ENGLISH
Roll No.
1
NTSE / NMMS-Nov., 2011
MENTAL ABILITY AND SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST Time : Part - 1 : 90 Minutes Time : Part - I I : 90 Minutes
Max. Marks : 90 Max. Marks : 90
Instructions to Candidates
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Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions. Answers are to be SHADED on a SEPARATE OMR Answer sheet given, with HB pencil. Read the Instructions printed on the OMR sheet carefully before answering the questions. 1.
Please write your Centre Code No. & Roll No. very clearly (only one digit in one block) on the OMR sheet as given in your admission card. Please see that no block is left unfilled and even Zeros appearing in the Centre Code No. are correctly transferred to the appropriate blocks on the OMR sheet as shown in the example given in the OMR sheet. For all the
subsequent purpose your Centre Code No. and Roll No. shall remain the same as given on the Admission Card.
2.
The test is in TWO Parts. Part-I consists of 90 questions and Part-II also consists of 90 questions.
3.
All questions in Part-I and Part-II carry one mark each.
4.
Since all questions are compulsory, do not try to read through the whole question paper before beginning to answer it.
5.
Begin with the first question and keep trying one question after another till you finish both the Parts.
If you do not know the answer to any question, do riot spend much time on it and pass on to next one. If time permits, you can come back to the questions which you have left in the first instance and try them again.
10. Answer to each question is to be indicated by SHADING the circle having the number of the correct alternative in OMR sheet from among the ones given for the corresponding question in the booklet.
Since the time allotted to the two Parts of this question paper is very limited, you should make the best use of it by not spending too much time on any question.
11.
A blank page is provided for rough work at the end of each part. REMEMBER YOU HAVE TO SHADE ANSWERS ON A SEPARATE OMR SHEET PROVIDED.
Now turn to the next page and start answering the questions.
12. After the examination, you should hand over the OMR sheet to the Invigilator of the room. 13.
The candidate need not return this Question paper booklet and can take it after completion of the examination. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the end of the examination.
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PART -1
MENTAL ABILITY TEST Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 90
Note SHADE the correct alternatives in the OMR Answer Sheet provided, from amongst the ones given against the corresponding question in the Question Booklet. For shading the circles use HB pencil.
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N T SE / NMMS (E)
D irection s: Questions (1 to 10) : In the number series given below, one number is missing. Each series is followed by five alternatives (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). One of them is the right answer. Indicate it as per the 'instructions". 1. 4,8 ,16, 32, 64 ,
2.
5.
84, 87, 91, 96, (1)
103
(2)
105
(3)
102
(4)
101
(5)
104
m
123
(2) (3)
128
(4)
132
(1)
36
(5)
136
(2)
34
(3)
38
(4)
33
‘: (5)
39
6.
130
5, 13,29,
,125
59 | (2)
61
(3)
63
■1 (4)
53
(5)
57
15, 18, 23, 30,
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3.
4.
7,
8 ,2 4 ,4 8 ,8 0 ,.. ip
160
m
164
(3)
156
(4)
120
(5)
116
8.
4, 12, 36, 108,
. *1)
320
(2)
324
(3)
216
(4)
180
s
112
240, 120,60, ; (1)
6*7, 56, 45, 3 4 ,.....
40 .
(1) (2)
23
(2)
35
24
(3)
50
(3)
27 I
(4)
25
(4)
30
(5)
19
(5)
25
[1]
15
[Turn Over
NTSE / NMMS (E)
9.
897, 786, 675,......, 453
AD : GJ :: MP : ?
(1)
564
(1)
ST
(2)
570
(2)
TW
(3)
575
(3)
uw '
(4)
565
(4)
sw
(5)
664
(5)
sv
10. 97,76, .......,34,13 (1)
BCDE : EFGH ::
45
(1)
NOPQ
(2)
46
(2)
OPQR
(3)
55
(3)
MNOP
(4)
56
(4)
PQRS
(5)
47
(5) . LMOP
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D irection s:
ZY: VU:: TS M
Questions (11 to 15) are based on letter analogy. The first pair of letters have some relationship. Find out their relationship and using the same analogy, replace the question mark T in the second pair. Identify the right answer and indicate it as per the "Instructions".
(1)
OP
(2)
PN
(3)
PO
(4)
PN
(5)
ON
11. ABC : EFG :: KLM : ? U)
OPQ
(2)
NOP
(3)
PQR
(4)
LMN
(5)
ABC
ABCD : ZYXW :: ]
[21
(1)
VUTS
(2)
UTSR
(3)
STUV
(4)
WXYZ
(5)
WVUT
[Turn Over
NTSE / NMMS (E) 19. AZ, BW, CT, DQ,.......
Directions : Questions (16 to 25) : In the following questions, letters are arranged in a particular order with some underlying criterion. Find this order and choose from the given alternatives to fill in the blanks. Indicate the right answer as per the "Instructions".
(1) AN , (2) BN (3)
EP
(4)
EM
(5)
EN
16. A, D, G, J ,......., ........ (1)
N, P
(2)
N, 0
20. AB, DE,HI, MN,
(3) •M, O (4)
M, P
(5)
0 ,P
(l)
ST
(2)
TU
(3)
TV
(4)
RS
(5)
UV
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17. A, D, H, M (1)
T
(2)
S
(3)
R
(4)
U
(5)
P
21. D, FG, IJK, MNOR
Z, X, y T, .
(1)
QRSTU
(2)
KSTU
(3)
RSTUV .
(4)
RST
(5)
STUV
22. ZY,WM TS,QR....
XI)
R, Q
(1)
ON
(2)
S, Q
(2)
MN
(3)
SQ
(3)
NM
.(4)
R, 0
(4)
OM
(5)
R, P
(5)
NO
[3]
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NTSE / NMMS (E>
23. W, UT, RQR NMLK,.... (1)
IHGFE
(2)
HGFED
(3)
IHGF
(4)
JIHGF
(5)
JIHG
Directions Questions (26 to 30) : In the words given below, choose the one that comes first, when arranged in alphabetical order as is done in a Dictionary. Identify the right answer and indicate it as per the "Instructions". 26. (1)
Car
(2)
Dog
(3)
Box
' ,(4).
24. ZYX, YXW, XW\£ WVU, (1)
UTS
(2)
VUT
(5)
Boy
(1)
Shower
(2)
Sheep
\ 27.
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UVT
(4)
TUV
(5)
VUS
(3) , Shop (4)
School
(5)
Stick
(1)
Dance
(2)
Drill
(3)
Drum
(4)
Drug
(5)
Donkey
25. ADF, BEG, CFH, DGI,.. (1)
EFG
(2)
EGI ;
(3)
EGJ
(4)
EHJ
(5)
EGH
28.
[4]
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NTSE /NM M S (E)
29. (1) (2)
Road
33. (1) Parrot
Rail
(2)
Duck
(3)
Sparrow
(4)
Cuckoo (Koel)
(5)
Eagle
(3) \ Roof
30.
(4)
Rain
(5)
Rug
(1)
Gun
(2)
Girl
(3)
Goat
(4)
Game
(2)
Violin
(5)
Gate
(3)
Flute
(4)
Sitar
34. (1) Guitar
D irection s: •
. (5) Veena
Questions (31 to 40) : In each of the following questions, five words are given. Four of these are alike in some manner, and one is different from them. Choose this odd word. After identifying it, indicate it as per the •instructions1'.
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31. (1)
35. (1) Nose
France
(2)
Germany
(3)
Spain
(4)
Srilanka
(5)
Italy
(2)
Ear
(3)
Eye
•(5) Liver
36. (1) Milk 32. (1)
(2) Curd
Parrot
(2)
Cat
(3)
Cow
(4)
Goat
(5)
Rat
■
[&1
(3)
Ghee
(4)
Cream
(5)
Oil
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NTSE / NMMS (E)
37. (1) Physics
Directions:
(2)
Sociology
Questions (41 to 45) : There is a
(3)
Economics
certain relationship between two given
(4)
Philosophy
(5)
Psychology
Words on one side o f :: and one word is given on another side of
while
another word is to be found from the given alternatives, having the same relationship as the first pair has.
38. (1) Tomato
Identify the right answer and indicate (2)
Beans
(3)
Potato
(4)
Brinjal
(5)
Cucumber
it as per the "Instructions." 41. Fruit: Apple :: Mammal: ? (1)
Sparrow
(2)
Fish
(3)
Cow
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39. (1) Anger (2)
Sorrow
(3)
Jealousy
(4) Snake (5)
Hen
(4) ■Joy (5)
42. Satyajit Ray : Cinema ::
Hatred
Ravishanker; ?
40. (ll Ghennai (2)
Nagpur
(3)
Shillong
(4)
Mumbai
(5)
Bhopal
[6]
(1)
Music
(2)
Painting
(3)
Poetry
(4)
Business
(5)
Dance
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NTSE / NMMS (E)
43. Cricket: B at:: Badminton : ? (1)
Player
(2)
Field
(3)
Ball
(4)
Racket
(5)
Coach
D irection s: Questions (46 to 51) : These questions are based on the following diagrams. Study the diagrams carefully and identify the correct alternative to answer the questions. Indicate the right answer as per the "Instructions".
(1)
(2)
'
44. Flower : Fragrance :: Fruit: ? (1)
Tree
(2)
Taste
(3)
Garden
(4)
Colour
(5)
Gardener
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1 (4)
0 ( 5 ) 46. State, District, Mandal
45. Country : President:: State : ? (1)
Chief Secretary
(2)
Chief Minister
(3)
Citizen
(4)
Cabinet Minister
47. Men, Poets, Teachers 48. Animals, Horses, Trees 49. Cows, Dogs, Camels
(5) I Governor
50. Fruits, Banana, Apple 51. Fish, Salmon, Shark
[Torn Over
D irections: Questions (52 to 56) : With the help of the given diagram, answer the following questions by making the right choice from the given alternatives. After identifying the right answer, indicate it as per the "Instructions".
NTSE / NMMS (E) 54. Which letter represents men who are teachers but not players ? (1) b (2)
c
(3) f (4) g (5)
a
55. Which letter represents teachers who are neither players nor men ? (D b (2)
c
(3)
d
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52. Which ietter represents men, who are both teachers and players ? (1 )
a
(2)
b:
(3)
d
(4)
e
(5)
c
_'jC4) g (5)
f
56. Which letter represents men who are neither teachers nor players ? | | i) ' b
53. Which letter represents men who are players but not teachers ?
'
(1)
c
( 2)
d
( 2)
a
(3)
c
(4)
e
(3i f (4)
(5i ' d
e
Hi
[8]
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NTSE/NMMS (E)
D irections: Questions (57 to 61) : If in a language,* A is coded as 1, B is coded as 2 and so on, how are the following letters codedin that language? Identify the right answer and indicate it as per the ''Instructions". 57. DFGI (1) 4689 (2)
4589
(3) (4)
4578 4679
(5)
4579
Directions: Questions (62 to 66) : Jf CHAIR is coded as 45678 and SMELL is coded as 32199, how are the following words coded ? After identifying the right answer, indicate it as per the "Instructions".
58. CICH ■ (1) 3398 (2)
61. GFCEB (1) 76342 (2) 76353 (3) 75262 (4) _ 76252 ‘ (5) 76352
62. CASH (1) 4536
3837
(2)
4634
(3), • 3937
(3)
4535
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3838
: (4)
(5)
3938
(5)
59. HEIG (1) 8587 (2) 8697
4653
63. HELL (1) 5699 (2)
6199
8687
(3) (4)
6299 5299
8598
(5)
5199
'• - 1^(3)
8597
(4) (5)
60. CGHDA (1) 36741 /
463&||
64. MAIL (D 2689
?||2) 37842 '
(2)
2779
(3) 37841
3679 2579 2679
(4)
36841
(3) (4)
(5)
36843
(5) [91
' '
V
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NTSE / NMMS (E)
65. CARE (1)
69. 120-500 = ? • (1) .24 \ (2). . .024 (3) 24.0 | (4) 2.4 (5) .04
4689
(2)
4589
(3)
4681
(4)
4688
(5)
4618
70.
66. CHESS (1)
45133
(2)
45633
(3)
44633
(4)
45233
(5)
44133
‘
;
.
>/225 - x = 10; x = ? <1) 10 m 4 (3) 15 (4) 5 (5) 6
71; 75 tl)
D irection s:
= 75000 1.01
www.Padasalai.Net Questions (67 to 76) : The following questions are based on simple arithmetic calculations. There are five alternatives given under each question. After identifying the right answer, indicate it as per the "Instructions". 67. 4444 + 444 + 44-1- 4 jg ....... (1)
4934
(2)
4836
(3)
4834
(4)
4944
(5)
4936
72.
45
(5)
15
37.5 7.5 75 12 13 ■ 1 0 CO
30
;
75 + 6 x .5 WL 6
■ , (4) (5)
73. 65, (1) 54030 (2) 54,400 (3) 54,430 (4) 64,430 (5) 55,430
(1); 25 (2)' 35 (4)
(2) •.1 (3) .0001 (4) .001 (5) .01
(1) (2) (3)
68. 35 x ? =1225
(3)
;
,
mm
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NTSE / NMMS (E)
relationship to (C). Choose this figure to replace the question mark '?’. Indicate it as per the "Instructions".
74. 40% of 4200 = (1)
1680
(2)
1600
,(3)
1480
(4)
1580
(5)
1640
77. Problem Figures
A T A 9 I
(C) •
(A) (8) Answer Figures
82+ 60 22 (1)
30
.(2)
31
(3)
28
(4)
36
(5)
32
(DJ
.
m ¥ A sA A (1); (2) (?) (5)
(4)
Problem Figures
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(A) (B) Answer Figures
76. .01 x ,005 = ? 1.0005
(2)
.005 .
(3)
.000005
(4)
.0005
(5)
.00005
(°)
.
©<| d ) € ' © 0) (2) (4)
(3)
(5)
Problem Figures
G
Directions : Questions (77 to 81) : In the following questions, problem figures are marked (A), (B);> (C) and (D). The ‘D’ is vacant with a question mark '?' in it. The figure (B) bears a certain relationship to (A). One of the answer figures bears similar [11]
o
? (1)
,
(C)
(C)
(A) (B) Answer Figures
9
1
1
'
(P)
■ 3 LJJ c (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
I
(5)
[Turn Over
'
NTSE / NMMS (E)
80.
83.
Problem Figures
o
o
<3
6
(A) (B) Answer Figures
(C)
(D)
d)
o
O
o
• (2)
■ (3)
A <4)
(5)
(2)
(4)
(5)
©
<3>
84.
■ o
0
(1)
r =
i
A
$Q
□
9
• •
81. Problem Figures
0)
I P 1____1 1___ ]
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
of i
w
(A) (B) Answer Figures
© 0 O 0
(C)
85.
(D) __________
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(1)
■
©
(2)
(3)
o
(4),
(5)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
Directions : Questions (82 to 85) : In each of the following questions, there are five figures (or letters), Four of them are similar in some way. They have some common characteristic. One of them is different and does not belong to the group. Find it out and indicate the answer as per the "Instructions". 82. Problem Figures
Q
r
6 (1)
(2) 1
(3)
(4)
Directions : Questions (86 to 90) : In the following questions there are five problem figures (A), (B), (C), "(D) and (E) followed by five answer figures. The last problem figure (E) is missing and shown by a question mark Choose one answer figure to fill in the blank so that series continues. After identifying the right answer, indicate as per the "Instructions".
(5)
[12]
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NTSE / NMMS (E) 86 .
89.
Problem Figures
o
Problem Figures
(A) (B) Answer Figures
(C)
i
□
■
■
□
(E)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Answer Figures
<*> (1)
□
?
<*) £ >
0
' (2)
1
1
!
T (3)
-
.T
|
1 , (4)
(5)
□
□
□
□ (1).
■ □ (2)
(3)
(4)
■ ■ (5)
87. 90.
Problem Figures
o
o
o
m m
•
o
o •
Problem Figures
9
o
0 dgn
1
9
www.Padasalai.Net Oo o o o o o o o •
(A) (B) Answer Figures
ip)
(E)
(D)
(A)
(B)
i
(C)
(D)
(E)
Answer Figures
•
+
•
oo o o oo o (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
o
A
n n s H
o (5)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
88. Problem Figures
o
O O O
o
• o #
909 o
(A) (B) Answer Figures •
• •
•
•
d)
(C>
(D)
9I (E)
• • o •o# 090 ooo
O O
O
O O
•
(2)
(3)
•
O
(4) (5) [13]
[Turn Over
PART - II
SCHOLASTIC TEST Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 90 Note
i)
Subjects and Marks allotted Physics Chemistry Mathematics Biology • History Geography Civics
1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 6) 7)
12 Marks 12 Marks 20 Marks 11 Marks 12 Marks 12 Marks 11 Marks
www.Padasalai.Net ii) SHADE the circle having the correct alternative in the OMR sheet provided, from among the ones given against the corresponding question in the Question Paper Booklet. For shading the circles, use HB pencil.
NTSE / NMMS (E)
PHYSICS 91. 1 Angstrom is equals to .
95. For every 272.7 metres of height above the sea-level, the pressure decreases b y ......•
(1)
10_9m
(2)
10'Iom •
(1) 2.54 cm.
(3)
10 ^m
(2)
1.54 cm
, '(4)
10"7m
(3)
3.54 cm
(4)
0.54 cm
92. One of the following is an input device..... (1) Monitor ' (2) - Micrbphone (3)
Printer
(4)
Speaker
96. The Indian scientist who established Rocket launching centre in our country..... ( 1)
Sir C.V Raman
(2)
APJ Abdul Kalam
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93. One of the following is not a fundamental quantity..... (1)
Mass
(2)
Time
(3)
Weight
(4)
Length
(3)
Dr. H.J. Baba
(4)
Vikram Sarabhai
97. Required time gap to hear the two different sounds is ....... ■
( 2)
94. Fourth nearest planet to Sun is ...
f »
(1)
Venus
(2)
Earth
(3)
Mercury
(4)
Mars
(3)
(4)
[15]
th of a second
30 th of a second
25 _1_
35
th of second
th of a second
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98. The heating element in the electric heaters is made up o f ..... (1)
NTSE / NMMS (E) 100. A device that converts mechanical energy into an electrical energy.... (1)
Iron
(2)
Tungsten
(3)
Copper
(4)
Nichrome
m(2)
Cell
I
Dynamo
(3)
Motor
(4)
Magnet
101. The main cause of water pollution i s ..... . 99. The formula to find out the number of images formed by two plane mirrors set at an angle ‘0’ is ......
300 * •( 1 )
(1)
Wastes discharged from the reactors and Agro Industries.
(2)
Proper usage of drainage.
(3)
Removal o f organic plants from water.
(4)
Presence of marine animals.
1
(2)
360 I ^ +1
■
360 I I ” 1
102. The name of the symbol
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[ 16]
(2)
Rheostat
(3)
Fuse
(4)
Resistance
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NTSE /NM M S (E)
CHEMISTRY 103. Molecular formula for Sodium sulphate i s ' . :/ ’ .
107. Pollution of Air can be controlled by ....... ■(1)" Forestation
’ . (1) NaCl . (2) NaN03
(2)
Industrialization
(3)
Na2S04
(3)
Using artificial manures
(4)
Na2N 03
(4)
Performing atomic research
104. The chemical name of Washing , soda.is (1)
Sodium Bicarbonate
(2)
Sodium Chloride
' (3)
Sodium Carbonate
(4)
Sodium Hydroxide
108. Fill the blank in the equation Mg(HC03)3 Heat, .....+H„Q+COo (1)
M gC03
(2)
Mg2C 0 3
(3)
Mg
(4)
Mg(OIl)
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105. The Balanced equation for the chemical reaction Zn + HC1
106.
109. The Chromate radical is
ZnCl2 + H2 is .........
(1)
2Zn, + 3HC1 -> ZnCl2 + H2
(2)
Zn + 3HC1
(3)
3Zn + 2HC1-> ZnCl2 + H2
(4)
Zn + 2HC1 -> ZnCl2 + H2
(1)
Cr2O t
(2 )
Cr20^
(3)
CrOf
ZnCl2 + H2
The process in which Oxygen added or Hydrogen removed from its compound is __ (1) Oxidation. (2) Reduction. (3) Either oxidation or reduction. (4) Neither oxidation
(4).
CrO^
110. The molecular weight of Si02 is
nor reduction. [171
(1)
44
(2)
60
(3)
72
(4)
76 ITum 0
N T S E / N M M S (E )
113. Gas used in fire extinguisher is ....
111. Boiling point of white Phosphorus i s ........ (1)
417“ C
(2)
417° F
I (3)
280° C
(4)
280° F
112. In the laboratory preparation of Oxygen, gas is collected b y ........ (1)
downward displacement of air.
(2)
downward displacement of water.
(3)
upward displacement of water.
(1)
Oxygen
(2)
Nitrogen
(3)
Hydrogen
(4)
Carbon dioxide
114. Material used for the preparation of tiles is ...... (1)
Limestone
(2)
Mortar
(3)
Concrete
(4)
Clay
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upward displacement of air.
[18]
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NTSE / NMMS (E)
MATHEMATICS 115. The least positive whole number that should be added to 1515 to make it a perfect square number is..... (1)
3
(2)
4
6
116. (- 9x?*~ 27 + 27x + jc3) -r (x - 3) BH (1)
(1) 6 and 7 . (2) 7 and 8
. ill s (4)
118. The value of J r i must lie between
(3)
8 and 9
(4)
9 and 10
119. If the perimeter of a semi-circle is 2.4 m., then its radius in m. is ......
x2 - 6jc + 9
u r. f j
(2) x2 + 6 x - 9
-
;
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(3)
x2- 6 x - 9
(4 )
x2 + 6x + 9
<3* 5 117. Write 1•01 in the form of ~
q \ 101 (1) 99 120. If 163* = 256x+1, then I = .........
101
(2)
90
(1)
2
, (3)
100 99-
( 2)
3
(3)
5
(4)
6
B
90
U9]
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NTSE / NMMSJE)
121. If A, B, C are the centres of three equal circles touching as shown in the figure with radius V cm., then the area of shaded region in the figure in sq. cm. is......
124. The dimensions of two Cuboids are 10 cm., 8 cm., 6 cm. and 15 cm., 12 cm., 9 cm. respectively, then the ratio of their volumes is (1) 8:27 (2) 27 :8 (3) 16 : 25 (4). 25 : 16 125. If the diagonal of a Square is 18 cm., then the side of the square in cm. is .....
1
2
(1)
9^2
( 2)
&M
(3)
12-J2
www.Padasalai.Net <2)
3nr
(3)
1 2 -n r 2 4
(4) 8~J3
126. In triangle ABC, AD is drawn perpendicular to BC.
. •(4) |rcr2
If ZBAD =ZCAD, then the triangles BAD and CAD are congruent under the property....
122. 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 1 1 + 13 + 15 + 17 + 19 + 21 + 23 + 25 + 27 + 29 = .......... (1) 172 (2)
19|S
162
(3)
)5 2
(4)
142
(8 3 x 8 3 x 8 3 )+ (2 7 x 2 7 x 2 7 ) (83 x 83) - (83 x 27) + (27 x 27)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
”
■ (1) 166 ( 2) 110 | (3) ' 56
.
P I
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NTSE / NMMS (E)
130. In. a parallelogram ABCD, if ZA = 50°, then the ZB, ZC and ZD are respectively . '
127. The number of cubes are needed to make the model as shown in the figure is.....
(2 )
100
(3) (4)
95 90
(1) (2)
130°, 50°, 130° 50°, 130°, 130°
(3) (4)
130°, 130°, 50° 130°, 50°, 50°
131. The number of triangles altogether in the given figure is .......
128. a, b are two numbers. If a = then b = a. This property is called....... |i) Reflexive property (2) Symmetric property (3) Transitive property (4) Associative property
www.Padasalai.Net (1). 13 (2) 16
129. Observe the figure below and its measurements. Then the area of the given figure in sq. cm. is .....
(3)
21
(4)
24
132. 1 Hectare = ....
( 2)
(3) (4)
(1)
10 sq. m.
(2)
100 sq. m.
(3)
1,000 sq. m.
(4)
10,000 sq.m.
20 24 25
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NTSE / NMMS (E)
133. 16 match sticks are arranged to form 8 equilateral triangles as shown in the figure. Then the number of minimum match sticks to he removed so that only four equilateral triangles are left is .....
134. Observe the following figure. If DE ||AB, ZA =60° and ' ZB = 80°, then the ZBCD in degrees is .....
A
B
m
6
( 1) 120
(2 )
4
(2 ) 100
(3)
2
(3)
80
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(4)
1
[2 2 ]
60
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BIOLOGY 135. The blood cells with irregular shape, big size and nucleus are .... (1)
Red blood cells
(2)
White blood cells
(3)
Blood platelets
(4)
139. In a fire accident, th<* body of a person is burnt with second degree burns. It itieans the ..... (1)
outer layer of the .skin is burnt.
Cartilageous cells
(2)
outer and inner layer of the skin is burnt.
136. Heart beat, muscular actions of the digestive canal, and functioning of the lungs are under the control o f ....
(3)
skin and bones are burnt.
(4)
skin and muscles are burnt.
(1)
Cerebrum •
(2)
Cerebellum
(3)
Medulla oblongata
140. The fluid present in our Spinal cord is ....
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t;.ft;'(l) Pericardial fluid
Diencephalon
137. When comparing with Auricles, the walls of ventricles are ..... (1)
not thick
(2)
thin
(3)
thick
(4)
equally thick
the the
Nephron.
(2). Collecting tubule. (3)
Urethra.
(4)
Ureter.
Cerebro-spinal fluid
(3)
Peritonial fluid
(4)
Lymph
141. The essential parts, in the structure of the mango flower are .....
138. The urine which has reached the pelvis of the -Kidney travels through the.... (1)
(2)
1231
(1)
Calyx and Stamens.
(2)
Corolla and Gynoecium.
(3)
Androecium and Gynoecium.
(4)
Calyx and Gynoecium.
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142. Eventhough the flower is bisexual, the reasons for cross pollination are..... A.
The anther and gynoecium mature at the same time.
B.
The anther and gynoecium mature at different times.
C.
The pollen of one flower reaches the stigma of another flower.
D.
NTSE / NMMS (E) 143. These fishes are viviparous....
The correct among the above are ... A and B
(2)
B and G
(3)
C and D
(4)
D and A
Erragandu
(2)
Waluga
(3)
Mattagidasa.
(4)
Shark
144. Eventhough it is a mammal, it lays eggs.
The pollen of one flower reaches the stigma of the same flower.
(1)
(1)
(1)
Duck-billed Platypus
(2)
Australian Kangaroo
(3)
American Whale
(4)
Long-necked Giraffe
145. In the mosquito larva, the part which contains the respiratory siphon is th e .... (1)
Eighth segment in the abdomen.
(2)
Head region.
(3)
Thorax region.
(4)
Sixth segment in the abdomen.
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NTSE / NMMS (E)
HISTORY 146. The picture given below belongs t o ..... I
149. Identify the correct match : A. Kalhanadu (i) Rashtra kutas B. Other than (ii) Gangai Muslim's konda C. Druvudu
(in) Jijiyaa
D. Rajendrudu (iv) Rajatarangini
(1)
Harappan Granary
(2)
Drainage system.
v (3) Great Bath of Mohenjo daro,
(1)
A -ii
(2)
B - iv
(3)
C - iii
(4)
D - ii
150. The rulers of Chola kingdom are given below :
(4) The Great Wall of China.
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147. The great city ‘Pataliputra’ was built by this king.... (1)
Bimbisara
(2) Ajatasatm (3)
Chandra Gupta
(4)
Ashoka
A.
Kulottunga
B.
Vijayalaya
C-
Raja Raja I
D.
Rajendra
The correct chronological order of these kings .....
148. The King who was called as the ‘Indian Napoleon’. . (1) \Samudra Gupta (?)
Chandra Gupta
(3)
Harshavardhana
v a j , ABCD (2)
BCDA
(3)
BADC
(4)
CBAD
j (4). Narasimha Varma [2 5}
1
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NTSE / NMMS (E)
151. The first among the Delhi Sultans (I)
Ala-ud-din Khilji.
(2)
Balban
(3)
Iltutmish
155. The system of ‘Permanent settlement’ was introduced b y .... (1)
Cornwallis
(2) Warren Hastings , .
(4) ; Qutubuddin Ibaq
(3)
Wellesley
(4)
Dalhousie
152. The first battle of Panipat was fought between....
.
156. The battle of Buxar was fought between.....
(1)
Babur and Ibrahim Lodi.
(2)
Sur dynasty and Mughal dynasty.
(1)
French and English.
(3)
Mughals and Marathas.
(2)
Mir Jafar and AliVardhi Khan.
(4)
Akbar and Rajputs.
(3)
Shah Alam and English.
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153. During Delhi Sultanate, the minister incharge of Army was called as ......
,j: :(4) British and Nawab of Awadh, Shah Alam and Mir Qusim.
157. Arya Samaj was established by ....
(1)
Mukti
(2)
Din-i-Ilahi
(1)
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(3) (4)
Diwani Ariz Diwani Shariz
(2)
Iswar Chandra Vidya Sagar
(3)
Dayanand Saraswathi
(4)
Keshab Chandra Sen
154. The ministers of this king’s court were called as “Astha Pradhans”. (1) Chandra Gupta Maurya (2) Shivaji (3) Rudradeva (4) Kulasekhara
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GEOGRAPHY 158. The largest and the deepest of all Oceans ..... (1) Atlantic Ocean . (2) Arctic Ocean (3)
Pacific Ocean
(4)
Indian Ocean
159. Fujiyama mountain in Japan is an example for this type of mountains (1)
Fold mountain
(2)
Volcanic mountain
(3)
Residual mountain
162. The temperature drops approximately at the rate of 1°C for every..... ( 1)
165 metres
(2)
135 metres
(3)
145 metres
(4)
125 metres
163. Tides are caused due to this reason (1)
Gravitation force
(2)
Sea breezes
www.Padasalai.Net (4)
Block mountain
(3)
By attraction of the Moon
and the Sim.
160. The Equator runs through the middle of this continent...... (1)
Asia
m
Africa
(3)
Europe
(4)
Australia
(4)
Sea currents.
164. The names o f some countries and capital cities are given below. Capital city
Country
161. The Mediterranean Sea seperates Europe from this continent.....
A.
Japan
(i)
B.
Bhutan
(ii) Khatmandu
Beijing
a
Nepal
fzii) Tokyo
D.
China
(iv) Thimpoo
Identify the correct match
^1) Asia
(1)
B (i)
(2)
A - (Hi) C - (iv) D - (ii)
(2)
Australia
(3)
North America
(3)
(4)
Africa
(4) [273
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NTSE / NMMS (E) 165. The density of population o f South America is about.....
168. 66i°,South latitude is known a s......
166. Huge deposits of Petroleum are found in this part of Asia-----
<1)
Arctic Circle
(2)
Antarctic Circle
(3)
Tropic of Capricorn
(4)
Tropic of Cancer
169. On this day, the Sun at the South pole rises on the horizon...... (1)
21st March.
Countries in Central Asia.
(2)
21st June.
South-east countries of Asia.
(3)
23rd September.
(1)
South-west countries of Asia.
(2) (3)
www.Padasalai.Net (4)
North-west countries of Asia.
(4)
22nd December.
167. “Milky Way” means ....... (1)
Clear Sky.
(2)
Sky on full moon day.
(3)
Road with full of snow.
(4)
Collection of millions of luminous stars.
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N TSE/NM M S (E)
CIVICS 174* Feudal set-up means ........
170. The number o f times the Gram Sabha has to meet in a year (1)
(1)
The society where people are . divided into higher and lower classes.
(2)
The society having rulers, ministers and common people.
(3)
The society is divided into land lords, clergy and common people, where the first two were treated as higher and the last one as inferiors.
(4)
The society having
4 times
(2) ; 6 times (3)
2 times
(4)
3 times
171. Mandal Praja Parishads were formed in the entire state in this year.... (!)
1985
(2)
1986
(3)
1987
unscientific beliefs.
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1988
175. The President of our Constituent Assembly w as.....
172. The draft constitution of ; our country was approved O n this day..... 1
(1)
Dr. Ambedkar
(2)
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(1)
26th November, 1949
(3)
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(2)
1st November, 1956
(4)
Dr. Radhakrishnan
(3)
26th January, 1950
(4)
29th November, 1947
176. The number of members, the Lok Sabha h as.........
173. This is not a fundamental right.... (1)
Right to equality.
(2)
Right to freedom.
(3) (4)
(1)' 545 (2)
456
Right against exploitation.
(3)
546
Right’ to property.
(4)
556
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177. A place where three roads join in the form of letter “Y” ..... (1)
NTSE / NMMS (E) 179. Democracy means........ (1)
Electing the rulers.
Fore-arm junction.
(2)
People’s Government.
(2)
Tee junction.
(3)
(3)
“Wye” junction.
A Government where Central and State Governments exist.
(4)
Round-about junction.
(4)
A Government Having the president instead of the king.
178. An example for Moral duty...... 180. Socialism opposes......
(1)
Respecting the Constitution.
(2)
Paying taxes,
(3)
Obeying the State.
(3)
Justice
(4)
Helping the needy.
(4)
Freedom
(1)
Capitalism
(2) ' Classless society
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