree centigrade. This increase of temperature of tropical pacific waters affects the global pattern of pressure and wind systems including the monsoon winds in the Indian Ocean. La Nina-Sometimes trade winds become so strong that they cause abnormal accumulation of cold water in the central and the eastern Pacific Ocean, which is called La Nina. It marks an active hurricane season. For India this La Nina is exceptionally good as it is the harbinger of heavy monsoon showers in India. Explanation: El Nino and La Nina are opposite phases of the same oscillation (El Nino Southern Oscillation) cantered in the Tropical Pacific Ocean. During the period of El Niño weather that occurs in tropical waters of the Pacific Ocean. It affects the region across the Pacific from Performance CST New Guinea to South America, known as the 60 plus out of 100 Equatorial Pacific. Dur- Expected cut-off ing an El Niño season, 35/100 which occurs on average every 2-7 years, a shift in ocean currents and winds brings warm water in a westerly direction, displacing the usual cold water that comes up from the ocean depths. As well as affecting marine life, the El Niño has an effect on weather patterns. La Niña is the opposite of El Nino. It involves cooler than normal sea temperatures in the same part of the Pacific Ocean. This means that weather conditions, etc, are in reverse to those seen during El Niño. La Nina has a beneficial effect on Indian Monsoon. 63. The tendency for increased litigation was visible after the introduction of the land settlement system of Lord Cornwallis in 1793. The reason for this is normally traced to which of the following provisions? (a) Making Zamindar’s position stronger vis-a-vis the ryot (b) Making East India Company an overlord of Zamindars (c) Making judicial system more efficient. (d) None of the (a), (b) and (c) above Answer: (d): Source: CST Indian History, Page No. 312 The litigation increased because of the Cornwallis Code which was introduced in 1793 with following features : (1) It was based on the concept of separation of powers (2) The Collector was the head of the revenue administration and divested him of all the judicial and magisterial powers. (3) District Judge was appointed as the head of the judiciary AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
at the district level. (4) A gradation of civil courts was set up. (5) The distinction between revenue and civil cases abolished. Regulation IX of 1793 amended the law of evidence by providing that the religious persuasions of witnesses shall not be considered as a bar to the conviction or condemnation of a prisoner. 64. Which one of the following observations is not true about the Quit India Movement of 1942? (a) It was a non-violent movement (b) It was led by Mahatma Gandhi (c) It was a spontaneous movement (d) It did not attract the labour class in general Answer: (a): Source: CST Indian History, Page No. 394 Besides various violent activities during the QIM, on 8th August, 1942, at Gowlia Tank in Bombay, Gandhiji announced four things: 1.“forget the difference between Hindu and Muslim and you are only Indians.” 2. “you are not fighting against the British, but against British imperialism.” 3. “feel that from today you are a free man and not dependent.” 4. “do or die” - either free India or die in the attempt. 65. Which amongst the following provided a common factor for tribal insurrection in India in the 19th century? (a) Introduction of a new system of land revenue and taxation of tribal products (b) Influence of foreign religious missionaries in tribal areas (c) Rise of a large number of money lenders, traders and revenue farmers as middlemen in tribal areas (d) The complete disruption of the old agrarian order of the tribal communities. Answer: (a): Source: CST Indian History, Page No. 448449 Munda (Uluguhan): 1874-1900, took place in Santhal Pargana, led by Birsa Munda because the Khuntkanti (Joint ownership) land system was eroded. Santhal Uprisings : 1855, took place in Santhal Parganas against the British rule, its policies of revenue and forestry. Explanation: The new land new system of land revenue and taxation of tribal products initially British disrupted the tribal mode of production and did not replace it with any other mode of production and after that we saw the emergence of middle class, missionaries activities increased. So, the first cause was the new system of land revenue followed by the others. 66. India maintained its early cultural contacts and trade links with Southeast Asia across the Bay of Bengal. For this pre-eminence of early maritime history of Bay of Bengal, which of the following could be the most convincing explanation/explanations? (a) As compared to other countries, India had better shipbuilding technology in ancient and medieval times (b) The rulers of southern India always patronized traders, brahmin priests and buddhist monks in this context (c) Monsoon winds across the Bay of Bengal facilitated sea voyages (d) Both (a) and (b) are convincing explanations in this con-
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text Answer: (d) Explanation: All the three options seem to be correct but no option has given which has included all the three. 67. What is the difference between Blue-tooth and Wi-Fi devices? (a) Bluetooth uses 2.4 GHz radio frequency band, whereas Wi-Fi can use 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency band (b) Bluetooth is used for Wireless Local Area Networks (WLAN) only, whereas Wi-Fi is used for Wireless Wide Area Networks (WWAN) only. (c) When information is transmitted between two devices using Blue-tooth technology, the devices have to be in the line of sight of each other, but when Wi-Fi technology is used the devices need not be in the line of sight of each other. (d) The statements (a) and (b) given above are correct in this context Answer: (a): Source: CST Science and Technology, Page No. 128. But there is certain significant difference between them. They are: (a) While Wi-Fi is deployed on a LAN, Bluetooth is used to create a Personal Area Network (PAN). (b) While Bluetooth is more applicable in connecting two point-to-point devices, Wi-Fi is more of a network (multipoint) protocol. (c) Bluetooth is more of a wireless alternative for connecting devices such as digital cameras, PDAs and mobile phones with each other computer and it takes less power than Wi-Fi and therefore, bluetooth is preferred for connections and data transfer in low-powered handhelds. (d) Wi-Fi is aimed at networking computers with other without wires. Blue-tooth has less bandwidth than Wi-Fi. The Indian Government’s Wireless Planning and Coordination Wing have delicensed the indoor use of WLAN equipment using IEEE-802.11b. Explanation: Only the statement number 1 is correct. Bluetooth uses 2.4GHz radio frequency band, whereas WiFi can use 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency band. Wi-Fi is used for both- WLAN and WWAN and Bluetooth doesn't require line of sight between communicating devices. 68. With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced 2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land farming 3. In some areas of farming, receding of ground water table can be checked Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (c) Explanation: Micro irrigation is a water-efficient method of irrigation that is being increasingly used in areas of low irrigation resources. With this the fertilizer/nutrient loss and depletion of ground water can be reduced. To help with water conservation, drip irrigation and drip sprinkler systems are employed for lawn irrigation, garden irrigation, greenhouse watering and landscape irrigation. Hence statement 1 and 3 are correct while the statement 2 is incorrect because of the use of the word "only". AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
69. With reference to the period of colonial rule in India. “Home Charges” formed an important part of drain of wealth from India. Which of the following funds constituted “Home Charges”? 1. Funds used to support the India Office in London 2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British personnel engaged in India. 3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the British Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (d): Source: CST September 2010, Page No. 28 Dadabhai Naoroji was first to decipher the complex mechanism of drain of wealth by the way of (a) remittances to England by European employed for the support of their families and education of their children. (b) remittances of savings by employees of the company, since most employees preferred to invest at home. (c) remittances for the purchases of British goods in India. (d) Government purchase of stores Performance CST manufactured in 60 plus out of 100 Britain. (e) Interest charges on public debt Expected cut-off 35/100 held in for productive loans. (f) Home Charges : (i) the expenses of the office of Secretary of States; (ii) pensions of the British Indian officers and army officials; (iii) Army training, transport and campaigns outside India but charged on Indian revenue, (iv) drain through council bill. The drain of wealth considerably affected the circulation of money and capital formation of India. 70. What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organize a satyagraha on behalf of the peasants of Kheda? 1. The Administration did not suspend the land revenue collection in spite of a drought. 2. The Administration proposed to introduce Permanent Settlement in Gujarat Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (a): Source: CST Indian History, Page No. 377 Kheda: Cause : Extreme distress due to a failure of crops, no remission was given; Gandhiji was helped by Vallabhabhai Patel, Indulal Yagnik B.B.Patel, A.Sarabhai. The inquiry into the cause of the peasants was conducted by Vithalbhai Patel, G.K.Parekh. Government, finally, ordered to collect the tax only from those who are in a position to give it. 71. Which one of the following is not a feature of “Value Added Tax”? (a) It is a multi-point destination based system of taxation (b) It is a tax levied on value addition at each stage of transaction in the production-distribution chain (c) It is a tax on the final consumption of goods or services and must ultimately be borne by the consumer (d) It is basically a subject of the Central Governments are only a facilitator for its successful implementation. Answer: (d): Source: CST Indian Economy, Page No. 145. It is regarded as the fastest growing tax in the world. The
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road map for the implementation by the states of a fullfledged VAT system requires that the (Central Sales Tax (CST) phase-out begin by 2007-08. As a part of states’ compensation package for the phasing out CST, states are given the right to levy-VAT on imports. Advantages of VAT: 1. VAT is multi stage tax levied on all stages of production distribution of a commodity. 2. Under VAT each input is taxed only is taxed only once. Since an input is taxed only ones VAT avoids cascading effect which is the chief advantage of the traditional system of excise and sales taxation. Explanation: Value Added Tax is a multi-point sales tax with set off for tax paid on purchases. It is basically a tax on the value addition on the product. The burden of tax is ultimately born by the consumer of goods. In many aspects it is equivalent to last point sales tax. Sales Tax/VAT in India is a subject matter of state governments and the central government plays the role of facilitator in implementation of VAT. Option 1, 2, 3 are correct and option 4 is incorrect. Hence the correct answer is option D. 72. A "closed economy" is an economy in which (a) the money supply is fully controlled (b) deficit financing takes place (c) only exports take place (d) neither exports nor imports take place Answer: (d) Source: Indian Economy, Page No. 467. Mahalanobis: It was Mahalanobis two sector model was based on following assumptions: (a) it is related to a closed economy where there is no foreign trade. Explanation: A closed economic model is considered an anomaly in the world today; a closed economy is a strategy that focuses all economic transactions inward rather than outward. The idea behind the closed economy is to meet all consumer needs with the purchase and sale of goods and services that are produced internally. In addition to meeting the needs and desires of all consumers within the economy, the method also excludes the possibility of exporting goods and services. Thus, the economy is considered to be completely self-sufficient. 73. When the bark of a tree is removed in a circular fashion all around near its base, it gradually dries up and dies because (a) Water from soil cannot rise to aerial parts (b) Roots are starved of energy (c) Tree is infected by soil microbes (d) Roots do not receive oxygen for respiration Answer: (a) Explanation: Removing the bark of a tree amounts to a process called "girdling" which prevents water and food from getting distributed throughout the tree. 74. The "New START" treaty was in the news. What is this treaty? (a) It is a bilateral strategic nuclear arms reduction treaty between the USA and the Russian Federation (b) It is a multilateral energy security cooperation treaty among the members of the East Asia Summit (c) It is a treaty between the Russian Federation and the European Union for the energy security cooperation (d) It is a multilateral cooperation treaty among the BRICS countries for the promotion of trade AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
Answer: (a): Source: CST February 2011, Page No. 19 (Box). An arms control treaty paring back the US and Russian nuclear arsenal has won a decisive vote in the US Senate. Now the treaty's way for the final approval by President Obama is awaited. The Senate voted 67 to 28 to end debate on the treaty, known as New Start, mustering the two-thirds majority needed for ratification despite a concerted effort by Republican leaders to sink the agreement. The Republican critics called it a bad deal, arguing that the treaty's inspections were inadequate and non-binding language in its preamble could give Russia leverage to try to keep the US from deploying missile defence installations in Eastern Europe. It would also resume onsite inspections that lapsed last December when the original Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty or START expired in 2009. The US currently has 1950 deployed strategic warheads and 798 launchers, while the Russian side has 2540 deployed strategic warhead and 574 strategic launchers. Obama and his supporters argue that ratification is a key to build and maintain an international coalition against Iran's nuclear programme. 75. Three of the following criteria have contributed to the recognition of Western Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity: 1. Species richness 2. Vegetation density 3. Endemism 4. Ethno-botanical importance 5. Threat perception 6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm and humid conditions Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context? (a) 1, 2 and 6 (b) 2, 4 and 6 (c) 1, 3 and 5 (d) 3, 4 and 6 Answer: (c) Explanation: The concept of biodiversity hotspots was originated by Norman Myers. A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with a significant reservoir of Performance CST biodiversity that is un60 plus out of 100 der threat from humans. There are two Expected cut-off factors that determine a 35/100 hot spot: (a) Number of endemic species i.e. the species which are found nowhere else. (b) Degree of threat which is measured in terms of habitat loss. All over the world 25 areas have been identified as hot spots out of which 4 are in India i.e. Himalayas, Western Ghats, North East India and Andaman and Nicobar Islands. 76. Human activities in the recent past have caused the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, but a lot of it does not remain in the lower atmosphere because of 1. its escape into the outer stratosphere. 2. the photosynthesis by phyto-plankton in the oceans. 3. the trapping of air in the polar ice caps. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
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Answer: (b). Explanation: Oceans act as the largest 'sink' for carbon dioxide on earth. 77. In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling zones are important as they increase the marine productivity by bringing the 1. decomposer microorganisms to the surface. 2. nutrients to the surface. 3. bottom-dwelling organisms to- the surface. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only Answer: (b) Explanation: Upwelling is an oceanographic phenomenon that involves wind-driven motion of dense, cooler, and usually nutrient-rich water towards the ocean surface, replacing the warmer, usually nutrient-depleted surface water. The increased availability in upwelling regions results in high levels of primary productivity and thus fishery production. 78. If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because (a) the soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients (b) propagules of the trees in a rain forest have poor viability (c) the rain forest species are slow-growing (d) exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain forest Answer: (a): Source: CST Geography: India and the World, Page No. 189 The number of plant species is less in the tropical deciduous biome than the tropical evergreen rain forest biome. Trees have large hydromorphic leaves or small, hard xeromorphic leaves. (The large hydromorphic leaves enable the trees to trap more and more rainfall during wet seasons, but these large leaves are shed in dry periods to conserve moisture. Where as small and hard xeromorphic leaves enable the trees to withstand dry weather and water deficiencies.) There are numerous lianas and epiphytes but they are less in number than the rain forest biome. Sal, Teak and Bamboo are common trees. Animal life – There are comparatively less number of animal species than the rain forest biome. Explanation: It is difficult to regenerate the tropical rain forest because the soils of tropical rainforests are heavily leached and lacks necessary nutrients to enable to recover. 79. The Himalayan Range is very rich in species diversity. Which one among the following is the most appropriate reason for this phenomenon? (a) It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth (b) It is a confluence of different bio-geographical zones (c) Exotic and invasive species have not been introduced in this region (d) It has less human interference Answer: (b) Explanation: The confluence of different bio-geographical zones like Mediterranean, Indo-Chinese, and Australian etc. is the major reason for the rich species diversity of Himalayan Range. Hence option B is the best suited one. 80. With reference to India, consider the following Central AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
Acts: 1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947 2. Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) Act, 1957 3. Customs Act, 1962 4. Indian Forest Act, 1927 Which of the above Acts have relevance to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation in the country? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) None of the above Acts Answer: (c) Explanation: All the Acts mentioned in the question contain provisions for biodiversity in the country. 81. Karl Marx explained the process of class struggle with the help of which one of the following theories? (a) Empirical liberalism (b) Existentialism (c) Darwin's theory of evolution (d) Dialectical materialism Answer: (d) Explanation: Dialectical materialism is the philosophy of Marxism, which provides us with a scientific and comprehensive world outlook. It is the philosophical bedrock - the method - on which the whole of Marxist doctrine is founded. 82. A layer in the Earth's atmosphere called Ionosphere facilitates radio communication. Why? 1. The presence of ozone causes the reflection of radio waves to Earth. 2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (b): Source: CST Geography: India and the World, Page No. 103: This layer is called Kennelly Heaviside Layer (99-130 kms) here interaction takes place between solar-ultra-violet photons with nitrogen. Ionization in the F1 region is produced mainly by ejection of electrons from O2, O, and N2. The threshold for ionization of O2 corresponds to a wavelength of 102.7 nanometres. Thresholds for O2 and N2 are at 91.1 and 79.6 nanometres, respectively. Explanation: Ionosphere reflects those waves only that have longer wavelengths, for eg. AM and Radio waves. Short wavelengths are not reflected by the ionosphere. Ionosphere facilitates radio communication because of the presence of electrically charged ions in it and not ozone. Radio waves have the longest wavelengths in Performance CST the electromagnetic 60 plus out of 100 spectrum. These waves can be longer than a Expected cut-off football field or as short 35/100 as a football. Radio waves do more than just bring music to your radio. They also carry signals for your television and cellular phones. 83. Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two? (a) FII helps bring better management skills and technology, while FDI only brings in capital
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(b) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors (c) FDI flows only into the secondary market, while FII targets primary market (d) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI Answer: (b) Explanation: FDI is more stable and there is less amount of scope for hot money. 84. A genetically engineered form of brinjal, known as the Bt-brinjal, has been developed. The objective of this is (a) To make it pest-resistant (b) To improve its taste and nutritive qualities (c) To make it drought-resistant (d) To make its shelf-life longer Answer: (a): Source: CST Science and Technology, Page 581. Why Bt. Brinjal should be introduced? 1. Both Bt. Cotton and Bt. Brinjal are genetically modified (GM) crops basically incorporate the same foreign cry1Ac gene sourced from a soil bacterium called Bacillus thuringiensis or Bt. 2. This gene codes for a protein toxic to insect pests belonging to the lepidoptera order, which include the cotton bollworm and the fruit and shoot borer (FSB) in brinjal. 3. An important point to note here is that BT protein acts as mid-gut toxin and thus has practically no impact on other insects or humans with acidic pH in the gut. 4. The mode of action is similar in both cases. When the bollworm or FSB larvae feed on plants containing the cry1Ac gene, they also ingest the protein synthesised by it. 5. This protein then binds itself to the mid-gut of the larvae, disrupting their metabolic activity causing eventual death. The Bt proteins are toxic only to lepidopteran insects, simply because other organisms — human beings included — lack the specific receptors in their guts to bind these proteins. 6. Mahyco says that it was no different from the normal brinjal. The acidic medium of human digestive system would neutralise the gene that was targeted at fruit and shoot borer in brinjal. If approved, Bt brinjal will be the first GM food in the country being developed by Maharashtra Hybrid Seeds Company, (Mahyco) a subsidiary of the US multinational Monsanto. 7. The data from over 10 trials spread in different Performance CST agroclimatic zones was 60 plus out of 100 evaluated for two years by GEAC and found to Expected cut-off be satisfactory and ap35/100 proval for seed production of seven BT Brinjal hybrids was granted by last year. 8. Apart from Mahyco, BT technology for brinjal has been developed both by private and public sector institutions like the National Research Centre on Plant Biotechnology at the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) in partnership with Bejo Sheetal Seeds, Krishidhan Seeds, Nath Seeds, Vibha Agro-tech, and Indian Institute of Horticulture Research. The National Research Centre on Plant Biotechnology is also working towards developing drought and salt resistant brinjal. 9. Initially, a 450-gm packet of Bt. hybrid seeds, based on Monsanto’s proprietary gene construct, was being sold for AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
Rs 1,600. But over time, the prices fell to Rs 650-750 — courtesy mainly proactive State Governments that forced Monsanto to accept a lower technology fee. Explanation: The main objective of developing Bt brinjal hybrids and varieties is to control the damage caused by the stem and fruit borers (SFB) of brinjal. 85. With reference to "Aam Admi Bima Yojana", consider the following statements: 1. The member insured under the scheme must be the head of the family or an earning member of the family in a rural landless household. 2. The member insured must be in the age group of 30 to 65 years. 3. There is a provision for free scholarship for up to two children of the insured who are studying between classes 9 and 12. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (c): Explanation: Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana (AABY) covers death and disability insurance for the benefit of rural landless households in the country. To entail the benefits of the scheme the member should be aged between 18 and 59 years and should be either the head of the rural landless household or an earning member in the family. The scheme also provides scholarship benefit for the children of the members. A scholarship at the rate of Rs. 100/- per month will be given to maximum two children studying between 9th to 12th standard. This scholarship is payable half yearly-on 1st July and on 1st January each year. Hence option 1 and 3 are only correct. 86. In the Union Budget 2011-12, a full exemption from the basic customs duty was extended to the bio-based asphalt (bioasphalt). What is the importance of this material? 1. Unlike traditional asphalt, bio-asphalt is not based on fossil fuels. 2. Bioasphalt can be made from non-renewable resources. 3. Bioasphalt can be made from organic waste materials. 4. It is eco-friendly to use bioasphalt for surfacing of the roads. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer: (b) Explanation: Bioasphalt is categorized as a renewable resource alternate to petroleum products. Bioasphalt is an asphalt based alternative which is being made from nonpetroleum based resources. Bioasphalt is made from corn, molasses, potato starch, rice and sugar. Bioasphalt is a product from wastages as main ingredients, thus waste management plays a vital role in the process of making petrol alternative. 87. Consider the following: 1. Carbon dioxide 2. Oxides of Nitrogen 3. Oxides of Sulphur Which of the above is/are the emission/ emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (d): Source: CST General Science, Page 189. Sulphur dioxide (SO2 is the major constituent in the emission when sulphur- containing coal is burnt. Page No. 190: Nitrogen oxides (NOx), VOCs and SO2 are produced during the combustion of coal (in industry) and petroleum (in automobile). Source: CST Science and Technology, Page No. 376. Currently, the atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration is rising at about 0.4 per cent per annum, and this rise is caused almost entirely by the combustion of fossil fuels (coal, oil and natural gas). Explanation: All the three are the major emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants. Hence option D is the correct one. 88. Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when: 1. The orbit is geosynchronous. 2. The orbit is circular, 3. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth's equator. 4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2,3 and 4 Answer: (a) Source: CST Science and Technology, Page 418. An orbit is distinguished by three factors: (a) its shape, (b) its altitude, and (c) the angle it makes with Earth’s equator. Most orbits are circular, but some satellites use elliptical orbits. Geo-synchronous Orbit: A satellite in a geosynchronous orbit (GEO) follows a circular orbit over the equator. The satellite orbits at an elevation of approximately 35,790 km because that produces an orbital period (time Performance CST for one orbit) equal to 60 plus out of 100 the period of rotation of the Earth (23 hrs, 56 Expected cut-off mins, 4.09 secs). By or35/100 biting at the same rate, in the same direction as Earth, the satellite appears stationary (synchronous with respect to the rotation of the Earth). Geostationary satellites provide a "big picture" view, enabling coverage of weather events. This is especially useful for monitoring severe local storms and tropical cyclones. Because a geostationary orbit must be in the same plane as the Earth's rotation, that is the equatorial plane, it provides distorted images of the polar regions with poor spatial resolution. Explanation: The statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct but the 4th one is wrong because ageostationary orbit is at an altitude of 22, 236 miles, not km, as is given in the question. In km, the altitude comes to be 35,786 km. hence the statement 4 is wrong. 89. India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reasons? 1. Due to a gradual switch over to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30 per cent. 2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the percent people have undergone a sigAUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
nificant change. 3. The food supply chain has structural constraints. Which of the statements given above 1 are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (b): Source: CST April 2011, Page 12 and Col 3 The inflation pressure was aggravated by global prices and the rising purchasing power aiding spurt in food prices. 90. At present, scientists can determine the arrangement or relative positions of genes or DNA sequences on a chromosome. How does this knowledge benefit us? 1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock. 2. It is possible to understand the causes of all human diseases. 3. It is possible to develop disease-resistant animal breeds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (d): Explanation: The current scientific developments and the science of DNA sequencing allows us to treat every disease including the genetic disorder. 91. In terms of economy, the visit by foreign nationals to witness the XIX Common Wealth Games in India amounted to (a) Export (b) Import (c) Production (d) Consumption Answer: (a): Source: CST December 2010, Page No. 32 In fact, investments in these events may pave the way for the future investments and business and in a world of globalization without proper investment no business can be sustained. Therefore, these events have multi-dimensional impact over the future prospectus of the country in the world market. Explanation: Tourism is a tertiary industry, or more specifically comes under the category of service industry. In terms of economy it functions as an export. If we make a good of service and send it overseas it is an export. If someone travels to our country buys something and brings it back with them that thing is an export. With tourism foreign money is buying local goods and services, hence it is an export. 92. Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of sustainable energy. Why? 1. They use living organisms as catalysts to generate electricity from certain substrates. 2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates. 3. They can be installed in waste water, treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (c) Explanation: Statement 1 and 3 are correct but statement 2 is incorrect because the substrates used in microbial fuel cells are of organic origin. For e.g. Lactate, glucose, acetate, etc. 93. Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the "fiscal stimulus"? (a) It is a massive investment by the Government in manu-
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facturing sector to ensure the supply of goods to meet the demand surge caused by rapid economic growth (b) It is an intense affirmative action of the Government to boost economic activity in the country (c) It is Government's intensive action on financial institutions to ensure disbursement of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater food production and contain food inflation (d) It is an extreme affirmative action by the Government to pursue its policy of financial inclusion Answer: (b): Source: CST Indian Economy, Page No. 130. On the other hand, the second component, i.e. discretionary fiscal policy actions, after remaining relatively weak up to 2007-08, had shown increases in 2008-09 and 2009-10 which can be attributed to revenue losses due to slowdown in the economy and duty cut together with higher expenditure to provide fiscal stimulus to sustain economic growth. Explanation: Fiscal stimulus basically means government measures, involving increased public spending and lower taxation, aimed at giving a positive jolt to economic activity. 94. The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for the formation of this hole? (a) Presence of prominent tropospheric turbulence; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons (b) Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric' clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons (c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of methane and chlorofluorocarbons (b) Increased temperature at polar region due to global warming Answer: (b): Source: CST Year Book 2011, Page No. 15. The Maldives has pledged to phase out by 2020 a group of chemicals (hydrochloroflurocarbons (HCFCs)) which thin out the earth’s ozone layer and warm the atmosphere, according to the UN Environment Programme. Explanation: The severe depletion of stratospheric ozone in Antarctic winter is known as the "ozone hole". The formation of the Antarctic ozone hole is due to abundant reactive halogen gases, temperatures low enough to form polar stratospheric clouds (PSCs), isolation of air from other stratospheric regions, and sunlight. Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons accelerates the ozone layer formation in Antarctica. Hence option B is the correct one. 95. Consider the following actions which the Government can take: 1. Devaluing the domestic currency. 2. Reduction in the export subsidy. 3. Adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI and more funds from FIIs. Which of the above action/actions can help in reducing the current account deficit? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 Answer: (d) Source: CST Indian Economy Special 2011, Page No. 179 The decline in exports of goods and services in response to weak global demand had a dampening impact on overall GDP growth. However, a higher current account deficit led AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
to stronger absorption of foreign capital. This implied higher investment activity financed by foreign capital, which partly contributed to the stronger recovery in growth. Major determinants of BoP transactions such as external demand, international oil and commodity prices, pattern of capital flows and the exchange rate changed significantly during the course of the year. With the turnaround in exports and revival in capital flows, external sector concerns receded gradually in the second half of 2009-10. CST Indian Economy Special 2011, Page No. 222 Devaluation is a fall in the fixed exchange rate between one currency and others. Devaluation is used to correct the Balance of Payments (BoP) deficit but only as a last Performance CST resort as it has major 60 plus out of 100 repercussions on the domestic economy. De- Expected cut-off valuation can correct a 35/100 BoP deficit because it lowers the price of exports in terms of foreign currencies and raise the price of imports on the home market. Explanation: Four fundamental ways to reduce the current account deficit are: - (a) Devalue the currency. (b) Decrease demand for imports. (c) Improving exports. (d) Attracting greater FDI and more funds from FIIs. 96. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following? 1. Constitution of District Planning Committees. 2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections. 3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (c): Source: CST Indian Political System, Page No. 363. Part IX - article 243 1. Reviving gram sabha constitution of panchayats at village and other levels; 2. Direct elections to all; 3. Reservation of seats SC/ST- 1/3rd for women; 4. Duration 5 years for panchayats and holding elections within period of months in the event of suppression of any panchayat; 5. Powers to panchayats - preparation of plans for economic development and social justices; 6. Setting up of Finance commission in the states for periodical review of their financial position; also audit of accounts of panchayat 7. Setting up of the Election Commissions the states for 8. Bar to interference by covert in electoral matters; 9. Amendment is article 280 needed to augment Consolidated Fund of States to supplement the recommendation of state Finance Commission. 10. 11th Schedule - Providing the Panchayats with list containing of 29 items. Explanation: Statement 2 and 3 are correct while statement 1 is incorrect because the constitution of District Planning Committees is provided by Article 243ZD which was inserted in the Constitution by 74th Amendment. 97. Two important rivers - one with its source in Jharkhand (and known by a different name in Odisha), and another,
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with its source in Odisha - merge at a place only a short distance from the coast of Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This is an important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area. Which one of the following could be this? (a) Bhitarkanika (b) Chandipur-on-sea (c) Gopalpur-on-sea (d) Simlipal Answer: (a): Source: CST Geography: India and the World, Page No. 458-459 Deepor Beel in Assam, Kabar in Bihar, Surahtal in Uttar Pradesh), Lagoons (e.g., Chilika in Orissa), Crater Wetlands (Lonar lake in Maharashtra), Salt water Wetlands (e.g., Pangong Tso in Jammu and Kashmir and Sambhar in Rajasthan), Urban Wetlands (e.g., Dal Lake in Jammu and Kashmir, Nainital in Uttaranchal and Bhoj in Madhya Pradesh), Ponds/Tanks, man-made Wetlands (e.g., Harike in Punjab and Pong Dam in Himachal Pradesh), Reservoirs (e.g., Idukki, Hirakund dam, Bhakra-Nangal dam), Mangroves (e.g., Bhitarkanika in Orissa), Coral reefs (e.g., Lakshadweep), Creeks (Thane Creek in Maharashtra), seagrasses, estuaries, thermal springs are some kinds of wetlands in the country. Page 460: Bhitarkanika and Gahir-matha Beaches (famous for Olive Ridley turtle) are wetlands in Orissa. Explanation: The confluence of rivers Brahmani and Baitarani is the site of the Bhitarkanika National Park. River Brahmani originates in Jharkhand in the name of Sankh and Baitarni originates in Odisha. Hence option A is the correct one. 98. A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is sometimes attributed to the "base effect". What is "base effect"? (a) It is the impact of drastic deficiency in supply due to failure of crops (b) It is the impact of the surge in demand due to rapid economic growth (c) It is the impact of the price levels of previous year on the calculation of inflation rate (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) 'given above is correct in this context Answer: (c): Source: CST Indian Economy, Page No 416. The best performer in terms of growth during 2002-03 to 2008-09 was Gujarat, followed by Bihar, Orissa, Haryana, and Uttarakhand. States like Madhya Pradesh, Assam, Punjab, and Uttar Pradesh registered a relatively lower growth rate. Interestingly, the best performer in 2008-09 was Bihar with a growth rate of 16.59 per cent. While the good growth performance of some of the hitherto backward states like Bihar and Orissa is a welcome sign, this may also be partially due to the low base effect because of the growth deficit in earlier years. Explanation: The base effect relates to inflation in the corresponding period of the previous year. For e.g. if the inflation rate was two low in the corresponding period of the previous year, even a smaller rise in the Price Index will arithmetically give a high rate of inflation now; On the other hand if the price index had risen at a high rate in the corresponding period of the previous year and recorded high inflation rate, a similar absolute increase in the Price index now will show a lower inflation rate now. 99. India is regarded as a country with "Demographic Dividend". This is due to AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
(a) Its high population in the age group below 15 years (b) Its high population in the age group of 15-64 years (c) Its high population in the age group above 65 years (d) Its high total population Answer: (b): Source: CST July 2011, Page No. 92 Our "demographic dividend" of a relatively younger population compared to developed countries is as much of an opportunity as it is a challenge. Explanation: India's demographic dividend: that its working-age (15-59 years) population, as of now, largely consists of youth (15-34 years). 100. Regarding "carbon, credits", which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol (b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission quota (c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission (d) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations Environment Programme Answer: (d): Source: CST December 2010, Page No.87 and Col I and II. Worth of global carbon markets in 2007 almost doubled compared to 2006 with EU Emission Trading System emerging as largest operational trading scheme. Performance CST The primary CDM mar60 plus out of 100 ket increased marginally by 25 per cent com- Expected cut-off pared to a 10-fold in35/100 crease in the secondary CDM market. China has emerged as a clear front-runner in CDM while share of other BRIC nations remains fluctuating - India's contribution dipped half to 6 per cent in 2007. According to a report released by World Bank has indicated that China is far ahead of India in terms of carbon credit business. China has become the world leader in the carbon credit business with a market share of 73 per cent in the volume of credits traded in 2007 as compared to India's 6 per cent. Carbon credits are generated under the Clean Development Mechanism, mandated by the UN, where developed countries having greenhouse gas emission reduction targets offset them by funding clean technology in developing nations. In return, they earn the credits that they can use to set off their reduction targets. Explanation: Statement 1, 2 and 3 related to carbon credits are correct but the statement 4 is incorrect because the carbon credit prices are not fixed by UNEP. Regarding the trading of carbon credits it is here underscored that there are also many companies that sell carbon credits to commercial and individual customers who are interested in lowering their carbon footprint on a voluntary basis. The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), defined in Article 12 of the Protocol, allows a country with an emission-reduction or emission-limitation commitment under the Kyoto Protocol (Annex B Party) to implement an emission-reduction project in developing countries. Such projects can earn saleable certified emission reduction (CER) credits, each equivalent to one tonne of CO2, which can be counted towards meeting Kyoto targets. The mechanism is
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seen by many as a trailblazer. It is the first global, environmental investment and credit scheme of its kind, providing a standardized emissions offset instrument, CERs. A CDM project activ-
ity might involve, for example, a rural electrification project using solar panels or the installation of more energyefficient boilers. The mechanism stimulates sustainable development and
General Studies Strategy to deal with changing trend
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ith the aim of making the Civil Services more competitive and challenging the UPSC has time and again introduced significant changes in its pattern of examination. The latest in the series was announced with last year, when the Optional Subject at the Preliminary examination was replaced by a Civil Services Aptitude Test at the entry level of the examination. From this year (2011) onwards, the Preliminary examination consists of two papers. Paper I - General Studies and Paper II- Aptitude Test. With the elimination of optional paper and introduction of Aptitude paper, the General Studies paper has assumed all the more significance for the candidates. Not only this, a close analysis of this year’s examination concludes that the UPSC has significantly changed the nature of questions that are asked in the General Studies paper. The questions have become more general in nature and their number has also been reduced to 100 (Earlier there were 150 questions in GS paper and in 2011 paper the number of questions has been reduced to 100). Though the reduced number of question gives a little extra time for candidates to answer them but simultaneously the changing nature of questions possess a challenge for them. A careful analysis of this year’s GS question GS 2011 Analysis paper reveals that the major focus of the Section No. of UPSC has been on Geography and Economic Questions issues, they together carry 43 per cent of the Geography 21 weightage of the question paper. Another Ancient History 4 significant fact is that the Mental ability Modern History 9 portion has been eliminated from the GS Biodiversity 6 paper and it has been shifted to Paper II i.e. Physics 2 Aptitude section. Change is an inevitable Chemistry 3 part of the ICS examination, and the past Biology 8 few years have proved that one has to be Indian Polity 9 fully prepared to face the difficult nature of International Relations 3 this examination. It’s not only hard work Social Issues 3 that will take one to the final destination; Science & Technology 6 it’s going to be a healthy combination of Current News 4 intelligence and hard work that will take the Economic Issues 22 candidates to one’s goal. General Outline of the GS Syllabus: The first paper under the new syllabus is more or less like the erstwhile current general awareness paper, with additional issues such as climate change and biodiversity. The paper one intends to test the awareness of the aspirants on current events of national and international importance, Indian history, Indian and world geography, Indian polity and governance, economic and social development and general science, besides environmental ecology, biodiversity and climate change that do not require subject specialization. Given below is topic wise strategy to tackle the various topics asked in the General Studies paper. TaThis year 13 questions were asked from the history section, out of which 4 were from the Ancient Indian history while 9 questions were asked from the Modern History section. If we analyze this year’s history questions, it is easily recognizable that the nature of questions has changed drastically over the years. History: The history questions are no longer simple straight forward facts; the questions now cover factual as well as analytical statements and to solve such questions, one requires through understating of the subject. Following is the list AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
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emission reductions, while giving industrialized countries some flexibility in how they meet their emission reduction or limitation targets.
of books that should be read to master the subject: - A. Ancient India: - (I) NCERT Books of Class VI – X. (II) Ancient India by D. N Jha (II) A. Wonder That Was India by A. L. Basham. B. Medieval India: (I) Medieval India (NCERT) Satish Chandra (II) The Wonder That Was India (Vol.2) S.A.A. Rizvi. C. Modern India: (I) Modern India (NCERT) Bipan Chandra (II) Modern India by Sumit Sarkar (III) India’s Struggle for Independence by Bipan Chandra and others (IV) Modern Indian history by Grover. Above all CST’s Indian History is a well compiled version to meet both factual, conceptual and contextual aspects of the question. Geography: Geography is the most important area in the GS paper. It is this subject which carries make or break importance in the General Studies paper in the prelims examination. This year 21 questions were asked from this section and all the questions were related to general understanding of the geography of India and the world. In order to solve the geography section of the paper, candidates need to have through understanding of the subject; superficial knowledge will take them to nowhere. Listed below is the list of books to be studies for conceptualizing geography: (I) Principles of Geography (class IXXII) NCERT. (II) General Geography of India (class XII) Part-I NCERT. (III) Geography of India-Resources and Regional Development Part II (Class XII)-NCERT (IV) Physical Geography by G. C Leong. (V) In addition to these books candidates are advised to do regular practices of India and World Atlas, so they are able to solve map based questions that form a good number of questions in geography section. CST’s India and the World Geography would be an effective compilation for the changing trend of the questions. Civil Services
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Science: Another major area of focus in the GS paper is the Science section. This year almost 19 questions were asked from science, these included questions from Physics, Chemistry, Biology and questions from current topics related to science and technology. But overall analysis reveals that, Biology carried maximum weightage in the science portion. Attempting science questions is quite easy for students with science academic background but for non-science students this section proves to be the most challenging one. Solving science questions requires through understanding of the concepts and their analysis. The basic approach towards mastering over the science sections is that one should thoroughly read the NCERT science text books of Class VI-X. In addition to these NCERT books, science and technology supplements coming regularly in the newspapers and national magazines like Civil Services Times are a must read for the students. Indian Polity and Constitutional Setup: Another major area of the GS paper and a relative easy one for the candidates to score is the Indian polity section. This year 9 questions were asked by the UPSC from this section and the questions from this section were comparatively easy to attempt. List of books to be recommended for this section include: - (A) NCERT books on Indian Political System, Class XI (B) Introduction to Indian Constitution – D.D. Basu (C) Indian Polity by M. Laximikant, and CST’s Indian Political System. Mere general reading of these books will not suffice; candidates are advised to thoroughly conceptualize the subject to enable themselves to tackle the statement type questions effectively. In this section the UPSC asks questions related to our Constitutional setup, legal, administrative and other issues emerging from politico-administrative system and other related issues. Economic Issues: Over the years it has been observed that the number of questions related to economic issues of India and world is increasingly gaining more and more significance in the preliminary examination. This year almost 22 per cent of the questions in the GS paper were related to economic matters. This section assumes all the
more importance because of the dynamic nature of the subject. To score a healthy number of questions in this section the candidates requires doing a lot more things compared to other sections in the GS paper. The typical questions that are asked from this section include questions on economic and trade issues such as foreign trade, foreign investment; economic and diplomacy issues relating to oil, gas and energy flows; the role and functions of IMF, World Bank, WTO, WIPO etc. which influence India’s economic interaction with other countries and international institutions. Following is the list of books that will help the students in attempting the basic economy questions: (a) NCERT (+1 level)—Evolution of Indian Economy (I C Dhingra). (b) Indian Economy - Dutt and Sundharam. (c) Economic Survey of India Government of India (d) Union and Railway Budget document of government of India. (e) Planning commission Data. (f) Regular reading of one newspaper on Economy like Economic Times or Financial Express. And above all Indian Economy, compiled by Vivek S. Raj. Biodiversity: This year the UPSC added one more topic in the General studies paper. The syllabus prescribed by the UPSC states that questions would be asked on general issues on environmental ecology, bio-diversity and climate change-that don’t require subject specialization. In this year’s prelims examination approximately 6 questions were asked from the area of biodiversity and ecology. As the topic is a new addition to the UPSC syllabus candidates are still in dilemma about what to read for this, following text books may prove to be useful for the students: - (a) NCERT Class XI-XII text books on biodiversity (II) Text Book of Environmental Studies by E. Barucha. (III) Special Editions of Civil Services Times covering all the issues related to bio-diversity and related topics. Issues of Current National and International Significance: -The recent trend of GS paper clearly reveals that currents events are not been asked in simple straight forward way as was the
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trend some years back. The GS paper has become more general in nature. If we look at 2011 paper, it can clearly be inferred that current news of national and international importance were asked in only 10 questions (approx.) But candidates should not take this section lightly because current news and events form and important part of the GS paper of the Main examination. One cannot master the current affairs
by a single shot, to master them one is required to make vast study of various newspapers and some national magazines. Listed below is the list of newspapers and magazines that one should follow to effectively tackle current affairs section: - (a) Newspapers: - Indian Express, The Hindu, Times of India, Economic Times and Financial Express. (b) Magazines: CST, Yojna, Kurukshetra, Frontline. Tackling the Statement Based Tricky Questions: Statement based question formed the major chunk of questions asked in this year’s GS paper. These are the most difficult questions to solve because of their confusing nature, almost all the options are very near to the correct answer and the candidates are left in a dilemma to answer them. For example if we take the question regarding the formation of U turn by river Brahmaputra while it flows into India, all the three options seemed most probable but only option A and B were correct while C was incorrect, because the major reason for the Great Bend of Brahmaputra is the uplift of folded Himalayan Series and the syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas. The Brahmaputra River follows an odd channel to flow to the sea. It Civil Services
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flows towards east for almost half of its length in mountainous Tibet and then takes a U-turn to enter plains in Assam. Ultimately, it enters Bangladesh towards South and meets the Ganges before reaching the sea. Geotectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded mountain chains doesn’t play any role in its formation of U turn. Hence option D is the correct answer in this question. (Question number 7, booklet C). Similarly, question regarding the definition of Virtual Private Network was asked which was comparatively easy to solve. In that case, all options were wrong except option B. The minor difference in the options can be gauged only if one has done through study regarding VPN. It is not a private network of an organization but it is a computer network across a public Internet that provides users access to their organization’s network while maintaining the security of information. (Question
number 9, booklet series C). Another statement based tricky question was question number 10 of booklet C, related to difference between “Dharma” and “Rita”, in this question two statements giving the definition of both Dharma and Rita were given and the candidates were asked to consider the same. Both the definitions were right and both the statements were correct in this question. Dharma is the conception of obligations and of the discharge of one’s duties to oneself and to others while Rita is the fundamental moral law governing the functioning of the universe. The question regarding the functions of the finance commission asked in this year’s GS paper was also a tricky one. The question gives three statements regarding the functions of the FC but none of the statements are right in that case. These types of questions can only be solved if the candidates have complete knowledge about the topic and
DTAAs to curb black money
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asically DTAAs are those pacts that seek to eliminate double taxation of income or gains arising in one country and paid to residents or compa nies of another. In other words, the treaty is devised to ensure that the same income is not taxed twice. In a bid to curb the growing menace of black money, the Government of India has written, under revised tax treaties, some countries to freeze the assets of Indians that have not been declared in India and repatriate the money. It is important to note that India has renegotiated Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (DTAAs) with 43 out of the 79 countries with which it has such agreements, including the US, Mozambique, Tanzania, Ethiopia, Colombia and Norway. Further, India has also involved into the process of revising DTAAs with Switzerland and Mauritius as well. The government was amending DTAAs by inserting a clause on information regarding banking sector and also entering into tax information exchange agreements (TIEAs) with several countries, including tax havens. DTAAs have been amended (clause on banking sector has been inserted) with 40 nations and TIEA has been sealed with tax havens like Isle of Man, Bermuda and Bahamas. In absence of a clause on banking sector in DTAAs, the contracting countries were not sharing information in this regard. The revised pacts include an article on 'Assistance in Collection of Taxes' which allows the two sides to help each other collect taxes due under their respective domestic laws. In some DTAAs, India is including "conservancy" measures, too. The measures include seizure or freezing of assets before the final judgment to ensure they are available whenever the dues are to be collected. Abuse of DTAAs and round-tripping: 1. DTAAs are misused when many of the countries with whom we have avoidance agreements do not tax their residents in the manner we do. For example, AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
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have studied wisely to keep his fundamentals strong. The changing trend in the Prelims exam is clearly visible now. The questions are not in form of a straight forward factual data. The questions are becoming more tricky and confusing now. Candidates with little preparation and half-baked knowledge will not be able to tackle these statement based questions effectively. In order to answer these question effectively, the candidates should make vast and indepth study of the material suggested above. Regular practice before the exam is what is required of the candidates in these changing times, so that they become comfortable to these types of questions. Another major advise is that the candidates should read the all the statements carefully and the options given in the questions before making their choice. Any error in judgment can lead to disaster for the candidates. Mauritius has exempted taxation on capital gains but India imposes. It is important to note that through Mauritius 41.9 per cent of all FDI since 1991 and bulk of the FIIs flows into India. India loses more than $600 million every year in revenues on account of the DTAA with Mauritius, as per some available estimates. India and Mauritius entered into the DTAA way back in 1982 as part of a strategic relationship in response to the US setting up military base in Diego Garcia in the Indian Ocean. 2. The money going out of India, however, is coming back to India for investments, in what is known as "round-tripping". It has been suspected that round-tripping or routing of Indians' illicit money back into the country through the Mauritius route. But in India still we don't have sound estimates regarding round-tripping exist and for this the network of DTAAs and TIEAs to be strengthened to check such practices. And in this regard, the Government has concluded Civil Services
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discussions for 11 TIEAs and 13 new DTAAs along with revision of provisions of 10 existing DTAAs during 2010-11. In this regard, this foreign tax division of CBDT had been strengthened and a dedicated cell for exchange of information was being set up to work on this agenda. 3. It has been suspected that a significant surge in venture capital funds coming from Mauritius in sectors like telecom and real estate, which have been subject matter of close scrutiny for money laundering cases. A total of 154 foreign venture capital investors are registered with SEBI and are permitted to invest in Indian companies and as many as 149 of these entities are based out of Mauritius, three from Singapore and two in Cyprus.
4. It has been believed that due to growing popular demand to make public of those having money in bank accounts in locations like Switzerland has also led to a large number of entities shifting their illicit wealth to Mauritius with an aim to ultimately route the funds to India. Proposed measures: 1. The Direct Taxes Code (DTC) Bill introduced in Parliament and likely to be implemented from April 1, 2012, has proposed to override provisions of DTAAs with regard to certain overseas transactions. Basically, DTC has overriding powers in three areas: General anti-avoidance rules (GAAR), controlled financial operations and branch profit tax. At present, there is no provision in the Income-Tax Act to tax
overseas or cross border transactions. 2. The newly-approved Directorate of Criminal Investigation (DCI) would collect information about persons and transactions connected with criminal activities and initiate prosecution proceedings against them. The DCI will perform functions in respect to criminal matters having any financial implication punishable as an offense under any direct tax law. 3. India has also entered into information exchange agreement with countries such as Switzerland and tax havens such as Bahamas and British Virgin Islands to allow it to receive relevant data on tax evasion in specific cases and to enable the agencies to take the required action.
DTAAs
India signed with Tanzania and Ethiopia With the intention of making a further leap in its relations with Africa, India has recently signed double taxation avoidance agreement with Tanzania and Ethiopia. Double tax avoidance agreement is the deal between two countries by which the tax payer need to pay income tax to one country of which it dues, and by showing the certificates of income tax paid, the second country cannot ask to repay the income tax. Some transactions are like this in which one works part time to different country or work in home country to the foreign country. In such cases the Double taxation avoidance agreement works. Major terms of reference of both the Agreements: The agreement for the avoidance of double taxation and for the prevention of fiscal evasion with respect to taxes on income, signed by India with two of Africa’s major economies consists of following major references. The DTAA provides that business profits will be taxable in the source state if the activities of an enterprise constitute a permanent establishment in the source state. Profits of a construction, assembly or installation projects will be taxed in the state of source if the project continues in that state for more than 270 days (183 days with Ethiopia). Profits derived by an enterprise from the operation of ships or aircrafts in international traffic shall be taxable in the country of residence of the enterprise. Dividends, interest and royalties income will be taxed both in the country of residence and in the country of source. However, the maximum rate of tax to be charged in the country of source will not exceed a two-tier 5 per cent or 10 per cent in the case of dividends and 10 per cent in the case of interest and royalties. Capital gains from the scale of shares will be taxable in the country of source. The Agreement further incorporates provisions for effective exchange of information and assistance in collection of taxes between tax authorities of the two countries in line with internationally accepted standards including exchange of banking information and incorporates anti-abuse provisions to ensure that the benefits of the Agreement are availed of by the genuine residents of the two countries. The Agreement will provide tax stability to the residents of all the nations and facilitate mutual economic cooperation as well as stimulate the flow of investment, technology and services between India and its African partners. With the latest agreement with Ethiopia and Tanzania, India has now formed DTAAs with 43 countries. India and Singapore
Signed protocol to amend DTAA Indian Government has signed a protocol, amending Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) with the Government of Singapore for effective exchange of information in tax matters. It has to be mentioned that both India and Singapore have adopted internationally agreed standard for exchange of information in tax matters and it is likely to ensure greater transparency and governance. The agreed standard for exchange of information in tax matters includes the principles incorporated in the new paragraphs 4 and 5 of OECD Model Article on 'Exchange of Information' and requires exchange of information on request in all tax matters for the administration and enforcement of domestic tax law without regard to a domestic tax interest requirement or bank secrecy for tax purposes. AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
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Japan
Reviewing energy policy Japan is all set to reconsider its plans to increase reliance on nuclear power in the wake of the crisis at the Fukushima plant. The administration in Japan is preparing to start from the scratch with its energy plants following the disaster. It needs to be mentioned here that the plant has been leaking radiation since the 11 March earthquake and subsequent tsunami damaged cooling systems to the reactors and more than 80,000 local residents living within a 20km (12 mile) radius of the plant have
been evacuated from their homes. Nuclear plants currently supply about 30 per cent of Japan’s electricity; nuclear power is thus a “major pillar” of Japanese society, along with fossil fuels. The current basic energy policy of Japan envisages that over 50 per cent of total electricity supply will come from nuclear power while more than 20 per cent will come from renewable power in 2030. But following the nuclear incident at Fukushima plant the government of Japan wants to review its energy policy to ensure better safety in nuclear power while promoting renewables. The Challenges of Nuclear Power: Nuclear Power plants generate large
quantities of highly radioactive material. This is due to the left over isotopes (atoms) from the splitting of the atom and the creation of heavier atoms, like plutonium, which the Nuclear Power plant does not utilise. It is called nuclear waste. The actual quantity of waste output is some 100,000 times less than a Fossil Fuel plant but it is much more radioactive. Humans are exposed to low level radioactivity constantly from naturally occurring radioactive isotopes and cosmic rays from outer space. However, in large doses, radiation has many harmful effects. Therefore it necessary for Nuclear Power plants to in-build many safety mechanisms in order to keep the pop-
Syrian Conundrum
Wrong lessons from Jasmine Revolution Syria is also rendering under extreme political instability and the western countries have described the repression as “disgraceful and unacceptable”. Maintaining the same line of opinion, the United States had already announced sanctions on May 1, 2011 against Syria’s General Intelligence Directorate, and froze the assets of Maher al-Assad, brother of President Bashar al-Assad and the fourth armoured division of the Syrian military, and his cousin Atif Najib. Infact, both Gaddafi and Bashar al-Assad have decided not to go like Hosni Mubarak and Ben Ali and have felt strongly against the lessons of Jasmine movement. Both of the rulers have believed that they cannot live their entire life like a fugitive. These wild interpretations of the outcomes of the Jasmine revolution have made these countries a volcano on the brink of eruption. This stubborn approach has already taken lives of more than 900 people in Syria itself. The Government has resorted to direct action after the attack of protestors on March 16 on the Ba’ath Party headquarters. The towns of Baniyas and Homs were deeply affected by the violence. In fact, the backbone of Assad is the Alawis tribes who were earlier known as Nusayris, an Arabic speaking ethno-religious community, who also live in the Latakiah province of Syria and in the adjacent districts of northern Lebanon and southern Turkey. The ‘Alawis had occupied power in Syria in 1960 after a series of political upheavals in the country. In 1971, Hafez Assad, an ‘Alawi, was nominated President of Syria and since then Alawis have remained in power. In 1994, the southern region of Syria had launched a secession bid leading to a short-lived civil war but Saleh managed to quell the secession bid and maintained the unity of the country. Since 2004, Saleh faced only a few rebellion in the northern mountains by members of the Zaidi Shiite minority. The conflict escalated in August 2009 before a fragile truce came in February 2010. Considering the ethnic equations, USA and the NATO are also not in favour of dislodging the Alawis because if they are eliminated from power then this will not only create ethnic warfare like Iraq but also provide Iran and Hezbollah undue advantage in the region. This is the cause why USA and the NATO countries are not going all out against the Assad regime. Probably this was the reason why USA has not done Libya with Syria. Nevertheless, the US President Barack Obama has been under pressure to do more to end the violence in Syria. The US has resorted to mild actions and has imposed sanctions against Assad, Vice President Farouq al-Shara, Prime Minister Adel Safar, Interior Minister Mohammad Ibrahim al-Shaar and Defence Minister Ali Habib as well as Abdul Fatah Qudsiya, head of military intelligence, and Mohammed Dib Zaitoun, director of the political security directorate. The expanded sanctions also covered three companies and one corporate official associated with Rami Makhlouf, a cousin of Assad who owns Syria's largest phone company Syriatel and several large firms in the oil and construction sectors. These sanctions are basically aimed to force Assad to make political reforms and US has given two options to Assad either to lead this transition to democracy or to leave. In the meantime, Syrian tycoon Rami Makhluf warned Israel of instability if the regime of his cousin President Bashar al-Assad falls, vowing to "fight to the end,". It is important to refer that the regime of Assad has maintained calm along its borders despite close ties with Iran, the Palestinian militant group Hamas and Lebanon's Hezbollah. AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
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ulation safe. This includes the workers as well as humans living around the nuclear power plant. It is also necessary for independent parties to monitor Nuclear Power plants. This ensures that plants adhere to world safety standards and to make sure none of the waste plutonium is diverted for use in nuclear weapons. The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) has developed programs to detect such activity. Nuclear Power Plants in France, Sweden, Canada and Finland have shown that it is possible for the generation of electricity through nuclear power to be extremely safe. Although other nuclear power plants such as Three Mile Island and Chernobyl have had disastrous accidents, it is important to put them into context. The Three Mile Island accident, which destroyed the economic value of the plant, was caused by design flaws and poor operator training. Nevertheless most of the radioactivity was contained at the site. The Chernobyl accident was caused by numerous inherent design flaws, poor operator training and a total disregard for safety. Another challenge for nuclear power is dealing with the left over, highly radioactive and long lived nuclear waste. It is necessary to isolate the waste from humans and environment for about 100,000 years before it decays to safe levels. The consensus amongst the Nuclear Power industry is that radioactive waste should be isolated by multiple barriers and placed deep underground. Radiation Dose: The biological effects of heavy particle ionising radiation are measured with a quantity called Absorbed Dose. However, while two differing particles may have the same amount of energy, they may have very different responses from our living, biological cells, so a factor called Relative Biological Effectiveness (RBE) is also used. RBE is a measure of the amount of cell damage a given type of particle causes as compared to a dose of x-rays with the same energy. The combination of RBE with Absorbed dose is measured in units called Sieverts. Biological Effects of Radiation: (a) Cell Death or Apoptosis: Biological systems are composed of many individual tiny cells; each with its own
DNA (only red blood cells don’t have any DNA - they lose it during development). If there is catastrophic damage to vital cell function by radiation energy absorption the cell may cease to function and ‘die’. (b) Cancer Induction: In this case the DNA is damaged or altered but the alteration is not lethal to the cell. If the normal regulator genes which control the rate at which cells divide and die are rendered malfunctioned the cell may become ‘immortal’ and multiply at an abnormal rate producing an out-ofcontrol growth of a line of abnormal cells. This is a cancer. Most tissues can produce cancers with enough radiation damage but rapidly dividing tissue lines, such as blood-forming ‘haemopoietic’ lines which may produce leukemias, are particularly vulnerable.
biological systems. (d) Dose-Response Tissue Reactions or ‘radiation burns’: These are the sorts of effects seen immediately after the bombing of Hiroshima; but lesser effects can occur with smaller doses. However, there does seem to be a ‘threshold’ for this kind of effect with very small doses encountered in normal life (apart from sun-burn!) not producing detectable damage. Understanding of safety mechanisms of a Nuclear Power Reactor: Safety is taken very seriously by those working in nuclear power plants. The main safety concern is the emission of uncontrolled radiation into the environment which could cause harm to humans both at the reactor site and offsite. The components of nuclear safety include: (a) Control of Radioactiv-
(c) Genetic Damage to Future Generations: This can arise because mutations, or changes in the pattern of bases in the DNA, can occur in the DNA that ends up in sperm or eggs and becomes a permanent feature of any resulting babies. Most often, radiation induced damage to such egg or sperm DNA is incompatible with the life of the foetus in utero but there is a finite chance of a live baby being born with defects. This is of particular concern because the damage to the genetic material can then be passed on to all future generations and become a permanent feature of the gene-pool; damaging many individuals. Of course, such mutations are also a natural part of life and the evolution of
ity: This requires being able to control the neutron flux. In a nuclear reactor when a neutron is captured by a fuel nucleus (generally uranium) the nucleus splits releasing radioactive particles (or undergoes fission). Hence if we decrease the neutron flux we decrease the radioactivity. The most common way to reduce the neutron flux is include neutron-absorbing control rods. These control rods can be partially inserted into the reactor core to reduce the reactions. The control rods are very important because the reaction could run out of control if fission events are extremely frequent. In modern nuclear power plants, the insertion of all the control rods into the reactor core occurs in a few seconds,
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thus halting the nuclear reaction as rapidly as possible. In addition, most reactors are designed so that beyond optimal level, as the temperature increases the efficiency of reactions decreases, hence fewer neutrons are able to cause fission and the reactor slows down automatically. (b) Maintenance of Core Cooling: In any nuclear reactor some sort of cooling is necessary. Generally nuclear reactors use water as a coolant. However some reactors which cannot use water use sodium or sodium salts. (c) Maintenance of barriers that prevent the release of radiation: There is a series of physical barriers between the radioactive core and the environment. The design of the reactor also includes multiple back-up components, independent systems (two or more systems performing the same function in parallel), monitoring of instrumentation and the prevention of a failure of one type of equipment affecting any other. Further, regulation requires that a coremeltdown incident must be confined only to the plant itself without the need to evacuate nearby residence. Safety is also important for the workers of nuclear power plants. Radiation doses are controlled via the following procedures: (i) the handling of equipment via remote in the core of the reactor; (ii) physical shielding (iii) Limit on the time a worker spends in areas with significant radiation levels; and (iv) monitoring of individual doses and of the work environment. European Union
fective and fair trade conditions on the EU market. The EU investigation of coated fine paper, used primarily for magazines and catalogues, found that the Chinese government was issuing cheap loans, allocating land below market value and granting tax incentives to the industry. According to the report, these mechanisms were used to subsidize the Chinese fine paper industry and put undue pressure on European prices. Furthermore, Chinese producers of coated fine paper were found by the investigation to be engaging in ‘dumping’, or exporting their products to the EU at below market-level prices. Chinese Reaction: Reacting to the decision of the EU, China immediately launched a vehement rebuttal against EU. The Chinese side is expected to defend the interests of local companies, citing WTO rules prohibiting anti-dumping and countervailing duties from being applied to the same product. The decision of the EU could mark the start of a series of a tit-forthat retaliation between the two giant economies, thus a trade war with on subsidies seems now unavoidable. Portugal
EU-IMF bailout deal
The EU has recently levied anti-subsidy and anti-dumping duties on imports of certain types of paper from China, after a 15-month investigation found the industry heavily subsidised by the Chinese government, and deemed export prices to be below the cost of production. Although Brussels has often slapped Chinese goods with anti-dumping duties, the measures being applied to coated fine paper mark the first time that the EU is levying countervailing duties, which are meant to offset the effects of subsidies, on products from China. The step taken by the EU is expected to restore ef-
Portugal’s caretaker government recently signed off on a •78bn bailout deal to borrow funds from the European Commission, European Central Bank and International Monetary Fund – becoming the third Eurozone country after Greece and Ireland to find itself relying on foreign assistance. As per the terms of the deal Portugal has been given 78 billion euros (some 116 billion U.S. dollars) in foreign aid under the three-year program. The deal requires Portugal to reduce its deficit level to 5.9 percent of its economic growth this year, 4.5 percent in 2012 and three percent in 2013. In return for the loan, which includes 12 billion euros of support for the country’s banks, Portugal has had to agree to a number of measures to increase tax revenue and reduce spending. These include: (a) A cut in the public sector wage bill by freezing wages and limiting job promotion.
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(b) An increase in sales tax on items such as cars and tobacco. (c) The privatisation of stakes in national energy companies and the sale of national airline TAP Air Portugal. (d) The reduction of the most generous state pensions and the freezing of others. (e) The maximum length unemployment benefit can be paid to be cut to 18 months, from 3 years. Is this the Last Bailout for Eurozone: The on-going economic crisis in the Europe and the failure of the Greece’s bailout makes it difficult to believe that the Portuguese bail-out will be
Eurozone’s last. The great fear in the Eurozone is that Portugal’s bigger neighbour Spain will also need bailing out, which the EU may not be able to afford. There are also challenges to Portugal’s bail-out coming from Finland, where the bail-out has become a big issue in the formation of a new coalition government, following last month’s elections. EU rules require all member states to approve, or at least not oppose, bail-outs. World Bank Report
On new world order Emerging economies in the Asia Pacific region would continue to post growth rates that would exceed those of the developed countries, making it possible for the world’s total production being equally divided among the rich and the emerging markets by 2025. It was among the highlights of the latest report of the World Bank, Civil Services
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entitled “Global Development Horizons 2011–Multi-polarity: The New Global Economy”. The report forecasted that emerging economies could grow by an average of 4.7 per cent this year until 2025, while the industrialised nations are only projected to expand by an average of 2.3 per cent. Because of this, the developing economies will eventually catch up with the rich nations in terms of contributions to global output. The World Bank noted that emerging markets now account for two - thirds of the world’s foreign exchange reserves–a reversal of the picture of the previous decade when industrialized countries owned the bulk of the reserves. China has the biggest share of the global reserves among emerging markets at US$3 trillion. In short, a new world order with a more diffused distribution of economic power is emerging– thus the shift toward multi- polarity. According to the rising role of emerging markets would eventually diminish the primacy of the US dollar in international trade and finance. Eventually, countries would keep almost equal shares of the US dollar, the euro and the renminbi in their foreign exchange reserves. The report highlights the diversity of potential emerging economy growth poles, some of which have relied heavily on exports, such as China and South Korea, and others that put more weight on domestic consumption, such as Brazil and Mexico. With the emergence of a substantial middle class in developing countries and demographic transitions underway in several major East Asian economies, stronger consumption trends are likely to prevail, which in turn can serve as a source of sustained global growth. India and six other to dominate global growth by 2025: According to the report India along with six other major emerging economies will account for more than half of the global growth by 2025 and it is likely that the international monetary system will not be dominated by any single currency by that time. As per the report these successful economies will help drive growth in lower income countries through cross-border commercial and financial transactions. The report projects that the six coun-
tries— Brazil, China, India, Indonesia, South Korea, and Russia— will grow on average by 4.7 per cent annually between 2011 and 2025. However, the advanced economies which are expected to grow by 2.3 per cent over the same period will remain prominent in the global economy with the euro area, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the US all playing a core role in fuelling global growth. India and US
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$ 50m Fund clean technology The United States and India have jointly established a $50 million fund to promote research in clean energy technologies; the step is seen as part of efforts to whittle down the differences between the two nations over how to fight climate change. The fund will help establish the Indo-US Joint Clean Energy Research and Development Centre which will finance academia, institutions and industry from both countries to undertake the research. The fund will elevate the US-India clean energy cooperation to a new level and is a testament to the strength of our continued strategic partnership with the United States. Implications of the Deal: In the global fight against climate
change, two of the world’s most populous democracies sit on the opposite end of the debate, their differences a major hindrance in achieving an international agreement on curbing global warming. Under existing rules, only rich countries have to meet binding emissions targets and report actions regularly. But developed nations led by the United States, which never ratified Kyoto, want emerging economies such as China and India to take on a greater share of climate actions. Developing nations now emit more than half of greenhouse gas emissions and that portion is growing quickly. China has already passed the United States as the world’s top carbon polluter. Emerging nations say they will accept international consultation and analysis (ICA) of their emissions actions, but not anything equal to the standards expected of rich economies. They blame the rich for much of the greenhouse pollution pumped into the atmosphere over the past two centuries. A huge gap also exists between rich countries reluctant to pay the fiscal and life-style costs of deep cuts in their emissions, and developing states which say they must be allowed to increase emissions so their economies can catch up. With the establishment of the clean technology fund between the US and India new funds will be
Britain
Referendum on voting In a national referendum, the British voters has rejected the idea of replacing the current first-past-the-post voting system for parliamentary elections with Alternative Vote (AV). The referendum was rejected by 69 per cent to 31 per cent on a turnout of 42 per cent. Under the first-past-the-post voting system, the candidate who gets the most votes in his constituency is elected to parliament, no matter whether the total passes 50 per cent or not. The alternative vote asks voters to rank candidates in order of preference. According to the AV voting system, people can nominate as many preferences as they like. Only first preference votes are counted initially. Anyone getting more than 50 per cent is elected automatically. If that doesn’t happen, the candidate with the fewest votes is eliminated, and his votes would be distributed according to the second preferences to the remaining candidates in a second round of counting. Civil Services
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made available to a consortium with the knowledge and experience to undertake collaborative research programs. These consortia will help bring together top talent from both the nations and generate key technological advancement. How do we fund new technology in the recession? The technological innovations we need to move to a low carbon economy need equally innovative finance. There is little point in getting carried away with developing new technological solutions if no one is willing to pay for them. That’s the conundrum facing nations that are developing innovative new methods of moving towards a low carbon economy but are facing financially constrains. What makes the situation even worse is that the banking sector is showing a distinct lack of enthusiasm for offering to fund longer-term projects. In this context the role of private companies developing the green technology solution becomes utmost important. What we need is evolving global partnership mechanisms to develop green technologies to face the emerging issues of global warming and energy security. India and Australia
crease by US$34 billion in the same period. The extremely strong growth in recent years in trade and investment ties between Australia and India will continue, increasing both in pace and scope. The FTA negotiations form an important part of the wider economic objectives set by the Australia-India Strategic Partnership agreed in November 2009. The FTA between the two nations is important to increase economic integration to best allow trade and investments to flourish. The FTA will help in removing non-tariff barriers that impede trade and services, facilitating investments and addressing the behind the border restrictions to trade. India is also looking at enhanced cooperation with the Australian entrepreneurs in pharmaceuticals and other sectors to increase the share of Indian exports to Australia. Iceland
Volcano erupts
Australia and India have started formal talks to establish a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) to further economic integration between them and have agreed to double their bilateral trade to $40 billion in the next five years, this was announced by Australia’s Trade Minister Craig Emerson and his Indian counterpart, Commerce and Industry Minister Anand Sharma. Australia’s third-largest and fastest growing export market, India imported goods and services worth $19.8 billion from the country in 2009-2010. Although commodities such as gold, coal and copper drive trade, education is worth Aus$3 billion and growing. It is understood that a comprehensive FTA would benefit both countries with recent research stating that the deal would boost Australian GDP by US$ 32 billion over the next 20 years. India’s GDP has been predicted to in-
Iceland’s most active volcano erupted recently just over a year after another eruption on the North Atlantic island shut down European air traffic for days. Iceland’s most active volcano, the Grimsvotn erupted recently accompanied by a series of small earthquakes. The volcano, which lies under the Vatnajokull glacier in south-east Iceland, last erupted in 2004. In 2010, plumes of ash from Iceland’s Eyjafjallajokull volcano caused weeks of air travel chaos across Europe. It is here underscored that volcanic eruptions are common in Iceland, which lies along the Mid-Atlantic Ridge that divides the Eurasian and North American continental plates. With the eruption of volcano a no fly zone was declared for 120 nautical miles (220 kilometres) in all directions. EU Response to Iceland Volcano Ash
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The latest eruption of Iceland’s Grimsvotn volcano spread fears that Europe could see a repeat of last year’s ash cloud chaos, in which millions of air passengers were stranded. But this time the eruption was much less threatening, partly because of the ash itself, but also because of the weather and the measures taken by the EU since the last Icelandic eruption. Was Europe better prepared this time? In April 2010 the ash cloud from Iceland’s Eyjafjallajokull volcano triggered the biggest aviation shutdown in Europe since World War II. It was an enormously costly “one-size-fitsall” approach that put passenger safety first, but without measuring the different degrees of risk. This time the EU activated a new crisis cell, bringing together experts from the European Commission, the European air traffic controllers (Eurocontrol), the aviation industry and airports. The European Aviation Crisis Co-ordination Cell (EACCC) is responsible for coordinating the response to this and any other air traffic crisis affecting Europe. As before, it was up to each
EU member state to decide whether or not to restrict flights in its airspace. But the aviation authorities used new guidelines which specified three degrees of ash contamination. Who advises the airlines and governments about the ash: The UK MeteoCivil Services
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Egypt has recently lifted a 4-year-old blockade of the Gaza Strip, greatly easing travel restrictions on the 1.5 million residents of the Palestinian
territory in a move that bolstered the Hamas government while dealing a setback to Israel’s attempts to isolate the militant group. Reacting to the decision, the Israeli officials expressed concern that unrestricted access could mean the entry into Gaza of weapons and military personnel intended to strengthen the Hamas authorities. It is here underscored that Israel and Egypt instituted the blockade after the Islamic militant group Hamas seized control of the Gaza Strip in 2007. The blockade, which has fuelled an economic crisis in Gaza, is deeply unpopular among Arabs, and Egypt’s caretaker leaders had promised to end it since the ouster of long-time President Hosni Mubarak in February, 2011. The blockade was intended to weaken Hamas, but although the blockade has hurt Gaza’s economy, Hamas remains firmly in control of the territory. The Iranian-backed group remains firmly in power, operating the border crossing even at a time when it is supposed to be reconciling with the rival Fatah. Elaborating the Israeli concerns over the opening of Gaza Border: With the opening of Gaza border Israel seem to be very concerned about the implications of the Rafah crossings. It fears that Hamas had already built up a dangerous military machine in northern Sinai which could be further strengthened by opening of Rafah. Rise in number of terrorist attacks on the Israel is also one of the major concerns which can be perceived as opening of border. These developments potentially have strategic implications for Israel’s national security. For the Palestinians the move is a welcome step towards loosening the siege on the Gaza Strip. The Egypt-Gaza Border and its Effect on Israeli-Egyptian Relations-A Brief Summary: Since Israel unilaterally dismantled its settlements and withdrew its troops from the Gaza Strip in August 2005; it has repeatedly expressed concern over the security of the Egypt-Gaza border. Israel claims
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rological Office and its Volcanic Ash Advisory Centre (VAAC) are providing data on the progress of the cloud. This time the UK, Germany, Bremen and Hamburg airports were the worst hit. What problems remain for Europe’s aviation in such crises? For the European Commission it proved very hard to establish a safety threshold for volcanic ash. In each eruption the composition of the ash differs, and the weather also affects the degree of risk. To tackle the situation in a better way the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) has decided to issue proposals calling for engine manufacturers to provide detailed data on the risk posed by different types of volcanic ash. That will be a big help to airlines when assessing the flight risk during an eruption. Iceland and the VAAC now have more advanced equipment to measure volcanic ash and model its likely distribution and concentration. The EU is still a patchwork of 27 different national air traffic zones, each able to impose flying bans. But the Commission is now developing a new integrated structure for air traffic management. Nine Functional Airspace Blocks (FABs) will replace the existing 27 areas. This is part of the revised blueprint called Single European Sky II (SES II). The deadline for all nine FABs to be up and running is 4 December 2012. Three are already operational, including the UK/Ireland FAB. Under the EU plan, an air traffic network manager will co-ordinate Europe’s air traffic resources daily but without taking over from the national air traffic controllers. The network manager will deal with route design, traffic flows and technical tasks, such as allocating transponder codes and aeronautical frequencies, which are done for every flight. The aim is to avoid the communication delays and confusion over data seen in the 2010 ash crisis. Egypt
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that on-going smuggling of sophisticated weaponry into the Gaza Strip could dramatically strengthen the military capabilities of Hamas, which seized control of the Gaza Strip in 2007. Israel also charges that Egypt is not adequately sealing its side of the border, citing the recent breakthrough of hundreds of thousands of Palestinians who rushed into Egypt in 2008. The United States, which occasionally is thrust into the middle of disputes between Israel and Egypt, has attempted to broker a solution to the smuggling problem which is amenable to all parties. The U.S. government has offered to allocate $23 million of Egypt’s annual military aid toward the procurement of more advanced detection equipment, such as censors and remote-controlled robotic devices. Although both Israel and Egypt have, at times, tried to downplay recent tensions over the border, there is some concern that Hamas’s takeover of Gaza will have negative long-term repercussions for the Israeli-Egyptian relationship, a relationship that has been largely considered a success for U.S. Middle Eastern diplomacy for over three decades. Tibet
Devolution of Political Powers The 14th Tibetan Parliament-Exile, after intense deliberation gave its stamp of approval for the devolution of Dalai Lama’s administrative and political powers to the democratically elected Civil Services
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Tibetan leaders. The Parliament presented the amendments to the Dalai Lama for his ratification. After giving his approval, the Dalai Lama will fully vest the Central Tibetan Administration (CTA) and in particular its democratic leadership organs with the powers and responsibilities formerly held jointly by him and the CTA to represent and serve the whole people of Tibet. During its additional session, held from 26 - 28 May, the Parliament had approved a new preamble and inherent rights and responsibilities to be assigned to the Dalai Lama under Article 1 of the charter. Under Article 1, His Holiness the Dalai Lama is the “Protector and Symbol of Tibet and Tibetan People”. The preamble underlines “safeguarding the continuity of the Central Tibetan Administration as the legitimate governing body and representative of the whole Tibetan people, in whom sovereignty resides”. It also enshrines Tibet’s position as a sovereign nation from the early 2nd century BC until the invasion by the People’s Republic of China in 1951, and His Holiness the Dalai Lama’s efforts in introducing democratic reforms after coming into exile in India since 1959. From now onwards, the duties of the Dalai Lama will be to provide advice and encouragement with respect to the protection and promotion of the physical, spiritual, ethical and cultural wellbeing of the Tibetan people, to remain engaged in the efforts to reach a satisfactory solution to the question of Tibet and to accomplish the cherished goals of the Tibetan people. He will provide suggestions in various forms to the Assembly of Tibetan People’s Deputies and Kashag in matters of importance to the Tibetan people, including the community and its institutions in exile, at his own initiative or at the request of those bodies. He will meet with world leaders and other important individuals and bodies to speak on behalf of the Tibetan people, to explain and discuss their concerns and needs as well as to designate representatives and special envoys appointed by the cabinet to serve the interests of the Tibetan people in any part of the world. The powers vested with His Holiness the Dalai Lama as head of the executive under Article 19 have been dele-
gated to the Kalon Tripa. Accordingly, Kalon Tripa is empowered to approve and promulgate bills and regulations passed by the Tibetan Parliament-inExile. Other responsibilities have been devolved to the parliament and the judiciary. Another landmark amendment made to the charter is the annulment of Council of Regency enshrined in Articles (31 - 35), provisions which earlier empower the council to assume the Dalai Lama’s role in circumstances when the latter is not acting as head of the state. The Parliament approved
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that the title of “Tibetan Governmentin-Exile” be changed to “Tibetan Administration”. Significance of the Changes: The devolution of the Dalai Lama’s formal authority is a watershed in Tibet’s history. By reliving Dalai Lama of his duties the Parliament lived up to the aspirations and visions of Dalai Lama. The 14th Tibetan Parliament successfully carried out the democratic reforms in accordance with the faith and confidence entrusted on our ability by His Holiness the Dalai Lama. The move also provides an opportunity to
Germany
Abandonment of nuclear energy Europe’s economic powerhouse, Germany, has recently announced its plan to abandon nuclear energy over the next 11 years, outlining an ambitious strategy in the wake of Japan’s Fukushima disaster to replace atomic power with renewable energy sources. By abandoning the nuclear power Germany hopes to shift majorly to more solar, wind and hydroelectric power. The move by Germany can inspire other nations to abandon nuclear power- or not to start using it. The move can also inspire nations to achieve growth, creating jobs and economic prosperity while shifting the energy supply towards renewable energies. According to the recent decision of Germany, it will shut down all 17 nuclear power plants by 2022. The plan sets Germany apart from most of the other major industrialized nations. Among the other Group of Eight countries, only Italy has abandoned nuclear power, which was voted down in a referendum after the 1986 Chernobyl disaster. Internal implication of the decision on the polity of Germany and Europe: The decision represents a remarkable about-face for Merkel’s centreright government, which only late last year pushed through a plan to extend the life span of the country’s reactors, with the last scheduled to go offline around 2036. But Merkel has recently announced that industrialized, technologically advanced Japan’s “helplessness” in the face of the Fukushima disaster made her rethink the technology’s risks. Phasing out nuclear power within a decade will be a challenge for Germany, but it will be feasible and ultimately give Germany a competitive advantage in the renewable energy era. Though the Germany government has signalled to abandon nuclear energy eventually, the decision still requires parliamentary approval. It needs to be mentioned here that Switzerland, where nuclear power produces 40 percent of the country’s electricity, has also announced its plan to shut down its reactors gradually once they reach their average life-span of 50 years which would mean taking the last plant off the grid in 2034. Hence the decision of Germany holds wider implications for Europe in particular where nuclear power plays an important role in energy security. The race for renewable and alternative sources of energy is surely on. Civil Services
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Yemen
Instability looming large Yemen is still struggling to find a stable political solution to establish rule of law. The fighting was erupted when a section of people wanted the end of the 33-year-long Ali Abdullah Saleh's rule and this has threatened to ignite civil war. In this process a number of people were killed in a fight between the security forces of President Ali Abdullah Saleh and members of the country's most powerful Hashed tribe led by Sadiq al-Ahmar since the collapse of a Gulf-brokered agreement for Saleh to step down and bring an end to four months of unrest. Saleh has refused to relinquish his powers despite the leaders of the Group of Eight powers meeting in Deauville, France, called on Saleh to quit and this has complicated the entire political equations in the country. Both USA and Saudi Arabia have shown concern over Saleh's refusal to sign the GCC transition agreement as both sides anticipates that any spread of anarchy could give the global militant network more room to operate. Unlike Tunisia, Egypt, or Libya, Yemen is home to a branch of Al Qaeda that US believes it is "probably the most significant risk to the US homeland" - even more dangerous than Osama bin Laden in Pakistan. The political scenario took a deep turn when Saleh got injured in a rocket attack on his compound and he had to leave his country for medical treatment to Saudi Arabia. Yemen’s government has accused the opposition Hashid tribe of shelling a mosque near the presidential palace in San’a. Vice president Abed Rabbo Mansour Hadi was acting as temporary head of state and has said that the President would return to assume his duties after his treatment. But the absence of Saleh has further intensified the violent fight and this fight is spreading fast in the remote areas also. The growing number of tribes switching sides is seriously complicating the matter for Saleh. The Hashid tribal federation is the second largest tribal federation in Yemen and resides primarily in the mountains in the North and Northwest of the country. The Hashid tribe is considered Yemen's most powerful tribal and includes nine clans, among them Sanhan, long a bulwark of Saleh's regime. The Hashed is a league of nine mostly Sunni tribes that together represent at least six million of Yemen's 27 million people. It is the country's second-largest tribal bloc, behind its long-time rival the Bakeel tribes with some 11 million members. In this battle against the government, Hashid has also the support of Bakeel tribe. Initially Al-Ahmar, the leader of Hashid tribe, were longtime Saleh backers first played a mediating role between Saleh and leaders of street protests. He turned against the president when security forces began attacks and crackdowns on the marchers. This has considerably reduced the power of Saleh. Fall of Zinjibar Qaeda and Islamic militants had taken over the Yemeni coastal town of Zinjibar. Zinjibar is the capital of Abyan province in south central Yemen. The opposition has accused Saleh that he has deliberately allowed the Al Qaeda to occupy the town to ensure the support of western powers and USA. At the same time Saleh wanted to communicate people of Yemen that if he is going to be ousted then their lives are going to be in jeopardy. In the meantime, Saudi Arabia is worried by the activities of the Yemen-based al Qaeda in the Arabian Peninsula (AQAP). AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
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the Tibetan people to become self-reliant and build a robust administration. Dalai Lama cedes his political role to Lobsang Sangay: Following the amendment by the Tibetan Parliament the Dalai Lama ceded his political responsibility to the new Prime Minister Lobsang Sangay. The responsibilities of Dalai Lama are now divided among the speaker, deputy speaker, the justice commissioner and other democratically elected leaders. India and Pakistan
Demilitarisation of Siachen India and Pakistan has recently discussed the demilitarisation of Siachen, a mountainous region where borderline is not demarcated, in a “constructive framework”, picking up the threads of the issue after a gap of three years, but failed to reach a consensus on the long pending Siachen glacier issue. The issue came up for discussion during the 12th round of two-day Defence Secretary level talks between the two sides. The talks were held in a constructive framework. Both sides apprised each other of their perception about the Siachen issue and also discussed the surrounding issues. At the end of the talks both sides acknowledged that the ceasefire has been on since November 2003 and agreed to continue discussions in a meaningful, result oriented manner. Both the sides also agreed to meet again at a mutually convenient date in Islamabad. It is here mentioned that India and Pakistan had decided to resume the talks last year after Prime Ministers of both the countries met in Thimpu and decided to take forward the dialogue process. Elaborating the Siachen conflict: (a) The geographical location: Siachen glacier, the highest battlefield in the world, is the Himalayan watershed that draws a line between Central Asia and the Indian sub-continent and separates Pakistan from China in this region. Siachen (abode of roses) is the world’s second longest non-polar glacier; it is called ‘the third pole’ by some. The 70-km-long glacier lies in the eastern Karakoram Range. (b) The reasons for the fight: The roots of the Civil Services
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conflict lie in non-demarcations on the map northward to the China boundary beyond NJ9842, which is the dead end in the India-Pakistan line of control agreement. The 1949 Karachi agreement and the 1972 Simla agreement presumed that no one would vie for control of an utterly barren and permafrost area where normal human habitations can’t survive. Prior to 1984, neither India nor Pakistan had any permanent presence in the area. In the 1970s and early 1980s, Pakistan permitted several mountaineering expeditions to climb high peaks on this glacier. This was to reinforce their claim on the area as these expeditions arrived on the glacier with a permit obtained from the Government of Pakistan. Since 1978, the Indian Army began closely monitoring the situation and subsequently started allowing mountaineering expeditions to the glacier from its side. The most notable was the one in which Colonel N. Kumar led an Army expedition to Teram Kangri peaks as a counter-exercise. When Pakistan gave permission to a Japanese expedition team to scale the important Rimo peak in 1984, it prompted Indians to do something drastic in order to secure the glacier. The peak, located east of Siachen, overlooks the eastern areas of the Aksai Chin. The Indian military believed that such an expedition would provide a link for the western and eastern routes - the trade route leading to Karakoram Pass and China - and eventually provide a tactical, if not strategic advantage to both Pakistan and China. (c) Conflict takes military dimensions: The Indian Army decided to take action to stop future expeditions from the Pakistani side and eventually to prevent Pakistan from staking its claim on the glacier. Accordingly, the Indian Army brought in the troops from Northern Ladakh, from its Kumaon Regiment as well as some paramilitary forces in order to send them up the glacier. Most of the troops were sent on a training expedition to Antarctica in 1982 to get familiar with operating in glacial conditions. (d) Operation Meghdoot: With specific intelligence of an impending Pakistani operation, India launched Operation Meghdoot on April 13, 1984. The operation pre-empted Pakistani opera-
tions by 4 days as Rawalpindi was to launch its operation on April 17, 1984. Operation Meghdoot involved airlifting of Indian soldiers by the Indian Air Force (IAF) and dropping them on the glacial peaks. The IAF used planes such as the Il-76, An-12 and An-32 to transport stores and troops as well to airdrop supplies to high altitude airfields. Helicopters like Mi-17, Mi-8, Chetak and Cheetah carried provisions and personnel to hitherto unscaled peaks. The two northern passes-Sia La and Bilafond La-were quickly secured by India. When the Pakistanis hiked up to the glacier in 1984, they found that a 300-man Indian battalion was already there, dug into the highest mountain tops. (e) Present Po-
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(e) What is AGPL? The line between where Indian and Pakistani troops are presently holding onto their respective posts is referred to as the Actual Ground Position Line (AGPL). (f) The Siachen Talks: India and Pakistan has held several round of talks to resolve the Siachen dispute, the latest session ending on May 31, 2011. They have yielded no result till date. Pakistan insists on unconditional demilitarisation of the entire Siachen Glacier and a throwback to the pre-1984 days. India insists on authentication of the AGPL which will act as a diplomaticpolitical deterrent to any Pakistani plan of taking over the strategic high points. Conclusion: While critics and detractors in India have repeatedly pointed the fingers at the Indian Army for sabotaging the talks by putting pressure on the government, their logic is belied by India’s Kargil experience. Withdrawal of Indian troops without authenticating the AGPL can prove to be a monumental mistake as retaking the strategic high points will be nearly impossible for the Indian troops without sacrificing the lives of thousands. Pakistani control of Siachen will also mean that Pakistan can link up Pak-occupied Kashmir with China right above India’s nose. The politics over Siachen till date is dictated by strategic concerns. USA
Extends Patriot Act sition: The Indian Army controls the heights, holding on to the tactical advantage of high ground. Pakistanis cannot get up to the glacier while Indians can’t come down. Presently, India holds the entire glacier and commands the top of all three passes. Pakistan formerly controlled Gyong La that overlooks the Gyong and Nubra River valleys and India’s access to Leh district. However, the Pakistanis still control the glacial valley just five km southwest of Gyong La and thus access to the Leh district. The battle zone comprised an inverted triangle resting on point NJ9842 with Sia Kangri/Indira Col and the Karakoram Pass as the two other points of the triangle.
The US Congress has recently voted to renew and US President Barack Obama signed into law three expiring provisions of the controversial antiterrorism Patriot Act that gives law enforcement increased surveillance authorities. The extension by Congress grants the provisions four more years on the books. The previous extension was set to expire at midnight on May 26, but the Congress passed the bill just hours before the deadline. The Patriot Act had originated under President George W. Bush as a response to the 9/11 attacks. At the time the provisions were said to be only temporary as a means of attacking the immediate threat of terrorism. It is an irony that as a Senator and a presidential candidate Obama himself was often critical of the act, yet as president Civil Services
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he has supported and has extended the law on a number of occasions. The extended provisions will allow law enforcement officers to continue conducting warrantless surveillance on terror suspects, monitor “lone-wolf” suspects who are not linked to terrorist groups and gain open access to a suspects’ business dealings. Some supporters of the law continue to argue that the provisions are necessary for continued US security, yet many are unable to point to any event in which the act lead to a more secure America. Critics of the legislation argue that the bill infringes upon the rights and civil liberties of American and is often abused and used against citizens not suspected of terrorism. India and Russia
War games In a decision that has infuriated Indian diplomatic circle, Russia has cancelled two bilateral war games with the Indian Armed Forces after months of planning and a well-established arrangement. It is here underscored that Russia first called off the Indra series of exercises scheduled with the navy late in April. Later, it cancelled another planned war game with the army in June. The decision to call off the exercise by Russia is purely an unprofessional one because the announcement to cancel the exercise came after five Indian warships (including guided missile destroyers INS Delhi, INS Ranvir and INS Ranvijay) reached Vladivostok. The ships were allowed to dock at Vladivostok as a port of call and then they had to sail back to India. Russia justified the cancellation of the Indra exercise by stating that its warships were not available as they were deployed in Fukushima to help Japan in its relief work. But what came as a shocker for the Indians was that the Russian warships later sailed out for an exercise of their own, instead of the cited deployment in aid of Japan. However the latest strain on our strategic relations was caused recently when Russia called off another army exercise that was scheduled to take place in Russia in June. Moscow said that it would not be able to host the exercise as there was little time to prepare. It should be noted that since 2003, the two countries have conductAUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
ed five exercises between their armies and navies under the Indra series. The latest bilateral army exercise was held in Uttarakhand in northern India last October. The Russian moves come in the wake of India choosing two European fighter jets as the top contenders for a 10.4 billion U.S. dollar fighter jet contract. In the process, not only Russian but also American and Swedish planes were knocked out of the competition. Cancellation of war-games and future of our relations with Russia: Our time tested defence and strategic relations with Russia are under strain with Moscow calling off two scheduled joint naval and army exercise at short notice in an apparent move to express its displeasure over New Delhi exploring global markets for weapons procurement. The highly unprofessional move by Russia has definitely irked the Indian policy and diplo-
matic circle. Not only in India, the move by Russia has also been criticized the Russian defence experts who call it a Himalayan blunder by Russia more importantly at such a time when several countries are waiting in queue to hold such an exercise with India. The decision by India to explore more arms vendor from the West is seen as the major reason by cancelation of Russia of the war games. It should be noted here that regular supply of spare parts from Russia has been a problem for the last one decade since the disintegration of Soviet Union and in order to tackle the supply side scenario the Indian defence establishment has now decided to expand its vendor base to inject more competition and get a better deal for its money. The present case presents a bad planning by Russian side and gives an opportunity to India to relook at its long time strategic partner because
Samoa
Shift back west of International Date Line The South Pacific island nation of Samoa has announced it will switch time zones so it falls to the west of the international dateline, bringing the Pacific country’s clocks closer to major trading partners in Australasia. Samoa currently sits to the east of the dateline—which runs through the middle of the Pacific —meaning that it is 11 hours behind GMT and is one of the last places on Earth to see out the day. Under the change, to be introduced on December 29 this year, it will be among the first of the world’s countries to greet the dawn, with time zones closely aligned to Australia and New Zealand. The change in the time zone will make it easier for Samoa to do business with its biggest trading partners i.e. Australia and New Zealand, both of which are also home to large expatriate Samoan communities. Currently Samoa loses out on two working days in a week while doing business with New Zealand and Australia. The change in the time zone also offers great deal of tourism opportunities for Samoa. The change in time zone of Samoa would reverse a decision made almost 120 years ago to move to the east of the international dateline because most of Samoa’s trade at the time was with the United States and Europe. It is here mentioned that Samoa and neighbouring American Samoa were west of the International Date Line until 1892, when a United States business trader convinced both to switch to the east, moving back to the previous day’s date. But now its trading partners have dramatically changed, and today it does lot of business with New Zealand and Australia, China and Pacific Rim countries such as Singapore. Note: The most recent dateline change was enacted by Kiribati, which switched time zones to the west in 1995 to avoid different parts of its territory straddling the dateline, meaning they were on different days. 127
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close strategic partners do not treat each other this way. Our ties with Russia have been on a roller-coaster ride due to the extended deadline for the refit of the aircraft carrier, Admiral Gorshkov and continuous extension of acquisition of an Akula-II class nuclear-powered submarine. Relook and reconsideration of our strategic relations with Russia is a good idea to reframe the things to suit the modalities of changing geopolitical realities. But we should not any point of time forget that Russia and India have several decade long traditions of geopolitical, trade, economic and defence cooperation. The military technical cooperation had been the main pillars of our relations with Russia and the military exercise with Russia is largely symbolic but are an important barometer of our healthy ties. All said and done we can firmly conclude that our strategic partnership with Russia still holds. India and Afghanistan
process has also been initiated to facilitate the flow of films from India into Afghanistan. Various Dimensions Covered Under the MoU: The focus of the MoU is on capacity development covering critical areas which are as follows: (a) Development of media policies and strategies (b) Development of independent and free press in Afghanistan (c) Identification of areas of reforms and restructuring in the field of press and media and implementation thereof (d) Development and standardization of media related programmes, graphic designing, production of documentaries and films and other related areas (e) Production and broadcasting activities of Radio and Television of Afghanistan (RTA) including content management (f) Marketing of TV and Radio programmes for revenue generation. Turkey
MoU on IT
The recently concluded fourth summit of the United Nations on Least Developed Countries (LDCs) adopted a 10year plan to assure support for the world’s most vulnerable countries overcome poverty, calling on the private sector to play a greater role in the fight, urging wealthy nations to step up their aid commitments and de-
In a major initiative to boost cooperation in the Information and Broadcasting sectors, India and Afghanistan have recently signed a Memorandum of Understanding for capacity building in these sectors. The signing of the MoU by both the nations would provide a platform for development of media policies and strategies between the two countries. It would also enable the Afghanistan government to incorporate learning’s of key policy initiatives taken by the Information and Broadcasting Ministry related to digitalisation, self-regulation, and content management, innovative programming with regard to outreach programmes at the grass roots. The MoU covers a wide range of issues. Prominent being policy and strategy development, project management, financial management and procurement processes. It is here underscored that the Indian Institute of Mass Communication is providing training to various Afghan journalists and India has recently helped build the full-fledged Radio and Television Afghanistan (RTA) station at Jalalabad, Afghanistan. As part of the capacity building technical process, India is also providing satellite up linking facilities for the state owned television RTA. A AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
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manding the elimination of many trade barriers. UN promises aid to least developed countries: At the recently concluded LDC-IV the developed countries vowed to provide 0.15 to 0.2 per cent of their national incomes as the Official Development Assistance (ODA) to the 48 least developed countries (LDCs) under a new 10-year action plan. The developed countries’ vow means a significant increase in ODA to LDCs, since the previous aid levels remained at slightly less than 0.1 per 128
cent of donors’ gross national income. The Istanbul Programme of Action to spur development and economic growth in LDCs focuses primarily on ways to harness the potential of the 48 countries – many of them in subSaharan Africa – classified as LDCs so that they can lift themselves out of poverty and develop economically. The plan also calls for the abolition or reduction of arbitrary or unjustified trade barriers, and the opening up of markets in wealthier countries to products from poorer nations. The commitment shown by the developed nations is all comprehensive and is aimed at sustained economic growth in the LDCs. The programme of action emphasizes the strengthening of the productive capacity in LDCs – building infrastructure, enhancing human capital and governance capabilities. As per the action plan the develop nations have pledged to ensure energy security in LDCs and bring innovation and technology transfer and investing in agricultural productivity to boost food security and employment in LDCs. The Istanbul Action Plan priorities: (a) Development of infrastructure, energy, science-technology, private sector under the heading “Production capacity”. (b) Development of Agriculture, food security and rural areas. (c) Education, population and basic health, development of youth, preservation, water and irrigation, equality of women and men, strengthening women and social security. (d) Economic shocks, climate change, environmental sustainability, reducing risks during natural disasters. (e) Using local resources, official assistance for development, foreign debt, direct international investment, donations. Further the conference also resolved to work out a smooth process transitioning from the LDC category when countries attain the required social development benchmarks. The LDCs and their development partners committed to ensuring good governance, rule of law, human rights, gender equality and women’s empowerment and inclusive democratic principles. Civil Services
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G Balachandran The government has recently appointed G. Balachandran as the new chairman of the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority. The NPPA operates under the Department of Pharmaceuticals in the Chemicals and Fertilizers ministry. Balachandran has replaced the outgoing chairman S. M Jharwal. M M Joshi Senior BJP leader, Murli Manohar Joshi has been re-appointed as Chairman of Parliament’s Public Accounts Committee (PAC). Joshi a Lok Sabha member from Varanasi was re-appointed as PAC Chairman by Lok Sabha Speaker, Ms Meira Kumar, for one more year. M M Joshi was recently at the centre of a major controversy relating to the PAC investigations on the 2G spectrum allocation scam. A majority of 11 out of the 21-member PAC had rejected a draft report of the PAC. S.C. Chetal Distinguished Scientist S.C. Chetal recently took over as the director of Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR), which is mandated with the task of designing fast breeder nuclear reactors. Chetal took over charge from the outgoing director Baldev Raj. Prior to his elevation, Chetal was heading IGCAR’s reactor engineering group. A mechanical engineering from Delhi College of Engineering, Chetal has been engaged in the reactor engineering since 1971. Chetal is a recipient of the National Technology Award in 2000 from the Defence Research Development Organisation (DRDO) for significant contributions in the field of high purity titanium sponge production and the Indian Nuclear Society Award 2003 for contributions towards nuclear related high technology. He will hold his new position for two years. A.K. Seth The Government has approved the appointment of Ajit Kumar Seth, a 1974 Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer belonging to Uttar Pradesh cadre as the next Cabinet Secretary with effect from June 14, 2011. Seth has succeeded K.M. Chandrashekhar, who had been the incumbent since 2007. A K Seth was posted as secretary, public grievances and coordination. It needs
to be mentioned that generally the term for the Cabinet Secretary is for two years; however, Chandrasekhar had three extensions. Prakash Chandra The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has a new Chairman in Prakash Chandra. He is a 1973-batch officer of the Indian Revenue Service (IRS). Chandra was earlier handling personnel and vigilance matters as CBDT board member and now he will continue to look after the work relating to these two subjects. Prakash Chandra has succeeded Sudhir Chandra, who demitted office recently. Lieutenant General H.L. Kakria Lieutenant General H.L. Kakria, the senior-most medical officer in the army and a renowned surgeon, has taken over as the Director General of the armed forces medical services. Kakria was director general medical service of the army before taking over as the chief of the tri-services medical units. An alumnus of Kanpur-based GSVM Medical College, Kakria was commissioned into the Army Medical Corps in February 1972. During his 39-year career Kakria served in several important positions like that of Commandant-Base Hospital Delhi Cantonment, Commandant-Artificial Limb Centre in Pune and Commandant-Command Hospital (Southern Command) in Pune. P H Parekh Senior advocate P.H. Parekh has been elected president of the Supreme Court Bar Association (SCBA) for 2011-2012 for the fifth time. The noted criminal lawyer and former law minister Ram Jethmalani, who contested for the first time in 2010 and was elected president by a big margin, was relegated to the third position with 735 advocates voting for him. Prakash Bakshi The Government has appointed Dr Prakash Bakshi as the new chairman of the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). Prior to his elevation as Chairman, Dr Bakshi was the Executive Director of Nabard. He will be at the helm till October 2013. Nabard has got an insider heading the organisation after eight years. The previous three chairpersons — Ms Ranjana Kumar (commercial banker), Dr YSP Thorat (central banker), and UC Sarangi (bureaucrat) —
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Jill Abramson The New York Times has appointed, for the first time ever in the history of 160 years, a woman Executive Editor, Ms. Abramson. She is currently the Managing Editor of the venerable voice of liberal America. Abramson has served as managing editor for the paper since 2003. She arrived at the Times from The Wall Street Journal in 1997, and in 2000 she was named Washington bureau chief. She will replace Bill Keller who would step down from the position to become a full time writer in September 2011. were from outside Nabard. Bakshi was member of the team that designed and replicated the ‘Self Help Groups (SHGs)-Bank Linkage Programme’ and was also associated with the committee on cooperative credit structuring set up by the Government under Prof Vaidyanathan. Sunil Mitra The government has appointed a 1975 batch Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer from the West Bengal cadre Sunil Mitra, revenue secretary in the finance ministry, as the new finance secretary. Prior to his appointment as Revenue Secretary, Mr Mitra was Disinvestment Secretary. Phaneesh Murthy Phaneesh Murthy has been appointed as MD and CEO of Patni. Jai Pathak, partner in law firm Gibson, Dunn and Crutcher, is the IT company’s new chairman. The changes were expected as US-based iGATE had acquired a majority stake in Mumbai-based Patni Computer Systems that was announced in January 2011. The acquisition by iGATE is valued at approximately $1.22 billion, including the mandatory open offer to the public shareholders of Patni. Civil Services
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Vikram Pandit Citigroup has rewarded CEO Vikram Pandit with an over $16 million “retention award” for his “outstanding job” of steering the financial giant to profitability and executing a strategy for sustainable growth. It is to be noted that he has been taking home a token $1 salary from Citigroup since 2009. Pandit took over as Citigroup CEO in December, 2007. Citi had received USD 45 billion in taxpayer aid during the financial crisis. Citigroup reported net income of USD 10.6 billion dollars for 2010, the first profitable year for the bank since Pandit took over.
to successfully scale Mt Everest. She reached the summit along with her guide Tsering Dorje Sherpa. First Indian Woman to Climb Mount Everest: Bachendri Pal is the first Indian woman to climb Mount Everest. She achieved this feat on 23rd May 1984. Bachendri Pal was part of the fourth expedition, named Everest 84. She was one of the members of the elite group of six Indian women and eleven men who were part of the group. Bachendri Pal was the only woman in the group to reach the summit. Suzanne Al Houby Suzanne Al Houby, a Palestinian woman living in the UAE, has become the first Arab woman to reach the summit of Mount Everest. Al Houby spent 51 days scaling the mountain as part of a four-person team before reaching the 8,848m peak. She is one of around just 100 women to have conquered the world’s tallest mountain. The mother of two is no stranger to the record books. To date, Al Houby has scaled the highest mountains on five of the world’s seven continents. She became the first Arab woman to reach Everest base camp, some 6,065m up, in 2003. She was also the first Arab woman to scale Mount Elbrus, the highest point in Europe, and the first Palestinian woman to climb Mount Kilimanjaro, Africa’s highest peak. New Zealand mountaineer Sir Edmund Hillary and the Napali-Indian sherpa mountaineer Tenzing Norgay were the first climbers known to have reached the summit of Mount Everest in 1953. Both have since been named by Time Magazine as one of the 100 most influential people of the 20th century. Pramod Bhasin The founder of BPO firm Genpact in 1997, has decided to step down as president and CEO of the firm, and the COO, N V Tyagarajan, popularly known as Tiger has to take Bhasin’s place. The Genpact is India’s biggest outsourcing firm with revenue of $1.26 billion. Raj Rajaratnam Although, he could face huge criminal fines and penalties as part of his insider trading conviction, but the hedge fund founder could remain a rich man even if he is sent to prison for a long time. As recently as 2009, Forbes magazine said the Galleon Group founder
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Newsmakers Lakshmi Mittal Lakshmi Mittal has topped the Sunday Times ranking of the 1,000 wealthiest people in Britain for a seventh year. Mittal, the Indian-born chief executive officer of Arcelor Mittal, the world’s largest steel maker, topped the list even after the 60-year-old’s fortune declined by 22 per cent to £17.5 billion (S$35.5 billion). Usmanov, the billionaire shareholder of Russian iron-ore producer Metalloinvest, beat 44-year-old Abramovich, the owner of Chelsea Football Club, to second place after adding £7.7 billion to his net worth. The other Indian name at the No.1 spot is Anurag Dikshit , who tops the giving list by transferring a massive £172.4 million from his personal fortune to charitable foundation Kusuma Trust in India. The Duke of Westminster - who owns half the land in central London is at fourth place. The Queen is somewhere around the 88th. There are also more women than usual, over 100 for the first time, including Chinese-born property entrepreneur Xiuli Hawken . Tena Mena Tena Mena of Arunachal Pradesh has become the first woman from the state
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was worth $1.3 billion, tied for 559th in the world. Rajaratnam is subject to a potential $172.6 million criminal penalty, based on twice his $63.8 million of gains on stocks such as Goldman Sachs Group Inc and Google Inc, and a $5 million fine on each of the nine securities fraud counts. Sukanya Roy Sukanya Roy has won the crown at the prestigious Spelling Bee championships in Maryland, US. The 14-year-old is the fourth Indian-origin student in a row to bag top honours at the event, for correctly spelling the tongue twister ‘cymotrichous.’ NRIs According to Pulse, a leading medical publication, three general practitioners of Indian origin are among Britain’s 50 best doctors who have helped shape health care. The three doctors who figure in the magazine’s annual list of 50 best GPs are Kamlesh Khunti, Chaand Nagpaul and Kailash Chand. Khunt Kamlesh Khunti has graduated from the University of Dundee in 1984, is a leading diabetes expert; Chaand Nagpaul, who topped Pulse’s 2010 list of up-and-coming GPs, has graduated from the University of London in 1985; and Kailash Chand has graduated from Punjabi University, Patiala, in 1974, spent 25 years as a GP in Ashton-under-Lyne. Dominique Strauss-Kahn The arrest of International Monetary Fund chief Dominique Strauss-Kahn on attempted rape and assault charges in New York had the effect on the political scene of France as it was widely expected that Kahn would resign his post at the IMF and would run for the French presidential poll in 2012. In the meantime French Finance Minister Christine Lagarde has become the new IMF chief.
Death Badal Sircar Legendary Bengali playwright Badal Sircar, who gave Indian theatre a new dimension with plays like ‘Pagla Ghoda’ and ‘Ebang Indrajit’, died recently. Some of his prominent works include Basi Khabar, Saari Raat, Juloos, Baaki Itihaas, Pralap, Shesh Naai, Sagina Mahato and Michil. Sircar had won the coveted Sangeet Natak Academy award and was also a recipient of PadCivil Services
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masree in 1972. Last year, he had declined the Padma Bhusan award, stating he was already a Sahitya Akademi fellow. The playwright was recently honoured with the Mahindra Excellence in Theatre Award for lifetime achievement for 40 years of creative contribution to the country’s contemporary theatre movement. Ustad Mahmood Dholpuri Eminent harmonium player and Padma Shri awardee Ustad Mahmood Dholpuri has recently died after prolonged illness in New Delhi. He was 58. Dholpuri regularly accompanied the most prominent vocalists of India, namely Pandit Bhimsen Joshi, Kishori Amonkar, Girija Devi and Pandit Jasraj. It needs to be mentioned here that he was also the first harmonium artiste to be awarded Padma Shri. Sir Henry Cooper Former European heavyweight boxing champion Henry Cooper, one of Britain’s most popular sportsmen, died at the age of 76. In boxing he will be remembered for his dangerous left hook, nicknamed ‘Enry’s Hammer’ which knocked down the young Cassius Clay during their first fight in 1963. Cooper fought a number of top fighters during his 17 year professional career such as Floyd Patterson, Muhammad Ali,
Joe Bugner, Brian London and Ingemar Johansson. During his career ‘Our Enry’ was a British, European and Commonwealth heavyweight champion and was knighted in 2000. He was the first person to win the BBC Sports Personality of the Year award twice and was one of only three two-time winners in the award’s history. Mahendra Singh Tikait The leader of many a struggle uniting peasants in North India and founder president of Bharatiya Kisan Union (BKU), died of bone cancer at the age of 76. He was suffering from the disease since last year. Artist Devi Prasad Prominent artist Devi Prasad, who was taught painting by masters including Nandalal Bose, Benode Bihari Mukherjee and Ram Kinkar, died at the age of 89. He was awarded the Lalit Kala Ratna award by Lalit Kala Akademi in 2007. He has published over 200 books and several articles on peace studies, child art and education and Tagore and Gandhi. He was a pioneering studio potter, painter, designer, photographer, art educator and peace activist Devi Prasad studied at Rabindranath Tagore’s Shantiniketan and also at Sevagram. A major exhibition, The Making of the Modern Indian ArtistCraftsman, was held in New Delhi in May 2010. He worked internationally with War Resisters’ International (WRI) for several decades, serving in its London office as general secretary from 1962-72 prior to his term as chair from 1972-1975. His history of the organization, War is a Crime Against Humanity: The story of War Resisters’ International, was published in 2005. Shailendra Kumar Upadhyaya An 82-year-old former Nepal minister who was attempting to scale Mount Everest and enter record books as the oldest person to scale the world’s highest peak died when he collapsed due to lack of oxygen at the Everest icefall and died. Upadhyay was trying to break the record set by a Nepalese man, Bahadur Sherchan, at the age of 76 in 2008. After serving in government towards the end of the 1960s S K Upadhyay was appointed as a permanent representative of Nepal to the UN from 1972-1978, and served as foreign minister from 1986-1990.
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‘Dr. Death’ Jack Kevorkian Dr. Jack Kevorkian, the Michigan pathologist who put assisted suicide on the world’s medical ethics stage, died at the age of 83. It said that he had helped some 130 people end their lives from 1990 to 1999. Kevorkian was freed in June 2007 after serving eight years of a 10- to 25-year sentence for second-degree murder. His life story became the subject of the 2010 HBO movie, “You Don’t Know Jack,” which earned actor Al Pacino Emmy and Golden Globe Awards for his portrayal of Kevorkian.
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Benu Sen Popular as “Benu Da”, died at the age of 80. Da was the third ‘Master of Photography’ (MFIAP) in the world, President of ‘Photographic Association of Dum Dum’ for more than two decades, and Secretary-General of the Federation of Indian Photography (FIP) since 1997. The third man in the world to have received the rare honour of ‘Master of Photography’ (MFIAP) from Federation International de L’Art Photographique, he was conferred Fellowship of the Royal Photographic Society of Great Britain (FRPS) in 1975, EFIAP in 1960, ESFIAP in 1972 and several honorary fellowships like FJIAP (Japan), FNPAS (Sri Lanka), FPBS (Bangladesh), FPAD (India) and FCOS (Romania) for his contribution to photography. He was the founder-member of the Photographic Association of Dum Dum (PAD) and was the principal guiding force in running the two “free photographic courses” in Calcutta since 1967. He will be remembered for his notable contribution to photography as an extraordinary fine grain black and white film developer for tropical countries — the BS4, Tonorama and macro pictography. He was the first Indian to introduce colour photogram and colour separation from B &W negatives. Chidananda Dasgupta The renowned film critic, historian and a pioneer of the film society movement in India, Chidananda Dasgupta, died at the age of 89. He was father of actress and filmmaker Aparna Sen and was a close associate of legendary filmmaker Satyajit Ray, The Federation of Film Societies of India was set up on his initiative. He made seven films, including two feature films – Bilet Pherat and Amodini. Released in 1994, Amodini starred his daughter Aparna Sen and granddaughter Konkona Sen Sharma. He founded the country’s first film society dedicated to feature films - Calcutta Film Society - in 1947 soon after independence. Sarai Alamgir Pakistan bureau chief of the Hong Kong-based Asia Times Online and a correspondent for Italian news agency Adnkronos International who reported on links between the al-Qaeda and the Pakistan navy, was found dead in Sarai Alamgir near the town of Jhelum, about 200 km from Islamabad. Civil Services
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Awards
Man Booker International Prize
Sydney Peace Foundation The Sydney Peace Foundation has recently awarded its “gold medal for peace with justice” to WikiLeaks editor-in-chief Julian Assange in recognition of his exceptional courage and initiative in pursuit of human rights. This award is different from the foundation’s annual Sydney Peace Prize. The foundation has awarded the gold medal on only three previous occasions: the Dalai Lama in 1998; Nelson Mandela in 2000 and Japanese lay Buddhist leader Daisaku Ikeda in 2009. The Sydney Peace Foundation is a not-for-profit organization within the University of Sydney. Its gold medal is not to be confused with its annual Sydney Peace Prize, which is awarded separately. Julian Assange, an Australian is the founder of the WikiLeaks website, which is dedicated to leaking confidential information to the public. He has never spent a day in a newsroom, attended a journalism school or penned a newspaper column, but has changed the way news is gathered and disseminated around the world. Assange, a computer geek-turned-whistle blower,
American novelist Philip Milton Roth, is a Jewish American novelist and winner of National Book Award, known for books like “Goodbye, Columbus” and “Portnoy’s Complaint” has been honoured with the biennial 60,000 pounds Man Booker International Prize. Roth, a Pulitzer Prize winner, was among the 13 finalists, who included Canada-based writer of Indian origin Rohinton Mistry. The other contenders for the Man Booker International 2011 were: Juan Goytisolo (Spain), James Kelman (UK), John le Carré (UK), Amin Maalouf (Lebanon), David Malouf (Australia), Dacia Maraini (Italy), Rohinton Mistry (India/Canada), Philip Pullman (UK), Marilynne Robinson (USA), Su Tong (China), Anne Tyler (USA) and Wang Anyi (China). He won the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 1998 for his novel, American Pastoral. Other books written by him include: (a) ‘I Married a Communist (b) The Human Stain (c) Sabbath’s Theatre. (d) Nemesis. The author of 31 novels to date, Roth made a mark on the literary scene from the very beginning. His debut Goodbye, Columbus, published in 1959, was described by Saul Bellow as “a first book but ... not the book of a beginner”. The judging panel for the Man Booker International Prize 2011 consists of writer, academic and rare-book dealer Dr Rick Gekoski (Chair), publisher, writer and critic Carmen Callil, and award-winning novelist Justin Cartwright. About Rohinton Mistry: Canada-based Mistry, who graduated from Bombay University, is the author of three novels — ‘Such a Long Journey (1991)’, ‘A Fine Balance (1996)’ and ‘Family Matters (2002)’ — each of which has been shortlisted for the Booker Prize for Fiction. Man Booker International and Man Booker Prize: The Man Booker International Prize is presented once every two years to a living author for a body of work published either originally in English or widely available in translation in the English language as opposed to the annual Man Booker Prize for Fiction, which is awarded for a single book. The prize was first presented in 2005. Roth is the fourth recipient of the award. Year Winner Important works 2005 Ismail Kadare (Albania) The General of the Dead Army, The Monster, The Weeding etc. 2007 Chinua Achebe (Nigeria) Things Fall Apart, No Longer at Ease, A Man of the People, Girls at War and Other Stories etc. 2009 Alice Munro (Canada) Dance of the Happy Shades, Too Much
Garret FitzGerald The former Irish PM Garret FitzGerald, who led two governments in the 1980s, died at the age of 85. The former leader of Ireland’s perennial No. 2 party Fine Gael was behind the Anglo-Irish Agreement with former British premier Margaret Thatcher, which produced closer relations between the two countries on Northern Ireland. FitzGerald had also served as foreign minister in that 1973-77 government.
is at the centre of a worldwide controversy for leaking US diplomatic cables on the WikiLeaks website. Assange began WikiLeaks in 2006, creating a web-based “dead letter drop” for would-be leakers. His has five full-time staff, several dozen active volunteers and 800 part-time volunteers.
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Philip Roth (USA)
Happiness, No Love Lost etc. I Married a Communist, The Human Stain, Sabbath’s Theatre, Nemesis. Wikileaks has received hundreds of documents and the website has never compromised on the sources of information. Jawahar Lal Nehru Award German Chancellor Angela Merkel has been chosen for the prestigious Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International Civil Services
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58th National Film Awards The Information and Broadcasting Ministry has recently announced the list of awardees for the 58th National Film Awards. Feature Films jury was headed by J.P. Dutta, Non-Feature Films jury was headed by A.K. Bir and Best Writing on Cinema jury was headed by Ashok Vajpeyi. The jury decided on the awardees to honour the best work of Indian Cinema for the year 2010. Here’s the complete list of winners at the 58th National Film Awards: Category Winner Best Feature Film Adaminte Makan Abu (Malayalam) Indira Gandhi Award for Best Debut Film of a Director Baboo Band Baaja (Marathi) Award for Best Popular Film Providing Wholesome Entertainment Dabangg (Hindi) Nargis Dutt Award for Best Feature Film on National Integration Moner Manush (Bengali) Best film on Social Issues Champions (Marathi) Best film on Environment Conservation /Preservation Bettada Jeeva (Kannada) Best Children’s Film Hejjegalu (Kannada) Best Direction Vetrimaran for Aadukalam (Tamil) Best Actor Dhanush for Aadukalam (Tamil) and Salim Kumar for Adaminte Makan Abu (Malayalam) Best Actress Mitalee Jagtap Varadkar for Baboo Band Baaja (Marathi) and Saranya Ponvannan for Thenmerkku Paruvakkatru (Tamil) Best Male Playback Singer Suresh Wadkar for Mee Sindhutai Sapkal (Marathi) Best Female Playback Singer Rekha Bhardwaj for Ishqiya (Hindi) Best Book On Cinema “From Rajahs and Yogis to Gandhi and Beyond: Images of India in International Films of the Twentieth Century” (English) by Vijaya Mulay Understanding for her enormous efforts for sustainable and equitable development. The jury, chaired by VicePresident Mohammad Hamid Ansari decided to confer the award for 2009 on Dr Merkel. Merkel is known for her efforts for good governance and understanding and for the creation of a world, better positioned to handle the emerging challenges of the 21st century. About the Award: Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International Understanding founded in 1965 is an international award presented by the Government of India. The award is administered by the Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) to people for their outstanding contribution to the promotion of international understanding, goodwill and friendship among people of the world. The award carries prize money of Rs.1 crore besides a trophy and citation. Some of the prominent
recipients of the award include: U Thant (1965), Martin Luther King, Jr. (1966), Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan (1967), LuizInácio Lula da Silva (2006), Olafur Ragnar Grimsson (2007). Commonwealth Writers’ honour British born Sierra Leonean, Aminatta Forna’s novel “The Memory of Love” has won best book at the Commonwealth Writers’ Prize for the year 2011. The prize for the Best First Book has been given to Craig Cliff of New Zealand for “A Man Melting”. About the winners: (a) Aminatta Forna (Best Book: The Memory of Love): Aminatta’s first book, “The Devil that Danced on the Water”, was shortlisted for the Samuel Johnson Prize 2003. Her novel “Ancestor Stones” was winner of the 2008 Hurston Wright Legacy Award. Her other works include “Literaturpreis”. (b) Craig Cliff (Best First Book: A Man
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Melting): His short story ‘Another Language’ had won the novice section of the 2007 BNZ Katherine Mansfield Awards. About the Commonwealth Writers’ Prize: The Commonwealth Writers’ Prize is one of the world’s most important literary awards, presented annually by the Commonwealth Foundation with the support of the Macquarie Group Foundation. Established in 1987, the prize aims to recognize the best fiction by both established and new writers from Commonwealth countries and ensure these works reach a wider audience outside their countries of origin. Almost 200 books have now been recognized with prizes since the scheme began. Chaired by Hon Nicholas Hasluck AM, the Prize is fully international in its character, administration and judging. Each year, prizes for Best Book and Best First Book are awarded in four regions: Africa, Caribbean and Canada, South Asia and Europe and South East Asia and Pacific. The regional prize winners for the year 2011 include: (a) Africa: (I) Best Book: The Memory of Love by Aminatta Forna (Sierra Leone) (II) Best First Book: Happiness is a four-letter word by Cynthia Jele (South Africa) (b) Caribbean and Canada: - (I) Best Book: Room by Emma Donoghue (Canada) (II) Best First Book: Bird Eat Bird by Katrina Best (Canada) (c) South Asia and Europe: - (I) Best Book: The Thousand Autumns of Jacob de Zoet by David Mitchell (UK) (II) Best First Book: Sabra Zoo by Mischa Hiller (UK) (d) South East Asia and Pacific: (I) Best Book: That Deadman Dance by Kim Scott (Australia) (II) Best First Book: A Man Melting by Craig Cliff (New Zealand) G. D. Birla Award Subhasis Chaudhuri, a professor of IITMumbai has been selected for the prestigious G D Birla Award for Scientific Research for his contributions in the area of electronic communications. Chaudhury joined IIT Mumbai in 1990 and is currently serving as an Institute Chair Professor and the Dean of International Relations. He works in the Civil Services
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area of computer vision and image processing. About the Award: The G.D. Birla Award for Scientific Research was instituted in 1991 by the K.K. Birla Foundation with the objective of according recognition to high calibre scientific research undertaken by Indian Scientists, below the age of 50 living and working in India. Like all other awards instituted by the Foundation the G.D. Birla Award is also given every year and is available in any branch of science including medical science, basic as well as applied. The emphasis is particularly on the work done by the scientist during the last five years. Dr. Jayant Khandare: Jayant Khandare, a young Indian scientist has been awarded the prestigious Alexander von Humboldt Experienced Researcher Fellowship for his research in macromolecular chemistry, involving work on targeting cancer cells and in inflammation using ligands and hyper-branched polymers. Dr Jayant Khandare is currently working with Piramal Life Sciences Limited. After getting the prestigious fellowship he has joined the galaxy of researchers ‘Humboldtians’, 44 of whom have so far received the Nobel Prize. About the Fellowship: The Germanybased Humboldt foundation promotes academic cooperation between top scientists and scholars from within and outside that country. The Foundation awards post-doctoral, experienced researchers and many other prestigious fellowships every year.
MetroPlus Playwright Award 2011 The 26-year-old, Mumbai based Aditya Sudarshan, a 2007 batch graduate of the National Law School of India University (NLSIU), is the winner of the MetroPlus Playwright Award 2011 for his entry The Green Room. He has published two novels, A Nice Quiet Holiday and Show Me A Hero, and contributed several short stories to anthologies and magazines. The Green Room was selected from 117 entries received from all over the country. Seven plays were long-listed, of which three were short-listed. The other two short-listed entries were Swetanshu Bora’s Once, On That Street and Abhishek Majumdar’s The Djinns of Eidgah. The scripts were judged by a panel of three eminent persons engaged in theatre: Arshia Sattar, Keval Arora and Shernaz Patel. The MetroPlus Playwright Award 2011 is the fourth since it was launched in 2008. The other three winners were Abhishek Majumdar for Harlesden High Street, Prashant Prakash and Kalki Koechlin for Skeleton Woman, and Neel Chaudhuri for Taramandal. INMA award The cross-border joint peace initiative “Aman ki Asha” by the Times of India and the Jang group of Pakistan won the coveted “best of show” award at the 81st annual International Newsmedia Marketing Association (INMA) World Congress. The 76-year-old INMA Awards competition generated 550 entries from 143 market-leading newspapers in 30 countries.
Science and Technology
Smallpox virus stocks It has been agreed by the Health Ministers, at the 193-nation World Health Assembly, from around the world to put off setting a deadline to destroy the last known stockpiles of the variola (smallpox) virus stocks for three more years, rejecting a US plan that had called for a fiveyear delay. The United States had proposed a five-year extension to destroying the US and Russian stockpiles, arguing that more research is needed and the stockpiles could help prevent one of the world’s deadliest diseases from being used as a biological weapon. Variola, also known by the Latin names Variola or Variola vera, is a double-stranded DNA virus in the family Poxviridae and the genus Orthopoxvirus. In 1980, the World Health Organization (WHO) officially said that smallpox was wiped out worldwide. The variola virus is among the most dangerous of all the potential biological weapons. AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
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International Singapore In the light of “the new political situation” in Singapore, Mentor Lee Kuan Yew and Senior Minister Goh Chok Tong, both former Prime Ministers, have announced their retirement from Cabinet. The decisions were natural corollary on a reading of the results of the May 7 general election. The resignation was designed to enable Prime Minister Lee Hsien Loong to start his next term at the helm on a “clean slate”. Indonesia The scientists from Conservation International have discovered eight new fish and one new coral species off Indonesia's Bali Island's northeast coast at Tulamben, a well-known recreational dive site, as well as Nusa Dua, Gili Manuk and Pemuteran, at depths of 10 to 70 metres. The new species include eels and damsels, the colourful little fish that dart among coral branches and help give reefs their dazzling appearance while playing a key role in reef ecology. Saudi Arabia The opening of the world’s largest women-only university by King Abdullah of Saudi Arabia appears to be a huge step of the king to empower and develop the remaining half of the population that has been ranked zero in terms of female political empowerment in 2010 by the World Economic Forum gender gap report. The newly opened world’s largest women university in Saudi Arabia is situated on the outskirts of the capital Riyadh. It has been named as Princess Nora bint Abdulrahaman University. With the capacity for 50,000 girl students, the university is equipped with a teaching hospital, laboratories and libraries, and it is said to be capable of improving women’s access to business and science courses. UN Human Rights Council The UN General Assembly recently elected 15 countries to its Human Rights Council, but not without controversy about the nations selected. Syria’s candidacy to the Geneva-based panel had been uncontested, but it withdrew earlier this month in the face of widespread criticism of its bloody two-month crackdown on anti-government protesters. Instead, as the new countries were selected for the 47Civil Services
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member council, Kuwait took Syria’s place for the 2011-2013 terms and Syria postponed its candidacy until 2014. The election of Kuwait and Congo is marred by controversy because these two nations have poor records in respecting basic human rights of their own citizens. Candidates for the council are chosen by regional groups. Only two regional groups had contested seats — Eastern Europe, and Latin America and the Caribbean. The Czech Republic and Romania prevailed over Georgia in the European selection, while Chile, Peru and Costa Rica won seats over Nicaragua. The eight other countries selected are Burkina Faso, Botswana, Benin, India, Indonesia, the Philippines, Italy and Austria. Russia and Pakistan Visit of Zardari During his recent visit to Russia, the Pakistani President Asif Ali Zardari and Russian President Dmitry Medvedev pledged to jointly fight terrorism and drug trafficking. Asif Ali Zardari was making the first official visit by a Pakistani leader since the fall of the Soviet Union. The Russian president stressed the importance of joint cooperation to counter the threat of international terrorism — which he called the main evil of the 21st century. The two nations have also signed a joint statement calling for broader economic and political ties, including agreements on cooperation in agriculture, aviation and energy.
Panel Panel on black money The government has constituted a committee headed by the chairman of the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) to examine ways to strengthen laws to curb the generation of black money in the country, its illegal transfer abroad and its recovery. The panel includes the director, Enforcement Directorate(ED), Director-General, Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI), Director-General (Currency), and other top tax and revenue department officials. The commissioner of income tax (Investigations) of the CBDT would be its member secretary.
2. Book “Deadly Embrace: Pakistan, America and the Global Jihad” is written by Bruce Riedel. 3. Book “Matters of Discretion” is an autobiographical writing of former Prime Minister of India, I.K. Gujral. In the book Gujral has penned down his life story in a forthright and candid manner. The book provides for an absorbing, authentic as well as definitive account of incidents which had profound impact on the nation. 4. Book “Federalism and Fiscal Transfers in India” is written by C. Rangarajan and D.K. Srivastava. C. Rangarajan is Chairman, Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister, Government of India. He was Chairman of the Twelfth Finance Commission. He earlier served as Governor of the Reserve Bank of India and Governor of Andhra Pradesh. D.K. Srivastava is Director, Madras School of Economics, Chennai. He was a Member of the Twelfth Finance Commission. 5. Book “India’s White RevolutionOperation Flood, Food Aid and Development” is written by Brice A. Scholten. 6. Book “Standing My Ground” is written by ex-Australian Cricket Player Matthew Hayden. 7. Book “Close Encounter with Niira Radia” is written by advocate R.K. Anand and edited by the former executive editor of India Today magazine, Inderjiit Badhwar. The book was in the news recently because the Delhi High Court stayed its publication the involvement of Nirra Radia in the spectrum scam was under subjudice.
Sports
1. Book “Osama Bin Laden” is written by Michael Scheuer.
ATHLETICS Ghamanda Ram India’s middle-distance runner Ghamanda Ram had narrowly missed gold in 800m in the opening leg of the Asian Grand Prix meet in the Chinese city of Jiaxiang. Iran’s Sadjad Moradi, who clocked 1:50.47 won the race. Ghamanda clocked 1:50.69. Chinese runner Yang Xiaofei took the bronze in 1:50.84, while Sajeesh Joseph, the second Indian in the race, finished fifth in 1:51.62. Seema Antil clinched bronze in women’s discus throw with a throw of 49.77m. BOXING Asian Cup Boxing India’s five-time world champion M C
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Mary Kom (48kg) clinched her first gold medal of the year by finishing on top in the Asian Cup Women’s boxing tournament in Haikou, China. The mother-of-two from Manipur claimed the gold after beating Asian champion Kim Myong Sim of North Korea 4-3 in the final. China Open Boxing championship Indian women pugilists Monica Suan (60kg) and Pooja Rani (75kg) had to be content with bronze medals after losing their respective semi-final bouts in the China Open boxing tournament held at the Guiyang Sports Gymnasium. Monica, playing in the lightweight category, made it to the last four stage of the tournament by comfortably beating Hlaing KyuKyu of Myanmar. But in the semi-finals, she was up against Asian Games gold medalist and a silver medalist at the 2010 AIBA world championships, Dong Cheng of China. And the Chinese boxer domi-
Samuel Wanjiru “Sammy” Wanjiru of Kenya, winner of the marathon in the 2008 Olympics, died after jumping from a balcony at his home in central Kenya. Wanjiru made history at the 2008 Beijing Olympics when his winning time of 2 hours 6 minutes 32 seconds destroyed the 24-year-old Olympic record of 2:09:21 set in 1984 by Carlos Lopes of Portugal. It gave Kenya its first Olympic marathon gold. After Beijing, Wanjiru had won the London marathon in 2009 and Chicago in 2009 and 2010. Civil Services
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nated the bout from the very beginning and did not give Monica many chances to score. She lost the bout with a score of 8:24 and had to settle for a bronze. In the middle-weight division, Pooja, who won a silver medal at the recently concluded Arafura Games in Australia, was up against Ning Yuyu of Guizhou, the second team from China. The nimble footed Chinese boxer took a quick 5:2 lead in the first round and never let Pooja get into back into the game. In the end, Pooja could only manage a bronze with a 5:16 defeat. CRICKET Terry Jenner Former Australian Test spinner and coach of spin legend Shane Warne, Terry Jenner, passed away at the age of 66. Jenner, known as the ‘Spin Doctor’, coached Warne throughout his illustrious career. Jenner took 24 wickets in nine Tests for Australia in the early 1970s. Jenner had also served a prison sentence for embezzlement in the 1980s before going on to become spin bowling coach at the Australian Cricket Academy in Adelaide. There he was credited with having a huge influence on turning fellow leg-spinner Warne into a world class bowler. Umrigar Award Sachin Tendulkar and former allrounder Salim Durrani bagged top honours, while the World Cup winning Indian team led by skipper Mahendra Singh Dhoni was felicitated by the BCCI recently. Tendulkar was given the ‘Polly Umrigar Award for India‘s best cricketer of 2009-10‘, while Durrani was felicitated with the CK Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award. Award winners (2009-2010): Salim Durrani – C.K. Nayudu Lifetime Achievement award; Sachin Tendulkar – Polly Umrigar award; Manish Pandey (KSCA) – Madhavrao Scindia award for highest Ranji scorer; Abhimanyu Mithun (KSCA) – Madhavrao Scindia award for highest Ranji wicket-taker. B. Aparajith (TNCA) – M.A. Chidambaram Trophy for best u-16 player; Bhargav Merai (GCA) – M.A. Chidambaram Trophy for best u-19 player; Nataraj Behera (OCA) – M.A. Chidambaram Trophy for best u-22 player. M.D. Thirushkamini (TNCA) – M.A. Chidambaram Trophy for best wom-
an player; Reva Arora (PCA) – M.A. Chidambaram Trophy for best junior woman player. K. Hariharan – Best umpire in domestic cricket. Gary Kirsten The South Frican opening batsman and former coach of India, is now appointed coach of his native South Africa, Cricket South Africa (CSA). He will formally take over in August, 2011 ahead of the two home series against Australia and Sri Lanka. FOOTBALL European championship Brilliant Barcelona, inspired by the peerless Lionel Messi, delivered a soccer master class to overwhelm Manchester United 3-1 in the Champions League final and lifted the European Cup for the fourth time. Goals by Pedro, Messi and David Villa were a fair reflection of the Spanish side’s dominance over Manchester United, who they also beat in the 2009 final. Wayne Rooney briefly levelled the scores but could not stop Barcelona making it three European Cups in six years. Santosh Trophy Defending champions Bengal won their 31st Santosh Trophy final defeating Manipur 2-1. The 65th edition of the national football championship was played under floodlights at the Jawaharlal Stadium in Guwahati. Manipur, upbeat after having held Bengal 2-2 in an earlier league match, was eyeing their second Santosh Trophy after 2002. This was the Northeast state’s second final appearance. But the more experienced Bengal side prevented Manipur from repeating history. The two teams had met each other in
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2002 with Manipur coming up trumps. About Santosh Trophy: Santosh Trophy is an annual Indian football tournament which is contested by states and government institutions. The tournament first began in 1941, and was the premier football competition in the country before the National Football League started in the year 1996. The trophy as named after the late Maharaja Sir Manmatha Nath Roy Chowdhary of Santosh, which is now in Bangladesh. The runners-up are given Kamla Gupta Trophy and the third place teams receive the Sampangi Cup. The first event was held in the year 1941 and was won by Bengal. Till date West Bengal has won the Santosh Trophy 31 times, Punjab has won 8 times and Kerala has won 5 times. I-League champs Goan club Salgocar has lifted their second national football league title after they defeated JCT 2-0 in their 26th round match of the I-League. Salgaocar needed just a draw to win the title but they struck twice through Francis Fernandes (13th minute) and Yusif Yakubu (85th) to become the third Goan side to claim the crown in four years of I-League. They had won the National League in 1999. Dempo finished third and Churchill Brothers ended fourth. In the contest for the Golden Boot (highest scorer) Churchill Brothers’ Onyeka Okolie Odafe of Nigeria lost out to compatriot and long time challenger Ranti Martins of Dempo. Martin, who scored seven goals in Dempo’s incredible 14-0 win against Air India, had a tally of 30 goals. Odafa, with 25 goals, had to be content with the ‘silver boot’.
Football Association Challenge Cup Due to the brilliant performance of Yaya Touré, Manchester City has won ‘The FA Cup’ for the first time since 1969, and their first piece of silverware in 35 years. The Football Association Challenge Cup, commonly known as the FA Cup and first held in 1871-72, is a knockout cup competition in English football and is the oldest association football competition in the world and its current sponsored name is The FA Cup with Budweiser. Yaya Touré, is an Ivorian footballer who currently plays as a box-to-box midfielder or a Second striker for Premier League club Manchester City and the Côte d'Ivoire national side. Civil Services
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Sepp Blatter The scandal-hit soccer chief Sepp Blatter has been handed over another four years of power (4th term) following a farcical election in which he was the only candidate. Blatter has won 186 votes out of the 203 cast in the poll this afternoon - with 17 abstentions. It should be noted that the way to presidency of FIFA for Blatter became easy following the withdrawal on of Asian football chief Mohamed bin Hammam on 29 May 2011. Hammam was later suspended amid claims he tried to bribe voters with cash-filled envelopes. Blatter had taken took over FIFA in 1998 and had recently faced widespread calls for reform following allegations of sleaze surrounding the bidding for the 2018 and 2022 World Cups, awarded to Russia and Qatar. The Headquarter of FIFA is located in Zurich, Switzerland. HOCKEY Azlan Shah Cup Australia defeated Pakistan 3-2 to record its sixth win and in this process, Australia overtook India’s record of five titles. Both sides were teams were tied 2-2 at the end of regulation period, with Australian goals coming from Ciriello (11th minute) and Glenn Turner (44th) and Pakistan scoring through Sohail Abbas (31st) and Rehan Butt (62nd). The Azlan Shah Cup was the only title Australia did not win in 2010, when they became the first team to win the World Cup, Champions Trophy and Commonwealth Games in one year. India, who had emerged champions in 2009 and joint champions in 2010, was placed at the sixth position in the tournament. Final positions: 1.Australia, 2. Pakistan 3. Great Britain 4. New Zealand, 5. Korea, 6. India, 7. Malaysia. Player of the tournament: Shakeel Abbasi (Pakistan); Player of the final: Christopher Ciriello. Top scorers: 6-Sohail Abbas (Pakistan) and Rupinder Pal Singh (India). Obaidullah Gold Cup Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) has won its maiden title in the 65th All-India Obaidullah Gold Cup Hockey Tournament by defeating BPCL 3-2. Skipper Deepak Thakur was adjudged man-ofthe-match and Air India and ONGC were third and fourth in the tournament respectively.
RACING Spanish GP Red Bull’s Formula One world champion Sebastian Vettel has won the Spanish Grand Prix by defeating McLaren’s Lewis Hamilton who finished second, just 0.6 seconds behind. Vettel’s fourth win in five races this season was the first in 11 GPs at the Catalunya Circuit from a driver not starting on pole. TENNIS Madrid Masters 2011 Novak Djokovic defeated the master of clay, Rafael Nadal, on the Spaniard’s home soil and maintained his extraordinary start to the season with a 7-5, 64 victory in the Madrid Masters final. The defeat marked Nadal’s first reverse on clay in 38 matches, since he fell to Robin Soderling in the fourth round of the 2009 French Open, and denied him a third title on the red dirt in under a month after he won back-to-back at the Monte Carlo Masters and Barcelona Open in April. French Open 2011 Men’s single: Rafael Nadal clinched a record-tying sixth French Open title by beating Roger Federer; with this win the Spaniard retains his No. 1 ranking. Nadal defeated Fedrer (Switzerland) by 7-5, 7-6 (7-3), 5-7, 6-1 on the red clay in Paris. His victory ties him with Sweden’s Bjorn Borg, who won six Roland Garros trophies from 1974 to 1981, the highest tally in tennis’s Open era. Women’s single: China’s long wait for a Grand Slam champion ended recently when Li Na beat defending champion Francesca Schiavone of Italy 6-4, 76 (0) in the French Open final. With this win, Li Na becomes the first Chinese player to win a Grand Slam singles trophy. In January, she became the first Asian-born player to reach a major championship match at the Australian Open, where she lost to Kim Clijsters of Belgium. The American-born Michael Chang, who won the 1989 French Open men’s title at age 17, was the first player of Asian heritage to win a major. Men’s doubles: Max Mirnyi (Belarus) and Daniel Nestor (Canada) defeated Juan Sebastian Cabal and Eduardo Schwank by 7-6 (3), 3-6, 6-4 to win their first doubles title. Women’s doubles: Sania Mirza missed out on winning her second Grand Slam title as she and her partner Elena Vesn-
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ina (Russia) lost the French Open women’s doubles final to unseeded Andrea Hlavachova and Lucie Hradecki of Czech Republic by 6-4, 6-3. The Czech players have won their first grand slam title. It was a good opportunity for Sania to add a women’s doubles title to her already Australian Open mixed doubles trophy, which she won along with compatriot Mahesh Bhupathi in 2009 but it turned to be an off day for the Indian and her partner Vesnina. Nevertheless, Sania did create a history of sorts by becoming first Indian female tennis player to reach the women’s doubles final. Mixed doubles: At Roland Garros, Dellacqua performed with focus and brilliance as she paired up with Scott Lipsky to upset the defending champions and top seeds, Nenad Zimonjiic and Katarina Srebotnik in a tightly contested battle, 7-6 (6), 4-6, 10-7. For Lipsky and Dellacqua, the win is their first a Grand Slam Championship. Boy’s singles: Unseeded and relatively unknown American Bjorn Fratange-
Patty Schnyder The 32-year-old Swiss Patty Schnyder has called time on a 17-year career which brought 11 titles, 59 Grand Slam appearances. Left-hander Schnyder had reached a career high ranking of seventh n in 2005, a year after she had recorded her best Grand Slam performance of a semifinal at the Australian Open in 2004. Schnyder, who was born in Basel, the same town as Roger Federer, compiled a 555-370 career record. Civil Services
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lo upset 14th seeded Dominic Thiem of Austria in a tense 2hour 7 minute match, 2-6, 6-3, 8-6. With the win, the 17-year old becomes the first American since John McEnroe in 1977 to capture the junior’s title at Roland Garros. Girl’s singles: Ons Jabeur of Tunisia defeated Monica Puig of Puerto Rico
by 7-6, 6-1 to win Girl’s Singles title at French Open 2011. Serbia Open Novak Djokovic has won the third edition of Serbia Open without dropping a set after beating Spaniard Feliciano Lopez 7-6 6-2 to stretch his unbeaten record in 2011 to 27 matches. It was the
Indian Space Research Organization
SAGA-2203 is India’s fastest Indian Space Research Organization has built a new supercomputer with theoretical peak performance of 220 TeraFLOPS (220 Trillion Floating Point Operations per second). “SAGA-2203 (Supercomputer for Aerospace with GPU Architecture-220 TeraFLOPS) is housed at the supercomputing facility named as Satish Dhawan Supercomputing Facility located at Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), Thiruvananthapuram. The new Graphic Processing Unit (GPU) based supercomputer “SAGA2203 is being used by space scientists for solving complex aerospace problems. Scalable to many PetaFLOPS (1000 TeraFLOPS), the “SAGA-2203 Supercomputer is fully designed and built by VSSC using commercially available hardware, open source software components and in house developments. The system uses 400 NVIDIA Tesla 2070 GPUs and 400 Intel Quad Core Xeon CPUs supplied by WIPRO with a high speed interconnect. With each GPU and CPU providing a performance of 500 GigaFLOPS and 50 GigaFLOPS respectively, the theoretical peak performance of the system amounts to 220 TeraFLOPS. The present GPU system offers significant advantage over the conventional CPU based system in terms of cost, power and space requirements. The total cost of this Supercomputer is about Rs. 14 crores. The system is environmentally green and consumes a power of only 150 kW. About Supercomputer: Some scientific problems and processes are so complex that we need supercomputing power to tackle them. A supercomputer is a computer that is among the largest, fastest or most powerful of the computers available. The fastest supercomputers operate on the order of more than 200 teraflops. Supercomputers are used to tackle problems that are very complex or problems that would be messy to deal with in the real physical world because they are dangerous. Here are few usages of supercomputers: (a) Climate researchers model Earth’s current and predicted future climate using supercomputers. (b) Astronomers and space scientists use supercomputers to study the Sun and space weather. (c) Scientists use supercomputers to simulate how a tsunami would impact a coastline or a given city. (d) Supercomputers are used to simulate supernova explosions in space. (e) Supercomputers are used to test the aerodynamics of the latest military planes. (f) Supercomputers are being used to model how proteins fold and how that folding might affect people that have Alzheimer’s disease, Cystic Fibrosis and many kinds of cancer. (g) Supercomputers are used to model nuclear explosions, limiting the need for real nuclear testing. World’s 5 fastest supercomputers: (i) Tianhe-1A, owned AUGUST 2011, XVII Year, Issue No.8 Current NEWS Covered up to JUNE 15, 2011
23-year-old Serb’s fifth title this year, after he captured the Australian Open, the Dubai Championships as well as Masters Series events in Indian Wells and Miami. It is here mentioned that Djokovic had also won the inaugural Serbia Open in 2009.
by the National Supercomputing Centre, China. (ii) Cray XT5, also known as Jaguar, located at a US government facility in Tennessee. (iii) Another Chinese system, the Nebulae machine at the National Supercomputing Centre in the southern city of Shenzhen, is at number three. (iv) Tsubame 2.0, the only Japanese machine in the TOP 10 list. (v) Hopper, a Cray XE6 system at DOE’s National Energy Research Scientific Computing (NERSC) Centre in California.
GSAT- 8 Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully launched its three-ton satellite GSAT-8 from French Guyana (French Guiana is a region of France on the NorthEast coast of South America). Incidentally, this is one of the largest satellites that India has developed. GSAT-8 was injected into space by European launcher Arianespace’s Ariane 5 rocket with Japan’s ST-2 spacecraft as co-passenger (Built by Japan’s Mitsubishi Electric Company, ST-2 would be operated by the ST-2 Satellite Ventures joint company of Singapore Telecommunications Ltd (SingTel) and Taiwan’s Chunghwa Telecom Company Ltd). The satellite boasts of 24 transponders, meant to boost television broadcasting, especially Direct To Home services, radio networking and other satellite-based services in India. The payload GAGAN boosts GPS signals over India, sure to benefit airport authorities. Although a completely indigenous satellite, India had to rely on the French Guyana space agency Arianespace for the launch as ISRO’s satellite launch vehicles are only capable of launching 1 Ton or 2 Ton categories satellite. The GSAT-8 was airlifted from Bangalore to French Guyana for its launch where it underwent successful check-up operation before final integration with the launch vehicle. Important Facts about GSAT-8: (a) GSAT-8 has a lift-off weight of 3,100 kg. (b) ISRO Satellite Centre in Bangalore built it with the payloads coming from Space Applications Centre in Ahmedabad. (c) GSAT-8 will augment available transponder capacity, adding 24 Ku-band transponders to existing kitty. (d) GSAT-8 can be used for telecasting television programmes, beaming telephone-calls, Internet communication, operating ATMs, and navigation. (e) The satellite has 24 high-power transponders in Kuband that could be used for telecommunication and a GPSAided Geo-augmented Navigation (GAGAN) payload. (f) GSAT-8 is expected to be in orbit for 12 years.
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