Paper-I: REASONING Directions (Q. 1-5): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions Of the six men of literature A, B, C, D, E and F being considered here, two belonged to the 17the century, three to the 19th and one to the 20th century. Four were recognized as great poets, three as the great novelist and three as great dramatists. One contributed to bangali literature, two to Hindi, two to Marathi and one to Tamil. The 20th century writer wrote poetry only and contributed to Marathi literature and the other Marathi writer contributed to poetry, novel and drama. One Hindi wrier and the only Tamil writer belonged to the 19th century. The former contributed to poetry and novel while the latter to novel and drama. The Bengali writer belonged to the 17th century and contributed to poetry only. A belonged to the 20th century, B wrote drama only, C contributed to Marathi literature, D was a Hindi poet and novelist and belonged to the 19th century. E also belonged to the 19th century, and F contributed in poetry only. 1. To only language did B contributed? (1) Bengali (2) Hindi (3) Marathi (4) Tamil (5) None of these 2. Among these, who was the Tamil writer? (1) A (2) B (3) E (4) F (5) None of these 3. To which branch of literature did A contribute? (1) Poetry (2) Novel (3) Drama (4) All of these (5) None of these 4. Among these, who was the Bengali writer? (1) A (2) B (3) E (4) F (5) None of these 5. To which branch of literature did C contribute? (1) Poetry (2) Drama (3) Novel (4) All the three (5) None of these Directions (Q. 6-10): Read the following information carefully to answer these questions: i. ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is Mother of B’: ii. ‘A # B’ means ‘A is father of B’: iii. ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is husband of B’: iv. ‘A % B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’ 6. P @ Q & M # T indicates what relationship of P with T? (1) Paternal grandmother (2) Maternal grandmother (3) Paternal grandfather (4) Maternal grandfather (5) None of these

7. Which of the following expressions indicates ‘R is the sister of H’? (1) H $ D @ F # R (2) R % D @ F $ H (3) R $ D @ F # H (4) H % D @ F $ R (5) None of these 8. If F @ D % K # H than how is F related to H? (1) Brother-in-law (2) Sister (3) Sister-in-law (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 9. Which of the following expressions indicates ‘His the brother of N’? (1) H # R $ D $ N (2) N % F @ D $ H # R (3) N % F @ D $ G (4) N % F @ D % H (5) None of these 10. If G $ M @ K, how is K related to G? (1) Daughter-in-law (2) Mother-in-law (3) Daughter (4) Aunt (5) None of these 11. Deepa moved a distance of 75 meters towards the north. She then turned to the left and walking for about 25 meters, turned left again and walked 80 meters. Finally, she turned to the right at an angle of 450. In which direction was she moving finally? (1) North-east (2) North-west (3) South (4) South-east (5) South-west Directions (Q. 12-16): Study the following information to answer the given questions. A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Input: substance 95 86 jally mutual 24 flourish 13 56 diploma success 42 Step: 95 substance 86 jally mutual 24 flourish 13 56 success 42 diploma Step II: 13 95 substance 86 jally mutual 24 56 success 42 diploma flourish Step III: 86 13 95 substance manual 24 56 success 42 diploma flourish jally Step IV: 24 86 13 95 substance 56 success 42 diploma flourish jally mutual Step V: 56 24 86 13 95 success 42 diploma flourish jally mutual substance Step VI: 42 56 24 86 13 95 diploma flourish jally mutual substance success Step VI is the last step of the above input. As per the rules followed in above steps, find out in each of the following question, the appropriate step for the given input.

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12. Input: gentle intellect 86 78 36 ornate pursuit 52 superior superstar 14 How many steps will be required to complete the arrangement? (1) Four (2) Five (3) Six (4) Seven (5) None of these 13. Step II: 20 98 76 49 incisor misuse 38 lunar tangle tallow branch foresight Which of the following will be Step IV? (1) 76 38 20 98 49 misuse tangle tallow branch foresight incisor lunar (2) 38 76 20 49 98 misuse tangle tallow branch foresight incisor lunar (3) 38 76 20 98 49 misuse tangle tallow branch foresight lunar incisor (4) 38 20 98 76 49 misuse tangle tallow foresight branch lunar incisor (5) None of these 14. Step III of an input: 55 9 62 tassel 18 rinse shunt 42 38 palpable plaque quake Which of the following is definitely the input? (1) palpable 9 55 tassel 18 rinse 62 shunt quake plaque 42 38 (2) 62 9 55 tassel 18 rinse shunt quake plaque 42 38 palpable (3) 9 62 52 tassel 18 rinse shunt quake 42 38 palpable plaque (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 15. Input: Same 14 73 75 rejoice sight regulate 62 gerund 16 forbid 49 Which of the following will be the last step? (1) 49 62 72 16 14 75 forbid gerund regular rejoice sense sight (2) 49 62 16 73 75 14 forbid gerund regulate rejoice sense sight (3) 49 62 16 73 14 75 forbid gerund regulate rejoice sight sense (4) 49 62 16 73 14 75 forbid gerund rejoice regulate sight sense (5) None of these 16. Input: Liable 82 85 ostrich girdle 92 arrest 62 shell 51 96 heat Which of the following steps will be the last but one? (1) V (2) IV (3) VII (4) VI (5) None of these 17. What will come in place of question mark (?) CD FG JK ? UV (1) NP (2) OP (3) MN

(4) OS (5) LP 18. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word REGIONAL, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 19. In which of the following expressions will the expression ‘L>P’ be definitely false? (1) L > M ≥ N = P (2) P = N ≥ L > M (3) P ≤ M ≤ N < L (4) L > M = N ≥ P (5) All are false 20. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that ‘VZ’ definitely holds true? V_W_X_Z (1) <, ≤, = (2) >, ≥, < (3) =, <, ≤ (4) >, ≥ ,> (5) None of these Directions (Q. 21-25): Each of the questions below consists of questions and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all three statements and give answer1) If the data in statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement III are not required to answer the question. 2) If the data in statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II are not required to answer the question. 3) If the data in statements II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I are not required to answer the question. 4) If the data in either statement I alone or statement II alone or statement III alone are sufficient to answer the question. 5) If the data in all the statements I, II and III together are necessary to the answer the questions. 21. Out of five persons A, B, C, D and E, A is in which direction with respect to E? I. A is to the west of D and to the south of C. C is to the west of E II. B is to the west of C and south-east of D. who is north of A. D is to the east of E.

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III. E is to the south of D and north of B, who is west of A. 22. Among six people P, Q, R, S, T and V, each lives on a different floor of a six-storey building having its six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered I, the floor above it, number 2, and so on, and the topmost floor is numbered 6). Who lives on the topmost floor? I. There is only one floor between the floors on which R and Q live. P lives on an even-number floor. II. T does not live on an even-numbered floor. Q lives on an even-numbered floor. Q does not live on the topmost floor. III. S Live on an odd-numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which S and P live. T lives on a floor immediately above R’s floor. 23. Are all the four friends, viz A, B, C and D, who are sitting around a circular table, facing the center? I. B sits second to the right of D. D faces the centre. C sits on the immediate right of both B and D. II. A sits on the immediate left of B. C is not an immediate neighbor of A. C sits on the immediate right of D. III. D is an immediate neighbour of both A and C. B sits on the immediate left of A. C sits on the immediate right of B. 24. In a family of seven numbers, who is S related to V? I. T and U are offspring of R, who is the wife of S. II. Z, the cousin of W, is the niece of T. III. V is the only brother-in-law of W. 25. There are six letters W, A, R, S, N and E. Is ‘ANSWER’ the word formed after performing the following operations using these six letters only? I. E is placed fourth to the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to either A or E. II. R is placed immediately next (either left or right) to E. W is placed immediately next (either left or tight) to S. III. Both N and W are placed immediately next to S. The word does not begin with R. A is not placed immediately next to W. Directions (Q. 26-30): In each question below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two/three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically

follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answers-1. If only conclusion I follows 2. If only conclusion II follows. 3. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. 4. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. 5. If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow. 26. Statements: Some tigers are panthers No lion is a tiger. Conclusions I. some panthers being lions is a possibility. II. Panthers, which are not tigers, being lions is a possibility. 27. Statements: All doctors are perfect. All engineers are perfect. Conclusions I. there is a possibility that some doctors are engineers. II. All perfects are either doctors or engineers. 28. Statements: All eggs are tomatoes. No tomato is a potato. All potatoes are goods. Conclusions I. Some tomatoes may be goods. II. All eggs being goods is a possibility. 29. Statements: Some doges are cats. All animals are cats. All cats are whites. Conclusions I. all those dogs which are cats are also whites. II. all the animals may or may not be dogs. 30. Statements: some gods are silver. All silvers are white. No white is a yellow. Conclusions I. some golds which are white are not yellow. II. some golds being yellow is a possibility. Directions (Q. 31-35): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the assumptions and decide which of the assumptions in implicit in the statement. Then, decide which of the answer (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet. Give answer: 1) If only assumption I is implicit. 2) If only assumption II is implicit.

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3) If either assumption I or II implicit, and 4) If neither assumption I nor II is implicit and 5) If both assumptions I and II are implicit. 31. Statement: Because of the large number of potholes in the road ‘X’, reaching airport in time has become difficult. Assumptions I. Reaching airport in time may not be always necessary. II. There is no other convenient road to the airport. 32. Statement: Government need not spend even a pie to provide water tankers to the drought stricken localities in the state. Assumptions I. Some non-government organizations also need not spend money on providing water tankers. II. Water tankers cannot overcome the water shortage of the drought-stricken localities. 33. Statement: Why don’t you go to the court if the employer does not pay you the provident fund contribution? Assumptions I. Court can intervene in matters of dispute between employer and employees. II. It is obligatory for the employer to pay the provident Fund contribution to the employees. 34. Statement: Weapon inspectors of country ‘X’ could not detect the presence to chemical weapons in the custody of country ‘Y’ Assumptions I. Country ‘Y’ allowed the weapon inspectors of country ‘X’ to inspect weapons. II. Presence of chemical weapons cannot be detected. 35. Statement: Government need not spend even a pie to provide water tankers to the droughtstricken localities in the state. Assumptions I. There are certain drought affected localities in the state. II. Providing water tankers incurs some money. Directions (Q. 36-40): Study the following information carefully answer these questions: B, D, H, K, P, R and T are seven friends who studied in three management institutes X, Y and Z. They had opted for one out of the three specializations – Marketing, Finance and Personnel with at least two of them in each specialization. No

two persons have the same combination of institute and specialization. The Marketing specialist from institute Y earns the maximum. D studied in institute Z with personnel specialization and earns more than only B and K. H studied in institute X with Marketing and earns less than only P and T. R studied in institute Z with finance and earns more than D but less than H. T studied in institute X with Finance specialization. K a personnel specialist, studied in institute Y and is not the last earner among than. B is the only Finance specialist from one of these institutes among them. 36. In which of the Institutes did B study? (1) X (2) Y (3) Z (4) Y or Z (5) Data inadequate 37. What is P’s specialization? (1) Personnel (2) Marketing (3) Finance (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these 38. Which of the following combinations of instituteindividual-specializations not correct? (1) X – K – Personal (2) X – H – Marketing (3) Y – B – Finance (4) Z – R – Finance (5) None of these 39. Whose income is the second highest among them? (1) T (2) H (3) P (4) P or T (5) None of these 40. How many of them earn more than D? (1) One (2) two (3) three (4) five (5) None of these Directions (Q. 41 to 45): In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, $, % and , $, % and 8 are used with the following meanings as illustrated below: ‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’. ‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’. ‘P 8 Q’ mean ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’. ‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’. ‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’. In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Given Answer: 1) If the conclusion I is true. 2) If only conclusion II is true. 3) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true. 4) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true. 5) If both conclusions I and II are true. 41. Statement: M8R, R$T, T©N Conclusions: I. N@M

II. T@M

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42. Statement: B%H, H$W, W@M Conclusions: I. B@W

Courses of action: I. The local police authority should be put on high alert to maintain law and order during the congregation. II. The civic authority should monitor the crowd and restrict entry of people beyonda manageable number. 49. Statements: There has been a significant drop in generation in all the power generating units which supply power to the capital. Courses of action: I. The authorities should impose a partial cut in power supply to tackle the situation. II. An appeal should be made to all the residents of the capital through mass media for minimal use of power. 50. Statements: Four robberies have been committed in just eight hours in City X. Courses of action: I. The known criminals should be arrested immediately. II. The police should take adequate precaution to prevent recurrence of such incidents.

II. M8H

43. Statement: K8M, M%A, A@T Conclusions: I. K8A

II. T8M

44. Statement: D$Z, Z%N, N@F Conclusions: I. F8Z

II. N$D

45. Statement: R©A, A%M , M8N Conclusions: I. M8R

II. M©R

Directions (Q.46-50) In each of the question given below, a statements is followed by two courses of action. A course of action is a step or a administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statements, you have to assume everything in the statements to be true and then decide which of the given courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. Give answer– 1) If only I follows 2) If only II follows 3) If either I or II follows 4) If both I and II follows 5) If neither I nor II follows. 46. Statements: The transport ministry said in a report that people should obey the rules of traffic. This will improve transport services and hence the number of road accidents will decrease. Courses of action : I. The ministry should organise an awareness campaign to raise awareness about rules related to traffic. II. The license of those who disobey traffic rules should be cancelled. 47. Statements: The condition of the roads at many places has deteriorated due to heavy rain, resulting in slow movement of vehicular traffic. Courses of action: I. Motorists should be alerted at various places by putting up signboards about the bad patches on the roads to enable them to plan their journey accordingly. II. All these parts of the roads should immediately be repaired by closing these roads. 48. Statements: A large number of people are expected to gather at site X on this Sunday and this may put strain on civic amenities.

Paper- II. Mathematics Directions (Q. 51-55): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 51. 7.12% of 8500 – 3.6% of 5500 = 1.6% of ?

52.

53.

(1) 25410

(2) 25420

(4) 25440

(5) 25450

13 17

of

12 19

of 47% of 40375 = ? x 6

(1) 1525.5

(2) 1527.5

(4) 1529.5

(5) 1530

4608 ?

(3) 25430

(3) 1528.5

?

= 𝟓𝟐𝟎𝟐

(1) 4816

(2) 4848

(4) 4896

(5) 1904

(3) 4872

54. (142.8 ÷ 2.4) x 7.5 ÷ 0.15 = ? (1) 2725

(2) 2850

(4) 3025

(5) 3150

(3) 2975

1

55. (7.2)3.2 x (7.2) ÷ (51.84)-1.8 x (51.84)-1.2 = (7.2)? (1) 2.4 (4) –2.4

(2) 2.8 (3) –1.2 (5) None of these

Directions (Q. 56.60): What approximate value will place of the question mark (?) in the following equations?

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56. 447.75 ÷ 28 x 4.99 = ? (1) 60

(2) 70

(4) 80

(5) 75

(3) 72

57. (3.5)2 x 19.25 + ? = 275 (1) 15

(2) 20

(4) 28

(5) 40

(3) 30

58. 85% of 225 + 32.91 x 5.01 = ? (1) 340

(2) 355

(4) 345

(3) 375

(5) 370 2

59. (15.96) + 75% of 285=? (1) 435

(2) 485

(4) 420

(5) 470

(3) 440

60. 679 ÷ 14.95 x 5.02 = ? (1) 540

(2) 525

(4) 565

(5) 520

(3) 545

Directions (Q. 61-65): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series? 61. 3 10 32 100 ? (1) 345 (2) 460 (3) 308 (4) 440 (5) None of these 62. 5 3 4 ? 38 (1) 8.5 (2) 6 (3) 7.5 (4) 8 (5) None of these 63. 5 6 ? 57 244 (1) 21 (2) 16 (3) 17 (4) 15 (5) None of these 64. 3 10 21 ? 51 (1) 34 (2) 32 (3) 33 (4) 25 (5) None of these 65. 5 11 ? 55 117 (1) 21 (2) 27 (3) 23 (4) 25 (5) None of these Directions (Q. 66-70): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer. (1) if X > Y (2) if X ≥ Y (3) if X < Y (4) X ≤ Y (5) if X = Y or not relation can be established between X and Y. 66. I. X2 – 2x – 15 = 0 II. y2 + 5y + 6 = 0 67. I. X2 – x – 12 = 0 II. Y2 – 3y +2 = 0 68. I.

x – 169 = 0

69. I. X2 – 32 = 112 70. I. X2 – 25 = 0

II. Y2 – 169 = 0 II. Y - 256 = 0 II. Y2 – 9y +20 = 0

Directions (Q.71-75): Each of these questions consists of a question followed by information in three statements. You have to study the question and the statements and decide that information in Which of the statement(s) is/are necessary to Answer the question. 71. What is the area of a hall? I Material cost of flooring per sq mt. is 250. II Labour cost of flooring the hall is 3,500 III Total cost of flooring the hall is 14,500 (1) I and II only (2) II and II only (3) All I, II and III (4) Any two of the three (5) None of these 72. What was the percentage of discount offered? I Profit earned by selling the article for 252 after giving discount was 52. II Had there been no discount the profit earned would have been 80. III Had there been no discount the profit earned would have been 40%. (1) I and II only (2) II and eight I or III only (3) I and III only (4) I and either II or III only (5) None of these 73. What is the speed of a train? I The train crosses a signal pole in 13 sec. II The train crosses a platform of length 250 m in 27 seconds. III The train crosses another train running in the same direction in 32 seconds. (1) I and II only (2) I and III only (3) II and III only (4) Any two of the three (5) None of these 74. What is the population of state A? I After an increase in the population of state A by 15% it becomes 1.61 lakhs. II Ratio of population of state A to that of state B is 7 : 8. IIIPopulation of state B is 1.6 lakhs. (1) I only (2) II and III only (3) I and II only (4) Either only I or II and III together (5) None of these 75. How many workers are required for completing the construction work in 10 days? I 20% of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 8 days. II 20 workers can complete the work in 16 days. III One-eight of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 5 days. (1) I and III only (2) II and III only

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3) I only (4) III only (5) Any one of the these 76. An urn contains 9 red, 7 white and 4 black balls. If two balls are drawn at random, find the probability that both the balls are red. 17

1) 95 91

4) 190

18

2) 95

1

3) 12

5) None of these

77. Sudharshan invested 15,000 at interest @10 p.c.p.c.a. for one year. If the interest is compounded every six months what amount will Sudharshan get at the end of the year? (1) 16,537.50 (2) 16,500 (3) 16,525.50 (4) 18,150 (5) None of these 78. Ratio of the earnings of A and B is 4 : 7. If the earnings of A increase by 50% and the earnings becomes 8 : 7. What are A’s earnings? (1) 26,000 (2) 28,000 (3) 21,000 (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these 79. ‘A’ can complete a piece of work in 12 days. ‘A’ and ‘B’ together can complete the same piece of work in 8 days. In how many days can ‘B’ alone complete the same piece of work? (1) 15 days (2) 18 days (3)24 days (4) 28 days (5) None of these 80. The profit after selling a pair of trousers for 863 is the same as the loss incurred after selling the

same pair of trousers for 631. What is the cost price of the pair of trousers? (1) 750 (2) 800 (3) 763 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 2

81. Farah got married 8 years ago. Today her age is 1 7 times her age at the time of her marriage. At present her daughter’s age is one-sixth of her age. What was her daughter’s age 3 years ago? (1) 6 years (2) 4 years (3) 3 years (4)Cannot be determined (5) None of these 82. On a test consisting of 250 questions, Jassi answered 40% of the first 125 questions correctly. What per cent of the other 125 questions does she need to answer correctly for her grade on the entire exam to be 60%? (1) 75 (2) 80 (3) 60 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 83. Excluding the stoppages, the speed of a bus is 64 km/ hr and including the stoppages the speed of the bus is 48 kms/hr for how many minutes does the bus stop per hour? (1) 12.5 minutes (2) 15 minute (3)10 minutes (4) 18 minutes (5) None of these

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Directions (84-88): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions which follow: Number of items (in thousands) Manufactured (M) Rejected (R) and Sold (S) by Five different companies over the year Company

A

B

C

D

E

Year

M

R

S

M

R

S

M

R

S

M

R

S

M

R

S

2001

136

1.2

125

98

0.5

90

165

3.5

158

158

1.5

149

85

0.6

80

2002

164

1.7

138

115

1.1

102

172

2.9

166

169

1.9

162

96

0.8

90

2003

148

1.5

136

152

2.6

132

169

2.3

160

173

2.3

168

88

0.5

83

2004

158

2.2

145

147

1.8

140

178

3.2

172

166

2.1

159

102

0.9

98

2005

168

2.5

160

138

1.3

129

158

1.8

152

159

2.0

150

86

0.7

81

2006

175

2.8

168

158

2.2

148

148

2.4

171

171

2.4

165

105

0.8

101

Note: No. of item accepted = No. of items manufactured – No. of items rejected. 84. What is the percentage (rounded off to two digits after decimal) of item rejected out of the total Directions (Q.89-93): Study the following table to items manufactured by company B in the year answer the given questions. 2003? Number of books of different prices (1) 1.97 (2) 1.71 (3) 1.82 Bought in different months (4) 1.96 (5) None of these 85. How many items remained unsold out of the accepted items by Company A in 2004? Month Jul Jan Mar May Sep Nov (1) 800 (2) 880 (3) 8000 Price y (4) 8800 (5) None of these More than 50 106 2 30 25 75 86. What is the total number of items accepted by all 5000 the five companies together in 2002? 10 100 4000- 5000 40 105 400 375 (1) 707600 (2) 77600 (3) 10760 5 0 (4) 776000 (5) None of these 3000– 3999 70 100 80 115 200 240 87. Approximately, what was the average no. of items rejected by Company D for all the given years? 30 21 12 (1) 2100 (2) 2060 (3) 2090 2000– 2999 500 100 300 0 6 5 (4) 1990 (5) 2030 14 22 17 88. What was the total number of items 1000- 1999 370 200 470 0 5 5 manufactured by all the companies together in 20 40 2006? 500 - 999 700 15 75 530 0 0 (1) 582000 (2) 827000 (3) 789000 18 (4) 595000 (5) None of these Less than 500 65 135 111 25 65 8

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89. In which month was maximum number of books bought? (1) March (2) November (3) July (4) September (5) None of these 90. For which price range was maximum number of books bought of the given months together? (1) 500 - 999 (2) 2000 – 2999 (3) 1000 - 1999 (4) 3000 – 3999 (5) None of these 91. The books of price range 1000 – 1999 bought in January is what per cent of that in May? (1) 30 (2) 70 (3) 142.86 (4) 60 (5) None of these 92. How much is the difference in the number of books bought in September and November? (1) 244 (2) 776 (3) 1020 (4) 1310 (5) None of these 93. What is the ratio of books of 4000 – 5000 brought in January to that in March? (1) 1 : 10 (2) 15 : 100 (3) 390 : 2911 (4) 21 : 200 (5) None of these Directions (94-98): Following line graphs show the percentage profit of Company ’A’ and net profit (in Rs. Lakh) of Company ‘B’ during the period 2000-05. % profit of Company A

60

Net profit of Company B

55

50 40 In lakh

50

48 35

40

40 32

30

Part- III. English

25

30 20 20

(1) 8 lakh (2) 10 lakh (3) 12 lakh (4) 14 lakh (5) 16 lakh 96. If the income of company ‘A’ was Rs. 60 lakh in year 2003 then the net profit of company ‘A’ is what percentage of the net profit of ‘B’ in year 2003? (1) 37.5% (2) 42.5% (3) 62.5% (4) 75.5% (5) 87.5% 97. If in the year 2005 the incomes of ‘A’ and ‘B’ were equal to Rs. 78 lakh then what is the difference (in Rs.) between their expenditures in 2005? (1) 2 lakh (2) 4 lakh (3) 6 lakh (4) 8 lakh (5) 10 lakh 98. If the income of company ‘A’ in the year 2002 was 111 lakh then the net profit of ‘A’ in year 2002 was how much percentage more than the net profit of company B in the year 2003? (1) 7.5% (2) 10% (3) 12.5% (4) 15% (5) 17.5% 99. Two fifth of a number is 182. What will 48% of that number be? 1) 236.6 2) 218.4 3) 209.3 4) 200.2 5) None of these 100. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator is increased by 300%, the resultant fraction is 15/26. What was the original fraction? 1)8/10 2) 10/11 3) 9/13 4) 10/13 5) None of these

25

12

10 0 2000

2001

2002

2003

2004

2005

94. If the expenditure of ‘A’ in the year 2000 was Rs. 35 lakh then what is the ratio of the net profits of company ‘A’ and ‘B’ in 2000? (1) 3 : 4 (2) 5 : 4 (3) 6 : 5 (4) 7 : 6 (5) 8 : 7 95. If in year 2001, the income of company ‘A’ was Rs. 62 lakh and that of company ‘B’ was Rs. 72 lakh then what was the difference (in Rs.) between their expenditures in that years?

Directions (101-115): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words in the phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. “Modern life is full of frustrations And most of us do not seem to be able to respond philosophically to it. We are prone to losing our tempers. Anger seems as much a part of life today as bad driving and traffic jams,” says Button in the third documentary on philosophy: A guide to happiness. “We find one ancient philosopher who was particularly concerned with anger and wanted to calm people down. He was born in Cordoba province of Spain in the year AD 180. His name was Seneca. The author of more than 20 books on all aspects of life, Seneca

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came to Rome and became influential here. He was the most popular and famous philosopher of his day. But that does not mean his life was free from frustration. He was naturally a melancholic man …. And he lived in very dangerous times of despotic, violent and unpredictable rulers.” In 49 AD he had to take on, against his will, the most fateful job in the imperial administration: tutor a 12-year-oldboy, the future emperor Nero. “it soon become apparent that Nero was a murderous psychopath. Knowing he was in danger, Seneca attempted to withdraw from court. He offered his resignation twice. The emperor Nero refused nothing in Seneca’s experience encouraged him to believe Nero. When he embraced him tightly and he would not harm him, that he would actually not,” says Botton. Botton takes you on a virtual tour of the underground chambers where Nero, who wielded absolute power, perpetrated utmost cruelty on his countrymen. Botton enumerates them, painfully. That is why, he says, Seneca felt the urgency to tame tempers. “it was because the consequences of anger were so great that Seneca was desperate to assuage them,” says botton. “Seneca dedicated a whole book to the subject titled ‘on anger’. The most hideous and frenzied of all emotions, he called it, but crucially he refused to see it as an irrational outburst, something over which we had no control. Anger arose because of some rationally held ideas about the world, and the problem with these ideas is that they are far too optimistic. Seneca said people get angry because they are too hopeful. Whenever we get angry there is an element of surprise, self-pity and injustice. Seneca’s first advice is to be more pessimistic so that we adjust our view of the world so that we are less surprised when reversal occur, also if we accept that we are less likely to be able to do something about them, we will lose it less often.” Seneca said that we want the world in our way; that cannot be. Like a dog on a leash, we have some freedom, not all. And like a dog on a leash it is better to know the length of your leash. So Seneca says our freedom comes from knowing what we can do to acquire an attitudinal change. “Seneca believed prosperity fostered bad tempers. The wealthier you are the more expectations you have,” says botton, who goes on to talk of how surprises can also throw your temper off balance. “So

he recommends a calm dally meditation on how things can go wrong.” That makes you more popular between the things you can change and that which you cannot. Seneca believes we often overestimate our capacity to change things. “in order to remind us constantly of just how many things he outside of our control he invoked goddess fortune. She holds the cornucopia. Which was a symbol that she would bestow the best in life. In the other hand she had a darker object, the rudder, a reminder of her power to shift our destiny for the worse. She is a symbol of everything we must accept…. The good and bad.” Botton ends with shorts of pomp ell where destiny run her course of hot lava without man’s permission and the story of how Seneca was ordered to kill himself by Emperor Nero. Seneca did so with forltude, giving life to his beliefs in his death. 101. Which of the following is incorrect about anger? Give your answer on the basis of facts mentioned in the given passage? (1) Anger arises because of some rationally held optimistic ideas about the world. (2) It is an irrational outburst over which we have no control. (3) It is the most frenzied and hideous of all emotions. (4) Whenever we get angry there exist elements of injustice, surprise and self-pity. (5) It can be controlled by practicing yoga and meditation. 102. Which of the following is/are the precise features of modern life? Give your answer in the context of the passage. (A) Modern life is replete with frustrations and angers. (B) Due to scientific development there are lots of things around us that can give mental peace and pleasure of life. (C) Most of us do not deliberate on the reasons of frustrations philosophically and thus anger becomes an integral part of life. (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only a and C (4) Only A and B (5) All A, B and C 103. Based on the facts mentioned in the passage, how can we control our anger? (1) By taking an oath that whatever the situation be we will not get angry

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(2) By being more pessimistic (3) By accepting that we are not able to do everything (4) Only B and C (5) Only A and B 104. Find the correct statement on the basis of the given passage. (A) According to Seneca, prosperity brings in bad tempers. (B) Surprised can throw your temper beyond control go wrong. (C) It is better to meditate over things on how they can go wrong. (1) All A, B and C (2) Only B and C (3) Only A and C (4) Only A and B (5) Only B 105. What are the reasons of our getting angry? (1) When we do not get adequate hours of sleep we get angry. (2) When the world does not go our way we get angry. (3) When we do not have sufficient resources necessary for living a happy life we get angry. (4) When we feel cheated by somebody we get angry. (5) All the above 106. Which of the following is true about Nero? Select the correct option on the basls of the given passage. (1) Nero got tuition from Seneca at the age of 12. (2) He assured Seneca of not harming him, which he did not believe. (3) He was a murderous psychopath. (4) He did not accept the resignation of Seneca. (5) All the above 107. Which of the following statements correctly reflects the character of Nero? (1) Nero was a benevolent ruler. (2) He was a great scholar of his time and wrote a book titled on anger. (3) He was the perpetrator of cruel acts his countrymen. (4) He was the emperor of Rome. (5) All the above 108. Select the correct statements about Seneca: (A) Seneca has the credit of writing more than 20 books on all aspects of life.

(B) Though he was most popular and famous philosopher of his day his life was not free from frustrations. (C) He lived in the times of very generous rulers. (1) All A, B and C (2) Only A and B (2) (3) Only B and C (4) Only A and C (5) Only B 109. What did Seneca do to remind us constantly of just how many things lie beyond our control? (1) He invoked goddess fortune. (2) He wrote a book titled on anger. (3) He held discussions with scholars over there to find some solutions easily acceptable to all. (4) He started an open discourse. (5) None of the above Directions (110-112): Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning as the word printed in BOLD as used in the passage. 110. Prone (1) affirm (2) prosaic (3) likely (4) sober (5)reasonable 111. Invoked (1) pleaded (2) revoked (3) provoked (4) rewarded (5) challenged 112. Wielded (1) left (2) used (3) discarded (4) collected (5) threw Directions (113-115): Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in BOLD as used in the passage. 113. Assuage (1) dissuade (2) persuade (3) lessen (4) aggravate (5) diminish 114. Hideous (1) covered (2) hidden (3) shocking (4) apparent (5) pleasing 115. Melancholic (1) sad (2) lonely (3) buoyant (4) addicted (5) tiresome Directions (116-125): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error, in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation; if any.) 116. They understood how just a twitch, a shuffle, smirk or a glare on stage or screen (1)/ can give audiences

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more insight (2)/ into the impenetrable depths of a personality (3)/ than a thousand -word dialogue.(4)/ No error (5) 117. Gone are the days (1)/ when people used to (2)/ plan and save for years before buying (3)/ the bigticket items they aspired for.(4)/ No error (5) 118. To be eligible for a loan (1)/ you need to have a (2)/ regular source of income-salary, (3)/ business or any occupation.(4)/ No error (5) 119. Women tend to outlive their spouses, (1)/ which makes it important for them (2)/ to save money in instruments that will help them (3)/ build corpse to last a lifetime.(4)/ No error (5) 120. Success at work should not carry a disproportionate price tag (1)/ whereby we end up souring relationships (2)/ with our family members and friends (3)/ which matter to us.(4)/ No error (5) 121. Yesterday a thief (1)/ broke into (2)/ my house but (3) he could not steal anything.(4)/ No error (5) 122. Most women undermine themselves (1)/ by thinking that they are not qualified enough,(2)/ or they haven’t worked before or their husband (3)/ won’t like it if they worked. (4)/ No error (5) 123. In case you cannot be office on time, (1)/ call in your senior (2)/ at least an hour earlier and inform (3)/ that you are going to be late.(4)/ No error (5) 124. Please expect that life will (1)/ not be easy once (2)/ you make up the decision (3)/ to take up a career.(4)/ No error (5) 125. Financial planning for women is tricky considering (1)/ they have to take career breaks for (2)/ a variety of reasons such as marriage, child-birth,(3)/ and looking after kids or the elder.(4)/ No error (5) Directions (126-130): The following questions consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You are given six words as answer choices and from the six choices you have to pick up two correct answers, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete. 126. After a rather long ………………… of more than three years since 2008 after the global crisis, the equity markets have made a remarkable comeback this year. (A) time (B) interruption (C) gap (D) discussion (E) hiatus (F) performance (1) A and D (2) B and C (3) E and F (4) C and E (5) D and F

127. With favorable demographics translating into growth dividend and high savings rate, we believe that Indian has a lot of potential in the longer term to ……………. 7-8 per cent real GDP growth rate. (A) create (B) generate (C) make (D)achieve (E) raise (F) hike (1) A and B (2) B and D (3) C and F (4) B and E (5) D and E 128. In our view, domestic macro environment is much better compared to the emerging markets …………………….. who are facing sharper impact of the global slowdown (A) peers (B) trends (C) regulators (D) environments (E) patterns (F) players (1) F and B (2) D and E (3) A and F (4) C and E (5) D and E 129. The beauty of section 80c of the income tax act is the wide array of financial instruments that qualify for tax …………………within it. (A) exemptions (B) deductions (C) relief (D) claims (E) calculations (F)rebate (1) C and E (2) A and D (3) B and E (4) B and D (5) B and F 130. The large-cap growth orientation of the scheme ………………. That equity allocation is in some of the biggest companies with strong financials and business. (A) affirms (B) assures (C) secures (D) insures (E) ensures (F) concedes (1) A and E (2) B and D (3) C and F (4) D and F (5) A and F Directions (131-135): Rearrange the following six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. A. They got the car out of the puddle. B. As he was leaving, he asked the two men, “what do you do for your living?” C. The car owner, out of gratitude, pulled out a hundred-rupee note and gave it to them, saying, “you are very good people.” D. While driving on a dirt road, a man’s car got stuck in puddle. E. They replied, “This is what we do. F. The man asked two people sitting by the field for help.

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G. After you leave, we are going to pour more water on the dirt track, create another puddle and wait for the next car.” 131. Which of the following should be the FIRST ? Sentence after rearrangement? (1) F (2) D (3) G (4) C (5) B 132. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ? (1) G (2) C (3) D (4) F (5)A 133. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ? (1) C (2) B (3) A (4) G (5) E 134. Which of the following should be the LAST (SEVENTH) sentence after rearrangement ? (1) B (2) C (3) A (4) D (5) G 135. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ? (1) B (2) A (3) C (4) D (5) G Directions (136-140): Below is given a single word with options to its meaning in different contests. You have to select all those options which are synonyms of the word when the context is changed. Select the correct alternative from (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) which represents all those synonyms. 136. Copious (A) ample (B) debased (C) supporter (D) prudent (1) Only A (2) Both C and D (3) Both B and D (4) Only D (5) All A, B, C and D 137. Nefarious (A) conspicuous (B) wicked (C) ambiguous (D) mischievous (1) Only A (2) Only A (3) Both A and C (4) Both B and D (5) All A, B and D 138. Haven (A) eternal (B) refuge (C) protection (D) paradise (1) All A, B, C and D (2) Both A and C (3) Both B and C (4) Only D (5) Both A and D 139. Despise (A) scorn (B) scoff (C) jeer (D) sneer (1) Only A (2) Both A and B (3) Only A, B and D (4) Only C

(5) All A, B, C and D 140. Diminish (A) destroy (B) uproot (C) finish (D) wane (1) Only D (2) Only C (3) Both A and B (4) Only A, B and C (5) All A, B, C and D Directions (Q. 141-150): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which is indicated by a numbered. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful. For a woman, marriage (141) a lot of ‘new’ things –new home, new relationships, new routines and much more. (142) all the new things she is (143) to, one is (144) household expenses. As mukesh Dedhia, director, Ghalla and Bhansall securities, (145) it; “most Indian girls, before marriage, (146) with their parents, who take care of all the household expenses of the family. As a result, the girls remain (147) about running a house.” This is the (148) why after marriage when they are to (149) their marital home, they (150) they would make a mistake. 141. (1)requires (2) means (3) defines (4) has (5) gives 142. (1) beside (2) after (3) because (4) among (5) for 143. (1) introduced (2) brought (3) given (4) addressed (5) made 144. (1) cutting (2) maintaining (3) managing (4) having (5) meeting 145. (1) keeps (2) thinks (3) decide (4) says (5) puts 146. (1) fight (2) stay (3) learn (4) talk (5) come 147. (1) cautious (2) innocent (3) confident (4) clueless (5) firm 148. (1) reason (2) cause (3) thing (4) belief (5) myth 149. (1) reform (2) make (3) run (4) repair (5) carry 150. (1) believe (2) think (3) find (4) marvel (5) fea

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Paper-IV COMPUTER, MARKETING & GA 151. SEBI allows retail Investors to apply for shares of IPO without actual transfer of their funds from their accounts. What is this facility is known as(1) Systematic Transfer Plan (2) Systematic Investment Plan (3) Hedge Fund Account (4) ASBA (5) None of these 152. Currency swap is an instrument to manage(1) Currency Risk (2) Interest rate risk (3) 1 & 2 (4) Cash flow in different currency (5) All of these 153. A bank normally does not have to deal with an issue related to(1) Payment and settlements system (2) Contractual rights of creditors (3) Intellectual property rights (4) Cases of insolvency (5) None of these 154. Increase in remittances from NRI suggests(1) Increase in BOP(Balance of Payment) deficit in India (2) Reduces BOP deficit in India (3) Has no effect on BOP (4) All of these (5) None of these 155. Bank loan against property requires the asset to be free from encumbrances. What does this mean? (1) The asset to be free from any liability (2) The asset to be properly registered (3) The property to be fully constructed (4) The asset should not have multi users (5) None of these 156. Gold Exchange Traded funds are considered to be investor friendly and is thus being actively promoted. In what way does the investor benefit? (1) It is traded daily on the stock market (2) Is safe and convenient to maintain (3) There is no doubt about purity (4) All of these (5) None of these 157. For which of the following reasons, NABARD has set up a Joint Liability Group(JLG) of farmers? (1) To facilitate delivery of credit to farmers (2) To facilitate better delivery of credit to farmers through informal sources (3) To facilitate better delivery of credit to share croppers and those who do not have their own land

(4) All of these (5) None of these 158. There are many security features which are regularly being explained and stressed to check against forged currency notes. One of them is intaglio printing. What is it? (1) It is specialized printed of Rs. 1000 and Rs. 500 denomination currency notes (2) It is raised printing on the currency notes of RBI seal, Ashok Pillar emblem etc. (3) It is printed in special printing press of RBI (4) It is printed with special inks of the security features currency notes (5) None of these 159. MICR in cheque has how many digits? (1) 9 digits (2) 11 digits (3) 12 digits (4) 6 digits (5) None of these 160. The time resolution of customer complaints in banks has been reduced to 7 days from……….. days. (1) 10 days (2) 12 days (3) 15 days (4) 20 days (5) 1 month 161. ATM operated by Non-Banking entities are called(1) Brown level ATM (2) Blue level ATM (3) White level ATM (4) Yellow level ATM (5) None of these 162. Recently IRDA relaxed the limit for reinsurance cover from a foreign reinsurer. What is reinsurance? (1) Again getting a company insured over and above its earlier insurance in order to mitigate risk still remaining if any (2) A company taking insurance cover from two different insurance companies (3) A company taking insurance cover from a foreign insurance companies (4) Insurance for an insurance company (5) None of these 163. 4G LTE is a standard for wireless communication of high speed data for mobile phones and data terminals. What does “LTE” stand for(1) Light Weight Technology Evolution (2) Low Terminal Exchange (3) Long Term Evolution (4) Light Weight Technology Experience (5) None of these 164. Some banks have to write-off advances given. The term Write-off means?

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(1) Loans already sanctioned no provision for the same so the borrower cannot use the loan (2) Big corporate loan for which bank have to take approval from RBI (3) Loan for which documentation work is incomplete (4) Bad and uncollectable loan (5) None of these 165. “Third party ATM usage” will now be restricted to certain withdrawals and limits only. What does this mean? A. ATM cardholders will not be able to withdraw from other banks ATMs under any circumstances B. customers of one bank may be able to withdraw only a limited amount from other bank ATMs C. ATM card holders will have to pay a fee if they withdraw money from other banks ATMs (1)Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) B & C (5) A & C 166. The daily processing of corrections to customer accounts best exemplifies the processing mode of(1) Batch processing (2) Real-Time processing (3) Interactive processing (4) Multi processing (5) All of the above 167. Which is a unit of measurement used with computer system(1) Byte (2) Kilobyte (3) Megabyte (4) Gigabite (5) All of the above 168. A character is represented in EBCDIC by(1) One bit (2) Four bits (3) Eight bits (4) Sixteen bits (5)None of the above 169. Which is a secondary memory device? (1) CPU (2) ALU (3) Floppy Disk (4) Mouse (5) None of the above 170. Which is the computer memory that does not forget? (1) ROM (2) RAM (3) PROM (4) All of the above (5) None of the above 171. The most common Binary code in use today is the 8 bit ASCII code. What do the letter ASCII stand for? (1) American Standard Code for International Interchange (2) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

(3) American Standard Code for Intelligence Interchange (4) American Scientific Code for Information Interchange (5) None of the above 172. What Excel tool allows you to create quickly and automatically summary data from a large data set? (1) Conditional formatting (2) Sorting (3) Pivot table (4) Field list (5) None of these 173. When creating a custom filer in Excel, which of the following would not be considered a Boolean operator? (1) IF (2) AND (3) OR (4) All the above (5) None of these 174. Which of the following will not protect you from spam? (1) Spam blockers (2) E-mail rules (3) pop-up blocker (4) Filters (5) None of these 175. A………………..’s main purpose is to prohibit unauthorized access to the computer via the Internet. (1) pop-up bloker (2) Firewall (3) Spyware bloker (4) Spam assassian (5) Restore file 176. To read the system message and warnings, access the…………………….. in windows. (1) System manager (2) Control Panel (3) Event viewer (4) Message screen (5) None of these 177. Which is the central point of marketing concept? (1) Large scale organization (2) Production on large scale (3) Profit (4) Customer (5) All of these 178. The aim of successful marketing is(1) To increase the sales (2) To increase the profit (3) To increase the output of sellers (4) All of the above (5) None of these 179. Customization means(1) Adding more customers (2) Customers selling goods (3) Unhappy customers (4) Tailor made products for each customer (5) All of these 180. A prospect means(1) A rude person (2) A polite person

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(3) A likely buyer (4) A religious head (5) A team leader 181. Marketing skills are tested by(1) Buying more (2) Selling more (3) Paying more (4) Talking more (5) All of these 182. A target market isd(1) Entire country (2) Entire city (3) Entire globe (4) That which consist of customers who need the identified product (5) All of these 183. A true marketing mindset requires(1)Command and order mindset (2) Control mindset (3) Active mindset (4) Passive mindset (5) None of these 184. “Value added services” implies(1) Additional knowledge of marketing staff (2) Service beyond normal hours (3) Service with extra facilities (4) Marketing agencies (5) Overtime work 185. Who propounded the theory of 4 P’s of marketing? (1) Stanton (2) Philip Kotler (3) McCarthy (4) All of these (5) None of these 186. Which of the following is the element of marketing mix? (1) Selling (2) Costing (3) Creating (4) Product (5) All of these 187. In case of saving deposits in a bank, the user status will be of a bank? (1) Second customer (2) Regular customer (3) Potential customer (4) First time depositor (5) All of these 188. Who is the new CM of rajasthan? (1) Margret Alva (2) Ashok gahlot (3) Vasundara raje (4) Jai lalita (5) None of these 189. Which country gets first gay prime minister? (1) Turkey (2) Luxemberg (2) Ethopia (3) Saudi Arabia (5) None of these 190. “World tourist day”- observed on(1) 24 September (2) 25 September (3) 26 September (4) 27 September (5) None of these 191. ‘Happy Happy Happy’- is authored by(1) Gulzar (2) Asim choudhary (3) Sowan choudhary (4) Mark Sklwakh

(5) None of these 192. Who has won China Open Tennis tournament 2013 in women’s single category? (1) Jalena Jankovic (2) Sania mirza (3) Cara black (4) Victoria Azarenka (5) Serena Williams 193. According to PMEAC Economic outlook India’s Economic growth rate in 2013-14 will be(1) 4.3% (2) 5.3% (3) 6.3% (4) 7.3% (5) None of these 194. Infosysis launched new version of banking solution(1) Finacle 11 (2) Finacle 12 (3) Finacle 13 (4) Finacle 10 (5) None of these 195. Maharashtra has launched which scheme for rape victims? (1) sahanseel Scheme (2) Abla scheme (3) Nirbhaya Scheme (4) Manodhairya (5) None of these 196. KSE-100 is the stock exchange of which country? (1) Pakistan (2) Indonesia (3) Canada (4) Singapore (5) Malaysia 197. Indian navy on 6th NOV inducted the fourth generation advanced jet trainer aircraft named as(1) INS Vikramaditya (2) INS Saryu (3) INS sunayna (4) Hawk-132 (5) None of these 198. Which committee has been appointed to examine the current monetary Policy framework? (1) Nachiket Mor (2) Mukul mudgal (3) N. rangachary (4) Urjit patel (5) None of these 199. Which country will host next common wealth summit in 2015? (1) Colombo (2) Johansberg (3) Malta (4) Russia (5) None of these 200. Bengal govt. Lifetime Achievement award has been given to(1) Sourav Ganguly (2) Leander paes (3) Subhash Bhowmik (4) Both 1 & 2 (5) None of these

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