SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
NEET GRAND TEST-4 Name :........................................... Hall Ticket No: INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1.
The Model NEET- 2018 is of 3 Hrs duration. Time: 10.00 AM – 1.00 PM. 2. The question paper for NEET-2018 consists of 180 questions comprising 45 questions in Botany, 45 in Zoology, 45 in Physics and 45 in Chemistry for NEET. 3. All questions are of objective type (Multiple choices only) 4. Each question carries four marks. 5. Negative marking: one mark will be deducted for every wrongly answered question. 6. Total Marks 720. 7. The candidates are prohibited from carrying any paper to the examination hall except HALL TICKET. 8. No Calculators, Mini-Cards, Watches with Calculators, Pager, Cell Phone, Slide rules or outer aids to calculation will be allowed in the examination hall. 9. Candidates once admitted will not be allowed to leave the hall till half an hour before the closing of the test. 10. A separate sheet is attached in the middle of this booklet for rough work, you can detach and use it. 11. A detachable answer sheet with 180 question blocks, with 4 circles corresponding to 4 multiple choice for each question will be provided. Use HB Pencil to darken the appropriate circle against the question number provided in the sheet. Answer should be marked only on the answer sheet, but not on the question paper booklet.
Sri Chaitanya
Page No.1
Vijayawada
SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
Date : 24.04.18 Max.Marks : 720
SEC : SR ELITE, AIIMS SUPER60, NEET MPL& IC_LTC BIOLOGY NEET GRAND TEST-4 IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS :
1.
+
Pattern of the Entrance Examination : Paper containing 180 objective type questions from Biology, Physics and Chemistry.
+
Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only to darken the appropriate circle. Answers marked with pencil would not be evaluated.
+
Each item carries 4marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response 1mark will be deducted from the total score.
Germinated,
3-celled
grain represents
in plant photosynthesis and thus
(1) Spermatogenous cell
O2 is evolved
(2) Matured female gametophyte
(4) CO2 is oxidised in dark phase
(3) Matured male sporophyte
2.
3.
(3) H2O is the oxidisable reactant
pollen
4.
Which
of
the
following
(4) Matured male gametophyte
statements
Which one of the following
Mycoplasmas.
vertebrate
(1) They lack cell wall
has
cartilaginous
is
wrong
for
cranium and vertebral column?
(2) They are anaerobes
(1) Pterophyllum
(3) They are the smallest living
(2) Psittacula
cells
(3) Petromyzon
(4) Majority of them are symbionts
(4) Pteropus
in plants and animals
Van
Niel’s
experiments
5.
during light phase
Under unfavourable conditions many zooplankton species in lakes and ponds enter in a stage called (1) Diapause
(2) H2O is the oxidisable reactant
(2) Hibernation
in
(3) Migration
established the idea that (1) Photophosphorylation occurs
sulphur
bacterial
photosynthesis Sri Chaitanya
(4) Aestivation Page No.2
Vijayawada
6.
In the process of decomposition,
9.
mitochondrion,
highest
number of ATP are found in
(1) Fragmentation and catabolism
(1) Matrix
(2) Leaching and humification
(2) Intermembrane space
Mineralisation
(3) F0 of ATP synthase
and
(4) Cristae
fragmentation
8.
a
which steps operate first?
(3)
7.
In
(4) Fragmentation, leaching and
10. Identify the correct statement
catabolism operate simultaneously
from the following in relation to
Critical
human eye ball
elements
of
the
following are
(1) The space between the lens and
(1) Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen
the retina is filled with aqueous
(2)
humor.
Nitrogen,
Phosphorus,
Potassium
(2) The eye ball contains a lens
(3) Calcium, Magnesium, Sulphur
which
(4)
ligaments attached to
Iron,
Manganese,
is
held
in
place
by
iris.
Molybdenum
(3) The photopic vision and colour
Dictyosomes, Peroxysomes and
vision are functions of cones.
Lysosomes are all
(4) The fovea is a thinned - out
a) Single membrane bound cell
portion of
organelles.
the rods are densely packed.
b) Self duplicating and anabolic
11. In
which
the retina where only
of
the
following
cell organelles.
interactions both partners are
Which one of the following
adversely affected?
options is correct ?
(1) Sea anemone and clown fish
(1) Both a and b are correct
(2) Flamingoes and resident fishes
(2) Both a and b are incorrect
in South American lakes
(3) a is true, but b is false
(3) Fig tree and pollinator wasp
(4) b is true but a is false
(4) Epiphytic orchid on a mango branch
Sri Chaitanya
Page No.3
Vijayawada
12.
Both the chromatids of mitotic metaphase chromosome are (1) Genetically identical
16. The first sign of growing foetus during human pregnancy may be noticed by (1) observing the movements of
(2) Morphologically dissimilar
the foetus
(3) Non-telomeric
(2) listening to the labour pains of
(4) Separated at centromere also 13.
the
The requirements for expression
(3) observing the severe vomitings
of Lac operon are
of the
(1) Availability of lactose (2)
Binding
of
repressor
mother
(4) listening to the heart sound of
to
operator
the 17.
(3) Non-availability of glucose
foetus
Which of the following is a membrane bound cell organelle ?
(4) 1 and 3
(1) Microsome
14. A colour blind man married a woman with normal vision, who has no history of colourblindness in her family. If we consider the grand sons only through their daughter, what is the probability of their grand sons being colour blind? (1) Nil
(2) Nucleosome (3) Plasmosome (4) Idiosome 18.
µ -amylase enzyme induced seed germination is the bio-assay for (1) ABA (2) GA3
(2) 0.25
(3) IAA
(3) 0.5
(4) CK
(4) 1 15.
mother
19. The total number of incisors
DNA with histone proteins is
present in the buccal cavity of an
found in
adult human are
(1) Centriole
(1) 4
(2) Well organised nucleus
(2) 8
(3) Chloroplast
(3) 12
(4) Mitochondria
(4) 16
Sri Chaitanya
Page No.4
Vijayawada
20.
The adnated but not connated
(1) E - Fishes, B - Birds
floral
(2) C - Reptiles, B - Fishes
organs
in
Solanaceae
flower are
(3) D - Birds, A - Fishes
(1) Sepals
(4) E - Amphibians, A - Birds
(2) Petals
21.
24.
Morgan’s
experiment
on
(3) Stamens
linkage, the percentage of white
(4) Carpels
eyed,
The skeleton of cell wall of
recombinants in F2 generation is
sclereids is made up of
(1) 37.2
(1) Chitin
(2) 1.3
(2) Peptidoglycan
(3) 62.8
(3) Cellulose
(4) 98.7
(4) Hemicellulose 22.
In
25.
miniature
winged
Which of the following is not a
The separation of homologues of
feature of the ideal gene cloning
each bivalent start at
vector ?
(1) Pachytene
(1) Presence of ‘ori’ site
(2) Leptotene
(2) Presence of more than one
(3) Zygotene
target site for each restriction
(4) Diplotene
enzyme
23. In
the
figure
given
(3) Ability of self replication
below,
biodiversity is depicted showing species number of vertebrates
(4) High copy number 26. Identify gregarious pest from the
major taxa. Identify the correct
following
groups based on their number
(1) Locusta (2) Laccifer (3) Limulus (4) Latimeria
Sri Chaitanya
Page No.5
Vijayawada
27. The
enzyme
trypsinogen
28.
that into
activates
trypsin
is
nutrients but they act as prime
secreted by
contaminants in
(1) Brunner's glands
(1) Biomagnification
(2) Pancreatic islets
(2) Water logging and soil salinity
(3) Intestinal mucosa
(3) Cultural Eutrophication
(4) Goblet cells of pylorus
(4) Desertification
Match the terms in Column-I with
their
description
30.
in
Which one of the following is correct ?
Column-II and choose the correct
(1) Cyanobacteria exhibit great
option.
metabolic diversity
Column-I
Column-II
(2)
Dissimilar alternative A) Homologous I) chromosomes forms of a gene Identical Homozygous maternal and B) II) alleles paternal chromosomes Identical Heterologous C) III) forms of a chromosomes gene Unidentical D)
29. Nitrates and phosphates are plant
Heterozygous alleles
IV)
Gonyaulax
is
an
yellow
dinoflagellate (3) Fructifications of sac fungi produce
meiospores
endogenously (4) Deuteromycetous fungi never show sexual reproduction 31. Tight junctions are a type of cell junctions, they help to (1) stop substances from leaking
maternal and
across
a tissue
paternal
(2)
chromosomes
neighbouring cells
cementing
to
keep
together
B
C
D
(3) connecting the cytoplasm of
(1) II
I
IV
III
adjoining
(2) II
III
IV
I
of ions
(3) IV
I
II
III
(4) transfer impulses rapidly to the
(4) IV
III
I
II
other
A
Sri Chaitanya
Page No.6
cells for rapid transfer
cells Vijayawada
(1) 7 th and 8th sterna ventro-
32. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
anteriorly
(1) Active immunity is slow and
(2) 9th and 10 th sterna dorsally
response.
and 9 th tergum ventrally
(2) The use of anti-histamine, adrenalin and steroids quickly
(3) 9th and 10th terga dorsally and
reduce the symptoms of allergy.
9th sternum ventrally
(3) The injection which is given to
(4)
the snake bite patient, contains performed
7th,
8th
ventrally
antibodies against the
snake venom.
9 th
and
10th
and
sterna tergum
dorsally 36. The balance between production
(4) Bone marrow and thymus
and degradation of ozone in the
provide the sites for interaction of
stratosphere has been disrupted
lymphocytes with the antigens.
due to enhancement of ozone
Gynoecium
without
style
is
degradation by
found in
(1) Green house gases
(1) Hibiscus
(2) Chloroflurocarbons
(2) Datura
(3) UV rays and N2O
(3) Allium
(4) Cl ions and Nitrogen oxides
(4) Papaver 34.
sternum
dorsally
takes time to give its full effective
33.
9th
and
37. Which cytoskeletal structures are
Sal I is obtained from
involved in amoeboid movement
(1) Streptomyces albus
of macrophages ?
(2) Serratia albus
(1) Microfilaments
(3) Streptobacillus albus
(2) Microtubules of axoneme
(4) Streptococcus albus
(3)
35. In male cockroach, the genital pouch is bounded by
Sri Chaitanya
Streaming
movements
protoplasm (4) Dynein arms
Page No.7
Vijayawada
of
38.
Which of the following plant disease is caused by animal pathogen ? (1) Late blight of potato
41. During urine formation, a fall in GFR can activate JG cells to release renin, which converts (1) Angiotensin I to angiotensin II
(2) Red rot of sugarcane
(2) Angiotensin II to aldosterone
(3) Root knot of tobacco
(3)
(4) Blight of rice 39.
(4)
modification ? (2) Fleshy cylindrical structures of
42.
to
angio
Select the correct statement? homogametic and heterogametic
(3) Hanging structures of Banyan
(2) Peat moss, Club moss Irish
tree
moss are all bryophytes
(4) Spines in cactus
(3)
40. Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex in the given example? (1) XO type of sex chromosomes determine
male
sex
possess
chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila
chromosomes
(ZZ)
sex determine
female sex in birds (4) XO condition in humans as in
determines
a
rootless,
tracheary
elements
of
xylem
sex
Homozygous
is
(4) Aquatic angiosperms do not
43.
Homozygous
Salvinia
heterophyllous pteridophyte
in
grasshopper
normal
A wild flowering plant showing stunted growth has fleshy green aerial organs. It looks same even under prolonged drought conditions without the signs of wilting. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant ? (1) C3 (2) C4 (3) CAM (4) Nitrogen fixer
female Sri Chaitanya
I
(1) Embryophytic plants are both
Euphorbia
found
Angiotensin
tensinogen
(1) Bladder of utricularia
(3)
to
angiotensin I
Which of the following is a stem
(2)
Angiotensinogen
Page No.8
Vijayawada
44. This induces rupture of Graafian
48.
follicle and thereby ovulation in human female (1) Follicular phase (2) Large amounts of estrogen (3) Large amounts of progesteron (4) LH surge 45. Body with diploblastic organisation, both extracellular and intracellular digestion and reproduction only by sexual means are the characters of phylum (1) Coelenterata
49.
angiosperms, the megasporangia proper are usually (1) Non-nutritive (2) Non-enveloped (3) Integumented
(2) Ctenophora
(4) Single celled
(3) Porifera
Which one of the following
50. Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan? (1) Influenza (2) Genital herpes (3) Gonorrhoea (4) Trichomoniasis 51. Filiform apparatus found in (1) Egg (2) Synergids (3) Antipodals (4) Central cell
hormones is not involved in
52. Strategy
(4) Platyhelminthes 46.
Which of the following is not an enzyme? (1) Hind II (2) Ribozyme (3) Cytozyme (4) DNase
47.
Which one of the following statements is wrong ? (1) ATP is a ribonucleotide (2) Rubisco is an abundant protein in the animal kingdom (3) Thymidine is a deoxy ribonucleoside (4) Co. enzymes are vitamin derivatives In gymnosperms and
of
animal
breeding,
sugar metabolism?
which
(1) Insulin
inbreeding depression is
(2) Glucagon
(1) Out-crossing
(3) Cortisol
(2) Cross-breeding
(4) Aldosterone
(3) Inbreeding
helps
to
overcome
(4) Interspecific hybridisation Sri Chaitanya
Page No.9
Vijayawada
53. ZIFT is an assisted reproductive technique which can provide a child to a childless couple. In this technique which of the following is / are transferred into the fallopian tube? (1) Ovum or spermatozoa
moist skin without scales ; two pairs of limbs ; eyes with eye lids Bony
(2) Zygote or embryo upto 8
endoskeleton ;
blastomeres
gills with
(3) Late embryos or foetus (4) Gastrula or embryo with more than 8 54.
(2)
blastomeres
internal fertilisation Body covered with
(3) Exons
cornified skin ;
(4) Introns
external ear
Wrong match w.r.t taxonomic (3)
categorisation of mango (1) Order – Dicotyledonae
(4) Genus – Mangifera 56. Which of the following represents the correct combination without any exception? Characteristics Class
terminal ;
Sri Chaitanya
absent ; three –
Reptilia
heart ;
(3) Division – Angiospermae
Mouth
openings chambered
(2) Family – Anacardiaceae
(1)
skin with
Osteichthyes
cycloid scales ;
Which of the following is not present in mature or processed m-RNA (1) Cap (2) Tail
55.
operculum ;
Amphibia
Page No.10
internal fertilisation Body covered with Feathers ; bony (4) endoskeleton ; oviparous ; direct development
Aves
Vijayawada
(2) Spermatophyta
57. Plasma proteins help in osmotic balance are
(3) Archegoniatae
(1) Albumins
(4) Atracheophyta
(2) Globulins (3) Gamma globulins (4) Fibrogen and heparin 58.
Which of the following is not an
62. In human females, the primary oocyte grows in size and completes its first meiotic division when it is within (1) Tertiary follicle
ecosystem service ?
(2) Secondary follicle
(1) Crop pollination
(3) Primordial follicle
(2) Maintainance of bio. diversity
(4) Primary follicle
(3) Mitigation of drought and
63.
floods
get gradually crushed due to
(4) Degeneration of fertile soils
continued
59. In human sperm, which structure is filled with enzymes that help in fertilisation of the ovum ? (1) Head
(1) Secondary corlex (2) Secondary xylem
(3) Neck
(4) Cork
Cereal
grains
are
and
accumulation of
(3) Primary xylem
morphologically
61.
formation
(2) Middle piece (4) Acrosome 60.
Primary and secondary phloem
64. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the salient features of human genome? (1) Less than 2 per cent codes for
(1) Seeds
proteins.
(2) Fruits
(2) Repeated sequences make up
(3) Starch granules
very large portion.
(4) Latex granules
(3) Over 50 per cent of the
Liver worts, Mosses, Horsetails,
discovered genes functions are
Ferns, Cycads, Conifers together
unknown.
can be included in the group.
(4)
(1) Tracheophyta
nucleotide
Sri Chaitanya
Page No.11
It
contains
3164.7
billion
bases. Vijayawada
(1) Physical fitness
65. In cockroach, blood from sinuses enter into heart through
(2) Psychological fitness
(1) Ostia
(3) Reproductive fitness
(2) Spiracles (3) Anterior aorta
(4) Ecological adaptiveness
(4) Alary muscles 66.
69. In an area, there is a decline in
Somatic hybridization involves. (1)
Both
karyogamy
bird populations due to thinning
and
of their egg shell and premature
plasmogamy (2)
breaking.
Karyogamy
but
not
may be
plasmogamy (3)
(1) Eutrophication in a young lake
Plasmogamy
but
not
(2) Biomagnification of DDT in an
karyogamy (4)
Both
aquatic food chain karyokinesis
and
(3)
cytokinesis 67.
Which
of
the
following
is
(4)
Type
Aspergillus
Product
Fungus
niger Methanogens Saccharomyces cerevisiae Streptococcus
Citric
70.
acid
Bacteria
Methane
Fungus
Ethanol
Bacterium
individual
Statins
or
population
refers ultimately and only to Sri Chaitanya
DO
(4) Increased predation pressure
68. According to Darwin, fitness of the
in
in the terrestrial food chain
Microbe
(3)
decline
sewage discharge
table.
(2)
Sharp
downstream from the point of
wrongly matched in the given
(1)
Probably the reason
Page No.12
The common genotype in the progeny of dihybrid back-cross (out cross) and dihybrid test cross. (1) Double homozygous dominant (2) Double homozygous recessive (3)
Double
heterozygous
dominant (4)
Double
homozygous
recombinant Vijayawada
(3) Secondary phloem is the vital
71. Which of the following is not involved in knee-jerk reflex?
tissue of bark.
(1) Muscle spindle
(4) Conjoint collateral, closed and
(2) Brain
fibro vascular bundles are found
(3) Inter neuron
in grass stem.
(4) Motor neuron 72. ABO
blood
75. This grouping
is
a
very
important role in the regulation of a 24-hour rhythm of our body
three
many
(1) Melatonin
phenotypes and genotypes are
(2) Thymosin
possible?
(3) Thyroxine
(1) 4 phenotypes and 4 genotypes
(4) Adrenaline
alleles.
How
76. Which of the following are not of
(3) 5 phenotypes and 8 genotypes
epidermal cells ?
(4) 4 phenotypes and 6 genotypes
(1) Guard cells
Which of the following is not a
(2) Bulliform cells
characteristic
(3) Complimentary cells
feature
during
meiosis I in spore mother cells ? (1) Chromosomal segregation
(4) Subsidiary cells 77. The
(2) Crossing over (3)
74.
plays
controlled by gene I which has
(2) 6 phenotypes and 4 genotypes
73.
hormone
Reduction
joint
present
between
humerus and pectoral girdle is of
chromosome
(1) Ball and socket joint - allows
number
limited movements
(4) Chromatidal segregation
(2)
Which of the following statement
movement
is not correct ?
(3) Ball and socket joint - allows
(1)
Vascular
cambium
is
all
Hinge
joint
-
allows
no
free movement
secondary in origin in dicot stem.
(4) Gliding joint - do not allows
(2) Cork cambium is stelar origin
any movement
in dicot root. Sri Chaitanya
Page No.13
Vijayawada
(1) Stethoscope (2) Spirometer
78. Study the pedigree chart given below
(3) Hygrometer (4) Sphygmomanometer
What does it show ? (1) The pedigree chart is wrong as
82. Infectious RNA molecules of low molecular weight, lacking protein coat were discovered by (1) Pruisiner
this is not possible
(2) Diener
(2) Inheritance of a recessive sex-
(3) Iwanowsky
linked disease like haemophilia
(4) Leeuwenhoek
(3) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of metabolism like phenylketonuria (4) Inheritance of a condition like
83. What is the recommended per cent of forest cover for plains by the National Forest Policy (1988) of India? (1) 67%
phenylketonuria as an autosomal
(2) 33%
recessive trait
(3) 47%
79.
The fleshy storage leaves are found in (1) Pitcher plant (2) Cacti (3) Onion (4) Pea plant 80. In the diagramatic representation of a standard ECG, this represents the return of ventricles from excited to normal state (1) T-wave (2) P-wave (3) QRS complex
(4) 23% 84.
Highest values of B.O.D can be recorded in (1) Drinking water pond (2) Flowing river water (3) Well water in the plain regions (4) Sewage water drains
85. The technique of DNA finger printing was initially developed by (1) Francois Jacob (2) Rosalind Franklin
(4) PR-interval 81. In breathing movements, volume can be estimated by
air
Sri Chaitanya
Page No.14
(3) T.H. Morgan (4) Alec Jeffreys Vijayawada
(2)
86. In the course of evolution of man, fossils discovered in Java in
gametophyte
1891 revealed this stage
(3) Embryogenesis
(1) Homo erectus
(4) Sporogenesis
(2) Homo habilis
89.
of
male
Who among the following lead to
(3) Australopithecines
experimental
verification
of
(4) Homo neanderthalensis
chromosomal
theory
of
87. The
following
are
the
inheritance
two
statements regarding antibodies
(1) Sutton & Boveri
(a) Each antibody molecule has
(2) Muller
two light peptide chains and two
(3) Morgan
heavy peptide chains, hence it is
(4) Mendel
represented as H2L2.
90. Government of India has passed
(b) The T-cells themselves do not
the water (Prevention and control
secrete antibodies but help B
of pollution) Act in
cells produce them.
(1) 1981
Of the above statements which
(2) 1986
one of the following options is
(3) 1974
correct ?
(4) 1987
(1) Both (a) and (b) are false (2) (a) is correct but (b) is false (3) (b) is correct but (a) is false (4) Both (a) and (b) are correct 88.
Development
In an angiospermic plant body, free nuclear divisions take place during (1)
Development
of
91. Consider a point P at contact point of a wheel on ground which rolls on ground without slipping. Then value of displacement of point P when wheel completes half of rotation (If radius of wheel is 1 m) (1) 2 m
female
gametophyte
Sri Chaitanya
Page No.15
(2)
2
(3)
m
(4)
2
4m
2m Vijayawada
92. The power factor of a circuit in which a box having unknown electrical devices connected in series with a resistor of resistance 3 is 3/5. The reactance of the box is (1) 5
95. Which of the following numbers has
maximum
of
significant figures? (1) 1001 (2) 100.1 (3) 100.10
(2) 5/ 3
(4) 0.001001
(3) 4
96. A silver sphere (work function
(4) 4 / 3
4.6 eV) is suspended in vaccum
93. One mole of a diatomic gas undergoes a process TV = Constant. If the temperature of gas increases by T , work done for this process is (1) R T
chamber by an insulating thread. Ultraviolet light of wavelength
0.2 m falls on the sphere. Then its maximum potential will be 0
hc 12400ev A
(2) 3R T (3) 5R T
(1) 4.6V
(4) 7R T
(2) 6.2 V
94. Consider the circuit in the given figure.
number
In
the
steady
(3) 1.6 V
state,
potential difference between A
(4) 3.2 V 97. An organ pipe P1 closed at one
and B is
end vibrating in its first harmonic and another pipe P2 open at both ends vibrating in its third harmonic are in resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio of the length of P1 to that of
P2 is
(1) E
(1) 8/3
(2) E/2
(2) 3/8
(3) E/3
(3) 1/6
(4) Zero
(4) 1/3
Sri Chaitanya
Page No.16
Vijayawada
98. A radioactive element X converts
101. A plane electromagnetic wave of
into another stable element Y.
frequency 25 MHz travels in free
Half life of X is 2 hrs. Initially
space
only X is present. After time t, the
direction. At a particular point in
ratio of atoms of X and Y is found
space and time, E 6.3 j in V/m.
to be 1 : 7. Then t in hours is
Then B at this point will be (in
(1) 2
tesla)
(2) 4 (3) Between 4 and 6 (4) 6 99. If the distance between the first
along
(1) 2.1 10
6
(2) 2.1 10
6
k
(3) 2.1 10
6
j
(4) 2.1 10
6
the
positive
X-
k
maxima and fifth minima of a double slit pattern is 7 mm and
i
the slits are separated by 0.15 mm
102. A vessel contains two different
with the screen 50 cm from the
liquids of different densities 2d
slits, then wavelength of the light
and d as shown. There is a small
used is
hole at the bottom of the vessel.
(1) 600 nm
Velocity of the liquid coming out
(2) 525 nm
of the hole will be
(3) 420 nm (4) 540 nm 100. The logic operation performed by the given circuit will be (1)
6gh
(2) 2 gh
(1) NOT
(3) 2 2gh
(2) AND
(4)
(3) NOR
gh
(4) OR Sri Chaitanya
Page No.17
Vijayawada
103. Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a ground where AB=a.
The
running
boy in
perpendicular
at a
to
B
starts
direction AB
with
velocity v1 . The boy at A starts running
simultaneously
with
105. A thin rod of length L and mass M is bent at its midpoint into two halves so that the angle between them is 90º. The moment of inertia of the bent rod about an axis passing through the bending point and perpendicular to the plane defined by the two halves of the rod is
ML2 (1) 6
velocity v2 and catches the other in a time t, where t is 2 2
2 1
v (2) (3)
(4)
(2)
a
(1)
v
ML2 (3) 24
a v2
v1 (4)
a v2
v1 a2
v2
2ML2 24
v12
104. A 5000 kg rocket is set for vertical firing. The exhaust speed is 800 ms-1. To give an initial upward acceleration
of
20
ms-2,
the
106. A particle of mass ‘m’ is kept at rest at a height 3R from the surface of earth, where ‘R’ is radius of earth and ‘M’ is mass of earth. The minimum speed with which it should be projected, so that it does not return back, is (g is acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth)
amount of gas ejected per second to supply the needed thrust will
1
(2) 187.5kg s
1
(3) 127.5kg s
1
(4) 137.5kg s
1
æ GM ö÷ (1) çç çè 2 R ø÷÷
1/ 2
æ gR ö (2) çç ÷÷ çè 4 ø÷
be (g = 10 ms-2) (1) 180.5kg s
ML2 12
1/ 2
æ 2g ö (3) çç ÷÷÷ çè R ø
1/ 2
æ GM ö÷ (4) çç çè R ø÷÷
1/ 2
Sri Chaitanya
Page No.18
Vijayawada
107. Three liquids of densities r1 , r2
surroundings to which it rejects
and r3 (with r1 > r2 > r3 ), having
heat is
the same value of surface tension
(1) 11ºC
T, rise to the same height in three
(2) 21ºC
identical capillaries. The angles
(3) 31ºC
of contact q1 , q2 and q3 obey
(4) 41ºC
p (1) > q1 > q2 > q3 ³ 0 2
110. Two containers A and B are
p 2
closed. The volume of A is twice
p < q1 < q2 < q3 < p 2
amount of water in B. If both are
(2) 0 £ q1 < q2 < q3 < (3)
partly filled with water and that of B and it contains half the at the same temperature, the
p (4) p > q1 > q2 > q3 > 2
water vapour in the containers will have pressure in the ratio of
108. Steam at 100ºC is passed into 20 g of water at 10ºC. When water
(1) 1 : 2
acquires a temperature of 80ºC,
(2) 1 : 1
the mass of water present will be
(3) 2 : 1
[Take specific heat of water = 1
(4) 4 : 1
cal g-1ºC-1 and latent heat of
111. The superposition of two simple
steam = 540 cal g-1]
harmonic
(1) 24g
periods at right angle to each
(2) 31.5 g
other and with a phase difference
(3) 42.5 g
of p results in the displacement
(4) 22.5 g
of the particle along
109. The coefficient of performance of a
refrigerator
is
5.
If
the
motions
(2) figure of eight (3) straight line
20ºC, the temperature of the
(4) ellipse
Page No.19
equal
(1) circle
temperature inside freezer is -
Sri Chaitanya
of
Vijayawada
112. Two trains move towards each
(2) DE
other with the same speed. The
(3) AB
speed of sound is 340 m/s. If the
(4) BC
height of the tone of the whistle of one of them heard on the other changes to 9/8 times, then the speed of each train should be (1) 20 m/s (2) 2 m/s (3) 200 m/s
115. A wire elongates by 1 mm when a load W is hanged from it. If the wire goes over a pulley and two weights W each are hung at the two ends, the elongation of the wire will be (in mm) l (1) 2 (2) l
(4) 2000 m/s 113. Point charges +4q, -q and +4q are kept on the X-axis at point x = 0, x = a and x = 2a respectively. (1) only –q is in stable equilibrium (2) all the charges are in stable equilibrium except along a line (3) all of the charges are in unstable
(3) 2l (4) zero 116. A conducting square frame of side ‘a’ and a long straight wire carrying current I are located in the same plane as shown in the figure. The frame moves to the right with a constant velocity ‘V’. The emf induced in the frame will be proportional to
equilibrium except along a line (4) none of the charges is in equilibrium 114. From the graph between current (I) and voltage (V) is shown below. Identify the portion corresponding to negative resistance
(2x + a)
(2)
1
(2 x - a)(2 x + a)
(3)
1 x2
(4) (1) CD Sri Chaitanya
Page No.20
1
(1)
2
1
(2x - a)
2
Vijayawada
117. A
galvanometer
having
(2) convergent lens of focal length
a
resistance of 9 ohm is shunted by
3.0 R
a wire of resistance 2 ohm. If the
(3) divergent lens of focal length
total current is 1 amp, the part of
3.5 R
it passing through the shunt will
(4) divergent lens of focal length
be about
3.0 R
(1) 0.2 amp
120. There is a prism with refractive
(2) 0.8 amp
index equal to
(3) 0.25 amp
refracting angle equal to 30º. One
(4)0.5 amp
of the refractive surface of the
2
and the
118. A circular disc of radius 0.2 meter
prism is polished. A beam of
is placed in a uniform magnetic
monochromatic light will retrace
1 æçWb ö÷ ç ÷ in such p çè m2 ø÷
its path if its angle of incidence
field of induction
over the refracting surface of the
a way that its axis makes an angle
prism is
of 60º with B . The magnetic flux
(1) 0º
linked with the disc is
(2) 30º
(1) 0.08 Wb
(3) 45º
(2) 0.01 Wb
(4) 60º
(3) 0.02 Wb (4) 0.06 Wb 119. A concave lens of glass, refractive index 1.5 has both surfaces of same radius of curvature R. On immersion refractive
in index
a
medium 1.75, it
of will
121. A beam of light of l = 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is (1) 1.2 cm
behave as a
(2) 1.2 mm
(1) convergent lens of focal length
(3) 2.4 cm
3.5 R
(4) 2.4 mm
Sri Chaitanya
Page No.21
Vijayawada
is
124. Transfer characteristics [output
subjected to crossed electric (E)
voltage (V0) vs input voltage (Vi)]
and magnetic fields (B) after
for a base biased transistor in CE
accelerating through a potential
configuration is as shown in the
difference V between cathode
figure. For using transistor as a
and
switch, it is used
122. A
beam
of cathode
anode.
The
rays
fields
are
adjusted such that the beam is not deflected. The specific charge of the cathode rays is given by (1)
B2 2VE 2
(2)
2VB 2 E2
(3)
2VE B2
(1) in region III
2
(2) both in region (I) and (III) (3) in region II
E2 (4) 2VB 2
(4) in region I
123. Ionization potential of hydrogen
125. Choose the only false statement
atom is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen atoms
from the following.
in the ground state are excited by
(1) In conductors the valence and
monochromatic
conduction bands overlap.
radiation
of
photon energy 12.1 eV. According
(2) Substances with energy gap of
to Bohr’s theory, the spectral
the order of 10 eV are insulators.
lines emitted by hydrogen will
(3)
be:
semiconductor
(1) Two
increase in temperature.
(2) Three
(4)
(3) One
semiconductor
(4) Six
increase in temperature.
Sri Chaitanya
Page No.22
The
The
resistivity
of
increases
with
conductivity increases
of
a
with
Vijayawada
126. The diode used in the circuit
(3)
shown in the figure has constant voltage
drop
at 0.5V
(4) f 0T
at all
currents and a maximum power
1 f0T 2
128. A particle moves along a circle of
rating of 100 milli watts across
20
radius
m
with
constant
the diode. What should be the tangential acceleration. If the
value of the resistor R, connected
velocity of the particle is 80 m/s
in series with diode for obtaining
at
maximum current ?
the
end
of
revolution
after
begun,
the
the
second
motion
has
tangential
acceleration is (1) 40 m / s 2 (1) 6.76
(2) 640 m / s 2
(2) 20
(3) 160 m / s 2
(3) 5
(4) 40 m / s 2
(4) 5.6
129. A body of mass 5 kg explodes at
127. A particle moving along x-axis
rest into three fragments with
having an acceleration f at instant
masses in the ratio 1 : 1 : 3. The
t , where T
fragments with equal masses fly
t is given by f
f0 1
f0 and T are constants. The particle at t = 0 has zero velocity. In the time interval between t = 0 and the instant when f = 0, the particle’s velocity (vx) is
in
mutually
directions each with speed of 21 m/s. The velocity of heaviest fragment in m/s will be (1) 7 2 (2) 5 2
1 (1) f 0T 2 2
(3) 3 2
(2) f 0T 2
(4)
Sri Chaitanya
perpendicular
Page No.23
2
Vijayawada
130. The potential energy between
(1) 2g/3
two atoms in a molecule is given
(2) 2g/6
a x12
by U x are
positive constants and x is
the distance between the atoms. The
atom
(3) 2g/9
b where a and b x6
is
in
(4) g/3 132. Which of the following rods, (given radius r and length l) each
stable
made of the same material and
equilibrium, when
2a b
(1) x (2) x
11a 5b
whose ends are maintained at the
1/ 6
same temperature will conduct most heat ?
1/ 6
(3) x = 0 (4) x
a 2b
1/ 6
(1) r
r0 , l
(2) r
2 r0 , l
l0
(3) r
r0 , l
2l0
(4) r
2 r0 , l
l0
2l0
131. A smooth ring P of mass m can
133. A wire is fixed between two ends
slide on a fixed horizontal rod. A
of a sonometer at x = 0 and x =
string tied to the ring passes over
100 cm. What should be the
a fixed pulley and carries a block
positions of two bridges below
Q of mass (m/2) as shown in the
the
figure. At an instant, the string
segments of the wire have their
between the ring and the pulley
fundamental frequencies in the
makes an angle 60º with the rod.
ratio 1 : 3 : 5.
The initial acceleration of the
(1)
1500 500 cm, cm 23 23
(2)
1500 300 cm, cm 23 23
(3)
300 1500 cm, cm 23 23
(4)
1500 2000 cm, cm 23 23
ring is P
Q Sri Chaitanya
Page No.24
wire
so
that
the
three
Vijayawada
134. A square surface of side L meter in the plane of the paper is placed in a uniform electric field E(volt/m) acting along the same plane at an angle with the horizontal side of the square as shown in figure.
(1)
No.
ClO4 (2)
ClO3 Cl
OCl
–
of
-bonds
ClO2
ClO
O
ClO2
bond
ClO3
:
energy:
ClO4
(3) Cl – O distance: OCl
ClO2
ClO3
(4)
Oxidising
OCl
ClO2
ClO4
power
ClO3
:
ClO4
137. Tolerable limits of lead and fluoride
in
international
standards are:
The electric flux linked to the
(1) 10 ppm and 50 ppm
surface, in units of volt m is
(2) 50 ppb and 1 ppm
(1) EL2
(3) 50 ppb and 15 ppm
(2) EL2 cos
(4) 1 ppm and 50 ppm
(3) EL sin 2
138. In Lassaigne’s test, which of the
(4) zero 135. A potentiometer wire has length 4m and resistance 8 . The resistance that must be connected in series with the wire and an accumulator of emf 2V, so as to get a potential gradient 1 mV per cm on the wire is (1) 44
following would
organic
produce
a
compounds blood
red
colour when its sodium extract is treated with FeCl3 solution
(1)
(2) 48 (3) 32
(2)
(4) 40 136. Which of the following arrangements does not truly represent the property indicated against it? Sri Chaitanya
Page No.25
(3)
(4) Vijayawada
(2) 2 and 0
139. Improper match of the following is
(3) 1 and 2
(1)
(4) 2 and 1 a) NaH b) RX
OH
142. Which of the following elements
OR
has least number of electrons in
…. Williamson synthesis (2)
its ‘M’ shell? (1) K
a)aqueous NaOH b) CO2 , 6 7atm
OH
OH
(2) Mn
COOH
(3) Ni
…. Kolbe’s reaction (3)
(4) Sc
H2 Lindlar's catalyst
COCl
CHO
143. Which among the following is incorrect?
…. Wolf – Kishner reduction (4) CO + HCl Cu 2Cl2 CH2Cl 2
(1) Order of C-C bond length : C2H6 > C6H6 > C2H4
CHO
(2) Order of bond angle : HgCl2 > …. Gattermann – Koch reaction 140. Ph CH 2 CH CH 2
dil.H 2SO4
BF3 > SiCl4
X.
(3) Order of % p- character in
Identify product ‘X’ is
hybrid orbitals of central atom :
(1) Ph CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 OH
BeCl2 > CCl4
H |
H |
(2) Ph C
C
| | H OH
(3) Ph
(4) Order of polarizing power of cations: Al+3 > Mg+2 > Na+1
CH 3
H |
H |
C
C CH 3
144.
of
the
species
Li2 , Li2 and Li2 increases in the order
of:
| | OH H
(4) Ph CH 2 OH 141. The number of radial nodes of 3S and 2P orbitals respectively are (1) 0 and 2 Sri Chaitanya
Stability
Page No.26
(1) Li2
Li2
Li2
(2) Li2
Li2
Li2
(3) Li2
Li2
(4) Li2
Li
Li2 2
Li2 Vijayawada
145. When
the
increased,
temperature
surface
tension
is of
water: (4)
(1) increases
147. C 2 H 5 l and dry Ag2O reacts to
(2) remains constant (3) decreases
produce
(4) shows irregular trend
(1) C2 H 6
146. The major product obtained on mono bromination
Br2 / FeBr3
of the following compound ‘A’
(2) C 2 H 5
C2 H 5
(3) C 2H 5
O C2 H 5
(4) C 2 H 5
CH 3
148. RCH 2OH
X
RCOOH ;
RCH 2OH
Y
RCHO
is:
X, Y respectively are (1) LiAlH 4 , NaBH 4 (2) PCC , NaBH 4 (3) PCC , KMnO4 H
(1)
(4) Jone’s reagent, PCC
149. B is
(2)
(1) Glutaric acid (2) Succinic acid (3) Adipic acid (4) Malonic acid
(3)
Sri Chaitanya
Page No.27
Vijayawada
(4) Both statements are incorrect 152. For N2 g
150. OH
NO2
,
(1)
CH3
OH
O2 g
Kc at 800 ºC is 0.1. What is the value of Kp at the same temperature (1) 0.5 (2) 0.01 (3) 0.05 (4) 0.1
What are x and y? SO3H
the reaction 2 NO g , the value of
SO3 H
153. 4 Mg
,
10 HNO3
3 H 2O . 1
NH 4 NO 3 NO2
(2)
4 Mg NO3
2
mole
of
HNO3 oxidizes how many grams
of magnesium ? (1) 96g (2) 9.6g (3) 960 g (3)
,
(4) 240g
SO3H
OH
SO3H SO3H
154. What is the conc. of Cl- ion in NO2
HgCl2 saturated solution. If K sp of
,
HgCl2 at 298k is 4 ×10-15 M3
(1) 1
10 5 M
(2) 2
10 5 M
E
(3) 4
10 5 M
Statement – II: Enthalpy change is
(4) 4
10
NO
2 (4) 151. Statement – I: For a reaction
2NH3 g
always
N2 g
3H2 g , H
greater
than
internal
of the solution having pH = 4 is:
(1) Both statements are correct Statement
–
1
is
correct,
statement – II is incorrect (3) Statement – 1 is incorrect,
(1) 10
4
(2) 10
10
10 (3) 6.02 10 13 (4) 6.02 10
statement – II is correct Sri Chaitanya
M
155. The number of OH- ions in 1 mL
energy change
(2)
15
Page No.28
Vijayawada
156. CH 3 C CH
NaNH 2
A
C2 H5Cl
B.
Positional isomer of B is (1) 1 - butyne (2) 2 - butyne (3) 1 - pentyne (4) 3 - hexyne
(1)
157. P K a is highest for OH
(2)
CH 3
(1) OH
NO2
(3) (2)
NO2 OH
CH 3
(3) OH
(4) 158. When acetic acid is heated with P2O5 then which compound will be formed? (1) CH 3CO 2 O (2) CH 3COCH 3 (3) CH 3CHO (4) CH 4
(4) 160. Which of the following does not contain P-O-P bond? (1) P4O6 (2) (HPO3)3 (3) H4P2O6 (4) H4P2O7 161. The volume of atoms present in end centered cubic Unit Cell of a metal is (r = atomic radius) 16 3 (1) r 3 (2) (3)
159.
(4)
‘C’ in the reaction is Sri Chaitanya
Page No.29
4 3 r 3 8 3 r 3 12 3 r 3 Vijayawada
162. Synthetic fibres like nylon-6,6 is very strong because: (1) They have high molecular weights and high melting points (2) They have linear molecules consisting of very long chains (3)
They have a high degree of
cross-linking by strong C-C bond (4) They have linear molecules interlinked
with
forces
like
hydrogen bonding 163. Compound PdCl 4 .6H 2 O is a hydrated complex. One molal aqueous solution of it has freezing point 269.28 K. Assuming 100% ionisation of the complex, which of the following is the formula of the complex K f for water 1.86 K Kg mol 1 ? (1) Pd H 2O
6
165. One Faraday of electricity is passed separately, through one litre of one molar aqueous solution of AgNO3, SnCl4 and CuSO4. The number of moles of Ag, Sn and Cu deposited at cathode are respectively 1 1 (1) , ,1 4 2 1 1 (2) ,1, 2 4 1 1 (3) 1, , 2 4 1 1 (4) 1, , 4 2 166. Which of the following is correct structure of S 2Cl2 ?
(1) (2) Cl S S Cl
Cl 4
(2) Pd H 2O 4 Cl2 Cl2 .2H 2O (3) Pd H 2O 3 Cl3 Cl.3H 2O (4) Pd H 2O 2 Cl4 .4H 2O 164. What will be the emf of the given
(3) (4) Cl S S Cl 167. Consider the statements:
cell? Pt/H2(10atm)/H+(1M)IIH+(1M)/H2 (1atm) / Pt
(i) La OH 3 is the least basic among hydroxides of lanthanides (ii) Eu+2 acts as a reducing agent (iii) Ce 4 acts as an oxidising agent. Which of the above is/are true? (1) i and iii (2) ii and iii (3) ii only (4) i and ii
(1) +0.09V (2) +0.03V (3) -0.12V (4) +0.12V Sri Chaitanya
following
Page No.30
Vijayawada
168. The temperature co efficient for reaction in which food deteriorates is ‘2’. Then food deteriorates --- times as rapidly at 250C as it does at 50C. (1) 8
(1) Structure of uracil is (2)During denaturation, primary
(2) 2
structure of proteins is destroyed
(3) 1
(3) DNA has a double helical
(4) 4
structure
169. The copper matte obtained in the metallurgy of copper has the approximate composition (1) FeS + CuO (2) Cu + FeO
(4) Nucleoside is the combination of sugar and base 172. Which of the following is not a function of DNA finger printing? (1) In forensic laboratories for
(3) Cu2S+FeS
identification of criminals
(4) CuS+FeS2
(2) To determine paternity of an
170. The following are some statements about micelle I) These are formed as aggregated particles when soap is a applied at lower conc. II) The tail part of it dissolves the
individual (3) To identify the dead bodies in any accident by comparing the DNA’s of parents (4) In checking Biological activity
grease deposit or dirt III) Hydrocarbon chain of soap micelle is hydrophilic end and its anion part is hydrophobic end The correct statement(s) is/are (1) All are correct (2) Only I and II (3) Only II and III
in the human body 173. List – I List – II (use of polymer) (Polymer) A) Making paints 1) Bakelite B) Making tyre cords 2) Teflon C) Making oil seals 3) Nylon – 6 D) Making combs 4) Glyptal The correct match is (1) A - 4, B - 2, C - 1, D – 3 (2) A - 4, B -3, C - 2, D – 1
(4) Only II 171. Which
of
the
following
is
(4) A - 3, B - 2, C - 1, D - 4
incorrect? Sri Chaitanya
(3) A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D – 1
Page No.31
Vijayawada
174. Which
among
inhibits
the
chemicals
the
following
synthesis
177. Largest ion among the following is
of
known
as
prostaglandins which stimulates inflammation in the tissue and cause pain is: (1) zantac
(1) Li H 2O
x
(2) Cs H 2O
x
(3) Rb H 2O
x
(4) K H 2O
(2) Chlorodiazepoxide (3) Alitame
x
178. The product obtained as a result
(4) aspirin
of a reaction of nitrogen gas with
175. Incorrect statement is
hot CaC2 is:
(1) Natural gas is an important
(1) Super phosphate of lime
source of helium
(2) Nitrolim
(2) Most abundant inert gas in
(3) Plaster of paris
atmosphere is Radon
(4) Milk of lime
(3) First noble gas compound
179. In summer season which of the
prepared is XePtF6
following
(4) Electron gain enthalpy
group
elements
exist as liquid?
H EG
(1) Ga
values of noble gases are positive
(2) B
176. Which among the following is incorrect statement ?
(3) Al
(1) NH3 is an electron rich hydride
(4) Tl 180. With which of the following
(2) CaH2 is known as Hydrolith (3) Reaction involved in water gas
silica doesn’t reacts
shift reaction:
(1) HNO3
CO(g) + H2O(g)
13
CO2(g) + H2(g)
(2) HF
(4) Melting point of Heavy water
(3) NaOH
(D2O) is less than that of normal
(4) Na2CO3
Water. Sri Chaitanya
Page No.32
Vijayawada
