I. Reasoning Directions (Q. 1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below: Seven people N, K, T, B, M, W and R have their weekly offs on different days of the week, ie Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday and Saturday, not necessarily in that order. Each of them has a liking for different cuisine, ie Indian, Italian, Mexican, Chinese, Spanish, Continental and Thai, not necessarily in that order. K likes Thai food and gets his weekly off on Thursday. B likes Italian food and does not have off on Sunday. M has weekly off on Saturday and R has his weekly off on Tuesday. W likes continental food whereas the one who has weekly off on Monday likes Mexican cuisine. T does not like Spanish cuisine and has weekly off on Wednesday. The one who likes Indian food does not have a weekly off on Tuesday or Wednesday. 1. Who has a weekly off on Friday? (1) T (2) R (3) W (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these 2. What cuisine does R like? (1) Continental (2) Indian (3) Italian (4) Spanish (5) None of these 3. On which day does N have weekly off? (1) Tuesday (2) Friday (3) Monday (4) Sunday (5) None of these 4. Who likes Chinese cuisine? (1) T (2) B (3) R (4) N (5) None of these 5. On which day does W have weekly off? (1) Monday (2) Sunday (3) Wednesday (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these 6. In a row of 22 children facing North, Seema if shifted to her right by four places becomes eighteenth from the right end of the row. Sudhakar, who is fifteenth from the left end of the row, is fifth to the left of Seema. How many children are there in the row? (1) 42 (2) 38 (3) 41 (4) 39 (5) None of these 7. If E is replaced by 2, R by 5, T by 7, D by 3, S by 4, 1 by 6 and N by 9 then how is RESIDENT written if its letters are reversed? (1) 79326425 (2) 79236425 (3) 52463927 (4) 54263927 (5) None of these 8. If the middle digit of each of the following numbers is increased by 2 and then the digits of each number are written in reverse order, which

number will be the fourth if arranged in descending order? 236 358 478 566 843 (1) 236 (2) 843 (3) 566 (4) 358 (5) 478 9. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the sixth and the seventh letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the third letter of that word? If more than one such word can be formed, give ‘D’ as the answer, and if no such word can be formed, give ‘N’ as the answer. (1) E (2) D (3) T (4) A (5) N 10. If ‘P’ denotes ‘divided by’; ‘Q’ denotes ‘added to’ ‘M’ denotes ‘subtracted from’; ‘B’ denotes ‘multiplied by’; then 18 B 12 P 4 M 8 Q 6 =? (1) 108 (2) 46 (3) 17 (4) 52 (5) None of these Directions (Q, 11-15): In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, and then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement. Given answer. 1) If only conclusion I follows 2) If only conclusion II follows 3) If either I or II follows 4) If neither I nor II follows, and 5) If both I and II follow 11. Statements: The Central government has filed a case against 142 companies, which had folded up their business without meeting the legal obligations. Conclusions: I. While starting and closing their business almost every company in India does not go through the legal formalities. II. The concerned government departments are trying to fulfill their responsibilities related to “vigilance” so that other companies also get the clear message. 12. Statements: There has been growing demand for greater powers to meet the increased responsibilities of the councilor in the All-India Councilors Conference. Conclusions:

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I. People are made after powers; they want both money and power. II. The post of councilors should not be merely ornamental. 13. Statements: In order to bring about a major growth in commercial transactions with India and encourage bilateral trade relations. France has announced a bilateral treaty related to multipurpose projects. Conclusions: I. India is also willing to strengthen its dealing and trade with France. II. Every country should develop commercial relations with others. 14. Statements: yes, I know honesty is the primary concern for discharging the duties of a police officer and my officers are aware of this – Statement of police commissioner of city S. Conclusions: I. The statement of police commissioner of city S is absolutely right. II. The statement of police commissioner of city S is not absolutely right. 15. Statements: The Electricity Board of State X has given ultimatum to the farmers to either regularize their electric connection by the end of June 2000 or face the legal procedure. Conclusions: I. The Electricity Board of state X has failed to provide regular connection to the farmers. II. As the farmers of state X have small farms they don’t need electricity for agriculture. Directions (Q. 16-20): In each question below there are given three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. 16. Statements: Some fruits are flowers. No flower is a boat. All boats are rivers. Conclusions: I. Some fruits are rivers. II. Some rivers are boats. III. Some rivers are fruits. IV. Some flowers are fruits. (1) All of the above (2) II and IV only (3) I and III only (4) II and III only (5) None of these

17. Statements: Some buses are horses. All horses are goats. All goats are dogs. Conclusions: I. Some dogs are buses. II. Some dogs are horses. III. Some dogs are goats. IV. Some buses are goats. (1) None of the above (2) I and II only (3) II and III only (4) III and IV only (5) All of the above 18. Statements: Some chairs are buildings. All buildings are vehicles. Some vehicles are trucks. Conclusions: I. Some chairs are trucks. II. Some chairs are vehicles. III. Some vehicles are buildings. IV. No truck is a building. (1) None of the above (2) II and III only (3) Either only I or II and III and IV (4) Either only I or IV and II and III (5) All of the above 19. Statements: All doors are windows. All houses are windows. Some window is soaps. Conclusions: I. Some doors are house. II. Some houses are soaps. III. Some soap is doors. IV. All soaps are windows. (1) None of the above (2) Only I (3) I and III only (4) II and IV only (5) All of the above 20. Statements: Some cruel animals are papers. No paper is tree. All trees are ways. Conclusions: I. No cruel animal is tree. II. Some ways are trees. III. Some papers are cruel animals. IV. Some cruel animals are trees. (1) I and II only (2) II, III and IV only (3) Only either I or IV and III only (4) I, II and III only (5) None of these Directions (Q. 21-25): In making decision about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between “strong” argument and “weak” argument in so far as they related to the question. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. “Weak” arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to

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the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question. Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which of the arguments a “strong” argument is and which is a “weak” argument. (1) If only argument I is strong. (2) If only argument II is strong. (3) If either I or II is strong. (4) If neither I nor II is strong. (5) If both I and II are strong. 21. Should the tenure of the President be longer? Arguments: I. No. The president of India is non-executive head. Therefore, there is no need to extend his tenure. II. Yes. It will provide an opportunity to the President to guide the Government to fulfill the long term objectives. 22. Should there be concentration of foreign investment in only a few States? Arguments: I. No. it is against the policy of the overall development of the country. II. Yes. Because a larger number of States lack infrastructure to attract foreign investment. 23. Should there be a complete ban on opening up of new management educational institutions? Arguments: I. Yes. There are more institution than required and there is no need to open up new institutions. II. No. We need more professional managers in coming days because the future scenario will be very competitive. 24. Should private organizations be allowed to carry on security-related research activities? Arguments: I. No. Private organizations are easily vulnerable to our enemies and therefore should not be permitted to carry on such researches. II. Yes. The government does not have sufficient resources to carry on such researches and the private organizations would manage necessary resources. 25. Should there are recruitment in banks on the basis of past academic performance rather than through competitive examinations? Arguments:

I. Yes, it will be beneficial for those candidates who are unable to bear the expenses of competitive examinations. II. No. The past academic performance cannot be made the basis of recruitment because there is no uniformity in the assessment by the universities. Directions (Q. 26-30): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed of taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumption and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer (1) If only assumption I is implicit (2) If only assumption II is implicit (3) If either I or II is implicit (4) If neither I nor II is implicit (5) If both I and II are implicit 26. Statement: “’Music Loving Club’ has announced a wide variety of programmes by the visiting musicians” – An advertisement. Assumptions: I. A large number of people are interested to get entertainment through the programme. II. The artistes may attract a large number of audiences. 27. Statement: Central Bank, which is the largest bank in the country, has decided to reduce its workforce by 30 per cent so that its banks may work efficiently. Assumptions: I. The Bank can perform all its activities after the reduction in workforce. II. The surplus employees may be asked to adopt early retirement scheme before leaving the bank. 28. Statement: The Principal instructed all the teachers to be carefully in class because some students may disturb other students. Assumptions: I. The teachers may handle the situation properly and they may restrict the naughty students. II. The students will welcome the decision of the Principal. 29. Statement: The State Government has abolished the scheme of providing concessional air ticket to students. Assumptions:

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I. Students will not travel by air in future. II. The students who resort to travel by air can bear the expenses of air ticket. 30. Statement: The police has served a notice to the residents with immediate effect to be careful of the antisocial elements wandering in their areas. Assumptions: I. The local residents may pay heed to this notice. II. The antisocial elements may ply to other areas. Directions (Q. 31-35): In the following questions, the symbols @, #, $, *, and % are used with different meanings as follows: ‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’. ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’. ‘A ★ B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’. ‘A % B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’. ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’ In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give Answer: (1) If only conclusion I is true. (2) If only conclusion II is true. (3) If either conclusion I or II is true. (4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true. (5) If both conclusions I and II are true 31. Statement: L★ P , P % V, V#D Conclusions: I. L★V

II. L$D

32. Statement: V★W, W$H, H@I Conclusions: I. V★I

II. I★W

33. Statement: N@W,

W#H,

Conclusions: I. H%N 34. Statement: F # R,

Conclusions: I. F # L

H%T

II. T#W

H%R,

L★H

II. R @ L

35. Statement: J @ K, K % M, M # T Conclusions: I. K % T

The order of persons, countries and games is not necessarily the same. K represents China for Archery. T represents USA but not for Volleyball or Rifle Shooting. The one who represents Japan competes for Boxing. F competes for Volleyball but not for Korea. L represents Australia for Athletics. The one who represents Russia competes for Tennis. J does not represent Korea or Japan. R competes for Rifle Shooting. 36. Which of the following combinations is correct? (1) J – Tennis – France (2) R – Tennis – Russia (3) R – tennis – France (4) J – Tennis – Russia (5) None of these 37. Who represents Japan? (1) F (2) R (3) J (4) H (5) None of these 38. F represents which country? (1) France (2) Russia (3) Japan (4) Korea (5) None of these 39. The one who competes for Rifle Shooting, represents which country? (1) France (2) Korea (3) Japan (4) USA (5) None of these 40. For which game does T compete? (1) Boxing (2) Football (3) Tennis (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these Directions (Q. 41-45) Study the following information to answer the given question. A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

II. K @ T

Directions (Q. 36-40): These questions are based on the following information. Study it carefully and answer the questions. Seven members L, H, K, T, F, J and R represent different countries in Olympics, viz, USA, China, Korea, France, Russia, Australia and Japan, each one competes for a different sport, viz. volleyball, Archery, Rifle Shooting, Tennis, Boxing, Athletics and football.

Input: yellow 7 green 14 2 clear to 23 own 18 under 19 44 Step I: 27green 14 clear to 23 own 18 under 19 44 yellow Step II: 2 23 7 green 14 clear to own 18 19 44 under yellow Step III: 2 23 14 7 green clear own 18 19 44 to under yellow Step IV: 2 23 14 19 7 green clear 18 44 own to under yellow Step V: 2 23 14 19 18 7 clear 44 green own to under yellow Step VI: 2 23 14 19 18 7 44 clear green own to under yellow

Step VI is the last step of the above rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above step, find out in each or the following questions the appropriate step for the input given below. Input: virus 11 inter 52 16 arm keep 47 wind 22 quick 31 66 luck

41.Which of the following would be the last step? (1) IV (2) V (3) VI (4) VII (5) None of these 42.Which of the following is step IV?

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(1) 16 47 22 31 52 11 arm 66 inter keep luck quick virus wind (2) 16 47 22 31 11 inter 52 arm 66 keep luck quick virus wind (3) 16 47 22 11 31 inter 66 keep 52 arm luck quick virus wind (4) 16 22 31 47 11 arm 52 inter keep luck quick Virus wind (5) None of these. 43.Which of the following element would be at the 8th position from the right in step V? (1) 11 (2) arm (3) 66 (4) Inter (5) None of these 44. In step V and VI of the rearrangement, if ‘arm’ is related to ‘11’ and ‘keep’ are related to ‘inter’ in a certain way, which of the following would ‘quick’ be related to following the same pattern? (1) Keep (2) Luck (3) Virus (4) 66 (5) None of these 45. In step III the rearrangement, if ‘52’ is related to ‘keep’ and ‘arm’ is related to ‘31’ in a certain way, which of the following would ‘66’ be related to, following the same pattern? (1) quick (2) virus (3) luck (4) arm (5) None of these Directions (Q. 46–50): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answers— (1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question; (2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the questions; (3) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question; (4) If the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question. (5) If the data in either statement I alone or the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question; 46. Towards which direction is Q from R? I. Q is exactly to the east of M. II. M is exactly to the south of R. 47. Who among P, Q, R, S and T is the heaviest? I. Q is heavier than R and T but lighter than only S.

II. R is third from the top when they are arranged in descending order of their weight and is heavier than T and P. 48. On which day of the week did Sohan visit Chennai? I. Sohan returned to Hyderabad from Chennai on Thursday. II. Sohan left Hyderabad on Monday for Chennai. 49. How many daughters does M have? I. P and Q are the only daughters of N. II. D is brother of P and son of M. 50. How is ‘now’ written in a code language? I. ‘now and then’ is written as ‘ka da ta’ in that code language. II. ‘then you come’ is written as ‘da ma pa’ in that code language.

II. Mathematics Directions (Q. 51-55): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? 51. 3 x ? + 30 = 0 (1) -15

(2) 15

(3) 10

(4) -30

(5) None of these

52. 40.83 x 1.02 x 1.2 = ? (1) 49.97592

(2) 41.64660

(4) 42.479532

(5) None of these

1

3

1

53. 33 ÷ 6 7 x 1 2 x

54.

22 7

(3) 58.7952

=? 22 7

5

(1) 4.4

(2)

(3) 22

(4) 40.5

(5) None of these

1.5625 = ? (1) 125

(2) 12.5

(3) 1.05

(4) 1.25

(5) None of these

55. 3978 + 112 x 2 = ? ÷ 2 (1) 8180

(2) 2101

(3) 4090

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(4) 8404

(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 56-61): What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? 56. 2959.85 ÷ 16.001 – 34.99 = ? (1) 160

(2) 150

(4) 180

(5) 170

(3) 140

57. (1702 ÷ 68) x 136.05 = ? (1) 3500

(2) 3550

(4) 3400

(5) 3525

(3) 3450

6

(2) 350

(4) 360

(5) 400

(3) 380

59. 25.05% of 2845 + 14.95 x 2400 =? (1) 36700

(2) 36500

(4) 35600

(5) 36200

(3) 35800

60. (186 x 270.99) ÷ 40 =? (1) 1160

(2) 1200

(4) 1180

(5) 1260

(3) 1300

61. 424.99 x 23.95 ÷ 8.05 = ? (1) 1300

(2) 1225

(4) 1275

(5) 1375

4

(1) 31

58. 2950 ÷ 12.25 + 160 =? (1) 440

(3) 36 years (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 66. The compound interest accrued on an amount at the end the three years at 15 p.c.p.a. is 6500.52. what is the amount? (1) 12480 (2) 10500 (3) 14800 (4) 13620 (5) None of these 67. Mohan decides to attend to some urgent work on a particular day in the month of August 2008. What is the probability that the day chosen by Mohan to attend to this work is a Saturday?

(3) 1325

62. In how many different ways can the letters of the word PUNCTUAL be arranged? (1) 64 (2) 40320 (3) 960 (4) 20160 (5) None of these 63. The diameter of a circle is equal to the perimeter of a square whose area is 3 1 3 6 sq cm. what is the circumference of the circle? (1) 352 cm (2) 704 cm (3) 39424 cm (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 64. In a three-digit number the digit in the unit’s place is twice the digit in the ten’s place and 1.5 times the digit in the hundred’s place. If the sum of all the three digits of the number is 13, what is the number? (1) 364 (2) 436 (3) 238 (4) 634 (5) None of these 65. The average of the ages of Sumit, Krishna and Rishabh is 43 years and the average of the ages of Sumit, Rishabh and Rohit is 49 years. If Rohit is 54 years old, what is Krihna’s age? (1) 45 years (2) 24 years

(4)

2

(2) 31

1 9

(3) 15

(5) None of these

68. A and B together complete a piece of work in T days. If A alone completes the work in T +3 days and B alone completes the piece of work in T + 12 days, what is T? (1) 3 days (2) 12 days (3) 9 days (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 69. The value of machine depreciates at the rate of 12 per cent per annum. It was purchased three years ago. Its present value is Rs. 29644.032, what was the purchase price of the machine? (1) Rs 48700 (2) Rs. 43500 (3) Rs. 38900 (4) Rs. 39000 (5) None of these 70. While selling a watch, a shopkeeper gives a discount of 15%. If he gives a discount of 20%, he earns Rs 51 less as profit. What is the original price of the watch? (1) Rs 920 (2) Rs 985 (3) Rs. 1125 (4) Rs. 1020 (5) None of these Directions (Q. 71-75): In each of the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number. 71. 2 3 6 18 109 1944 209952 (1) 3

(2) 6

(4) 109

(5) 1944

72. 1

3

6

11

(1) 3

(2) 39

(4) 20

(5) 6

73. 2

13 27 113

20

561

(2) 27

(4) 561

(5) 3369 56

39

70

(3) 11

(1) 13

74. 50 51 47

(3) 18

3396

23581

(3) 113

42

65

29

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(1) 51

(2) 47

(4) 42

(5) 65

75. 3

9

23

99

(3) 56

479

(1) 9

(2) 23

(4) 479

(5) 2881

2881

20159

(3) 99

Directions (Q. 76-80): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below: Number and percentage of Candidates Qualified in a competitive Examination Number of Candidates appeared in a Competitive Examination from Five Centres over the years Number

Centere → Year ↓ 2001

Mumbai

Delhi

Kolkata

Hyderabad

chennai

35145

65139

45192

51124

37346

2002

17264

58248

52314

50248

48932

2003

24800

63309

56469

52368

51406

2004

28316

70316

71253

54196

52315

2005

36503

69294

69632

58360

55492

2006

29129

59216

64178

48230

57365

2007

32438

61345

56304

49178

58492

Approximate Percentage of Candidates Qualified to Appeared in the Competitive Examination from Five Centres over the Years Mumbai Delhi Kolkata Hyderabad Chennai 12 24 18 17 9 10 28 12 21 12 15 21 23 25 10 11 27 19 24 8 13 23 16 23 13 14 20 21 19 11 16 19 24 20 14 76. In which of the following years was the difference in number of candidates appeared from Mumbai over the previous year the minimum? (1) 2004 (2) 2006 (3) 2007 (4) 2002 (5) None of these

77. In which of the following years was the number of candidates qualified from Chennai the maximum among the given years? (1) 2007 (2) 2006 (3) 2005 (4) 2003 (5) None of these 78. Approximately what was the total number of candidates qualified from Delhi in 2002 and 2006 together? (1) 27250 (2) 25230 (3) 30150 (4) 28150 (5) 26250 79. Approximately how many candidates appearing form Kolkata in 2004 qualified in the competitive examination? (1) 13230 (2) 13540 (3) 15130 (4) 15400 (5) 19240 80. Approximately what was the difference between the number of candidates qualified from Hyderabad in 2001 and that in 2002? (1) 1680 (2) 2440 (3) 1450 (4) 2060 (5) 1860 Directions (Q. 81-85): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and given answer. (1) If the data in statement (I) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (II) alone are not sufficient. (2) If the data in statement (II) alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement (I) alone are not sufficient. (3) If the data either in statement (I) alone or in statement (II) alone are sufficient to answer the question. (4) If the data both in the statements (I) and (II) together are necessary to answer the question. (5) If the data even in both the statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient to answer the question. 81. By selling a product at 20% profit, how much profit was earned? I. The difference between cost and selling price is Rs. 40 II. The selling price is 120 per cent of the cost price. 82. A train crosses another train running in the opposite direction in x seconds. What is the speed of the train?

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I. Both the trains have the same length and are running at the same speed. II. One train crosses a pole in 5 seconds. 83. What is a two-digit number? I. The difference between the two digits is 9. II. The sum of the digits is equal to the difference between the two digits. 84. A spherical ball of radios x cm in melted and made into a right circular cylinder. What is the height of the cylinder? I. The volume of the cylinder is equal to the volume of the ball. II. The area of the base of the cylinder is given. 85. The area of a square is equal to that of a circle. What is the circumference of the circle? I. The diagonal of the square is x inches. II. The side of the square is y inches. Directions (Q. 86.90): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions which follow: Total number of children in six different schools and the percentage of girls in them

Number of Children 3500 3000 2500 2000 1500 1000 500 0 P

Q

R

S

T

86. What is the total percentage of boys in schools R and U together? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal) (1) 78.55 (2) 72.45 (3) 76.28 (4) 75.83 (5) None of these 87. What is the total number of boys in school T? (1) 500 (2) 600 (3) 750 (4) 850 (5) None of these 88. The total number of students in school R is approximately what percent of the total number of students in school S? (1) 89 (2) 75 (3) 78 (4) 82 (5) 94 89. What is the average number of boys in schools P and Q together? (1) 1425 (2) 1575 (3) 1450 (4) 1625 (5) None of these 90. What is the respective ratio of the number of girls in school P to the number of girls in school Q? (1) 27 : 20 (2) 17 : 21 (3) 20 : 27 (4) 21 : 17 (5) None of these Directions (Q. 91-95): Study the following chart to answer the question given below: % population below Village poverty line A 45 B 52 C 38 D 58 E 46 F 49 G 51 Proportion of population of seven villages in 1995

U G 15%

School Percentage of Girls

B 16%

F 13%

50 45 40 35 30 25 20 15 10 5 0

E 18%

P

Q

R

S

School

A 13%

T

U

C 8% D 17%

91. In 1996, the population of villages A as well as B is increased by 10% from the year 1995. If the population of village A in 1995 was 5000 and the percentage of population below poverty line in 1996 remains same as in 1995, find approximately

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the population of village B below poverty line in 1996. (1) 4000 (2) 4500 (3) 2500 (4) 3000 (5) 3500 92. If in 1997 the population of village D is increased by 10% and the population of village G is reduced by 5% from 1995 and the population of village G in 1995 was 9000. What is the total population of villages D and G in 1997? (1) 19770 (2) 19200 (3) 18770 (4) 1970 (5) None of these 93. If in 1995 the total population of the seven villages together was 55,000 approximately, what will be population of village F in that year below poverty line? (1) 3000 (2) 2500 (3) 4000 (4) 3500 (5) 4500 94. If the population of village C below poverty line in 1995 was 1520, what was the population of village F in 1995? (1) 4000 (2) 6000 (3) 6500 (4) 4800 (5) None of these 95. The population of village C is 2000 in 1995. What will be the ratio of population of village C below poverty line to that of the village E below poverty line in that year? (1) 207:76 (2) 76:207 (3) 152:207 (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these Directions (Q. 96-100): Study the tables carefully to answer the questions that follow: Number of candidates (in lakh) appears in an entrance examination from six different cities and the ratio of candidates passing and failing the same. City A B C D E F Number of 1.25 3.14 1.08 2.27 1.85 2.73 Candidates Ratio of candidates passing and failing within the city City Passing Failing A 7 3 B 5 3 C 4 5 D 1 3 E 3 2 F 7 5 96. What is the ratio of the number of candidates failing the exam from City D to that of those failing the exam from City A? (1) 289 : 42 (2) 42 : 289 (3) 227 : 50 (4) 50 : 227 (5) None of these

97. The number of candidates appearing for the exam from City C is what per cent of the number of candidates appearing for the exam from City B? (rounded off to the nearest integer) (1) 27 (2) 34 (3) 42 (4) 21 (5) 38 98. The number of candidates passing in the exam from City F is what percent of the total number of candidates appearing from all the cities together? (rounded of the two digits after the decimal) (1) 12.93 (2) 14.46 (3) 10.84 (4) 11.37 (5) None of these 99. Which city has the highest number of students failing the entrance exam? (1) F (2) C (3) B (4) D (5) None of these 100. What is the number of candidates passing the exam from City E? (1) 13,000 (2) 11,10,000 (3) 1,13,000 (4) 11,000 (5) None of these

III. English Directions (Q. 101-115): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. Agriculture dominates change in India through its causal link with factor and product markets. It employs 60 per cent of The labour force and contributes 26 per cent to the gross domestic product. In the poorer states. Its contribution to the domestic product is close to 40 per cent. Low productivity in agriculture has led to the concentration of the poor in this sector. Due to the sheer size of the agricultural economy and the importance of its major products (cereals) in the diets of the poor, gains in agricultural productivity have significant potential impact on poverty. Theoretically, it is possible to reduce poverty as well as expand the domestic market for industry by raising labour productivity in agriculture and spreading its gains among the low income groups. Modeling of the linkages between agriculture and industrial growth has shown that a 10 per cent increase in agricultural output would increase industrial output by 5 per cent and urban workers would benefit by both increased industrial employment and price deflation. However, there is an asymmetry of adjustments in the demand and supply of agricultural goods. An increase in non-

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agricultural production would lead to an immediate increase in demand for intermediate and final agriculture goods, whereas supply-side adjustments involving re-allocation of resources and net additional investment for capacity expansion take a much longer period. There is a widely held view that in a large country like India, the demand stimulus for industrialization would come mainly from agriculture with less social and economic costs. Interdependencies in food and labour market are important for the development process. An upward shift in the food supply curve would simultaneously result in an upward shift in the labour demand curve. The magnitude of the interdependence depends on the technique of production causing the shifts in the food supply curve. Similarly, an upward shift in the labour supply curve shift up the food demand curve. The extent of interdependence between the forces of labour supply and food demand depends on the employment-output elasticity and the income elasticity of demand for food. The recent estimate of the employment output elasticity in agriculture is around 0.5, income elasticity of food is in the range of 0.55-0.60 and that for cereals is 0.25-0.30. the other important interdependency, which plays a crucial role in inducing indirect employment, is that between food and other sectors through demand linkages. Since food accounts for a major share in the budget of the poor and any reduction in the price leaves a significant proportion of income for other items, a lower food price stimulates employment in industrial and service sectors. On the other hand, an increase in the food price would increase the wage costs of industrial products and hence the prices of industrial products. In the absence of adjustments through exports, it would result in demand deficiency. Clearly, the most favorable situation in India is one in which labour demand outpaces its supply and food supply outpaces it demand. Wage rates cannot fall below a certain minimum determined by the costs of subsistence living and the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate. Demographic pressure cannot push the wage rate below the subsistence level. People would be willing to starve rather than work unless the energy expended in physical work is compensated by the energy provided by food. Food grain price usually determines the subsistence wage rate in agricultural as well as in the urban informal

sector since food grains account for about four-fifth of the calorie intake of the poor. 101. Which of the following, according to the passage, signifies influence of agricultural products on poverty? (A) Higher labour productivity in agriculture reduces poverty. (B) Agricultural products are the main constituent of the food of the poor. (C) Agriculture output spurs industrial growth which ultimately helps the poor. (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only (3) (a) and (c) only (4) All (a), (b) and (c) (5) None of these 102. Which of the following, according to the passage, benefits the urban workers from increased agricultural production? (A) Urban workers get agricultural products at a cheaper rate. (B) Urban workers get more job offers in the agricultural sector. (C) Urban workers get more job offers in the industrial sector. (1) None (2) (a) and (b) only (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a) and (c) only (5) All (a), (b) and (c) 103. Which of the following has the same meaning as the word ‘sheer’ is used in the passage? (1) simple (2) Undiluted (3) Mere (4) Outright (5) Unassisted 104. Which of the following has the same meaning as the word ‘deflation’ as used in the passage? (1) Reduction (2) Index (3) Inflation (4) Improvement (5) Diffusion 105. Which of the following is meant by “the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate‘’’ as used in the passage? (1) People refuse to work at the minimum wage rate (2) People still work at the minimum wage rate (3) People are eager to work at the minimum wage rate (4) People are eager to work at the minimum wage rate (5) None of these 106. Which of the following statements is not ture in the context of the passage? (1) Increase in labour producity in agriculture can reduce poverty

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(2) Agricultural sector can provide the impetus for greater industrialization at lower cost (3) Increase in food supply will increase the demand for labour forces (4) Concentration of low income group people is relatively higher in the non-agricultural sector (5) All are true 107. Which of the following in addition to employment-output elasticity, according to the passage, creates indirect employment? (1) Interlinkage of demand of food and other sectors (2) Interdendence of forces of labour supply and food demand (3) Income elasticity of demand for food (4) All of these (5) None of these 108. Which of the following, according to the passage, can lead to demand deficiency in India? (1) Widespread import of food grains (2) Oversupply of agricultural products (3) Increase in prices of industrial products (4) Foresight in gauging the demand-supply of labour (5) None of these 109. Which of the following, according to the passage, will be the result of increase in non-agricultural production? (A) Increase in demand for non-agricultural products (B) Increase in demand for intermediate agricultural products (C) Increase in final agricultural products (1) Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (b) and (c) (3) Only (a) and (c) (4) Only (b) (5) All (a), (b) and (c) 110. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘interdependence’ as used in the passage? (1) Correlated (2) Dependence (3) Independence (4) Relativity (5) Interrelated 111. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘elasticity’ as used in the passage? (1) Flexibility (2) Brittleness (3) Rigidity (4) Adamancy (5) Peculiarity 112. Which of the following, according to the passage, is the cause for increase in food supply? (1) Less demand by the industrial sector

(2) Bumper food production due to adequate monsoon (3) Change in technique of food production (4) Not mentioned in the passage (5) None of these 113. The wage rate of which of the following sector is dependent on the food grain price? (A) Agricultural sector (B) Informal urban sector (C) Organised urban sector (1) (a) only (2) (b) only (3) (c) only (4) (a) and (b) only (5) All (a), (b) and (c) 114. Why, according to the passage, lower food price stimulates employment in industrial and service sectors? (1) Poorer people cannot affords to buy nonfood products (2) Lower price of food items provides the poor with extra funds to buy other products and services (3) the production cost of non-agricultural products and services reduces (4) Industrial sector can afford to employ more people at lower cost (5) None of these 115. Which of the following, has the same meaning as the word ‘causal’ as used in the passage? (1) causal (2) precursor (3) effective (4) causing (5) experiencing Directions (Q. 116-120): Select the single word or phrase from 1 to 4 which means most nearly the same as the given alternative phrase. If that not the answer, select item 5 following. 116. Accidental solving of a crime (1) investigation (2) detection (3) sixth sense (4) serendipity (5) None of these 117. A traveler through the universe (1) filibuster (2) cosmonaut (3) astronaut (4) aeronautics (5) None of these 118. One who uses ugly, illegible words (1) photographer (2) cacographer (3) sonographer (4) artist (5) None of these 119. Informal expression used in everyday conversation (1) socialism (2) synopsis (3) colloquialism (4) social (5) None of these 120. Letter which is not claimed by anyone

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(1) manuscript (2) alphabet (3) vowel letter (4) dead letter (5) None of these Directions (Q. 121-130): In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. In (121) of constitutional guarantees relating to equality of opportunity and various other guarantees of equality before the law, the social and economic (122) of women, especially of poor women in India, is well-known. We are referring mainly to the poor rural women who have little or no assets and who (123) the bulk of the female population in rural areas. It is not as if only poor rural women get fewer wages or suffer from social (124) because they belong to a particular community. Even at higher levels of the socio-economic hierarchy among the well-to-do groups, women are not (125) to men. Among the economically (126) sections of society, women’s proper place is (127) to be the home. In rural areas, women of (128) status families, normally do not go out to work. In the (129) value system, there is a gradation of economic activities, which is (130) in the socioeconomic status of the family. Thus, if the women of the family do manual labour in the fields, it denotes low status. Women earning a living, or supple minting their family income through economic activities like stitching, garmentmaking, or some handicraft work, are also considered low because it clearly shows that their family is poor and they are forced to make ends meet. It is considered right and proper for a woman to cook, sew and take up activities like pickle-making for her own family. But, if she were to earn a wage through these same activities, it denotes poverty and also, often, low socio-economic status. 121. (1) support (2) spite (3) contrast (4) wake 122. (1) condition (4) deprivation

(5) view (2) prosperity (5) value

123. (1) constitute

(2) deploy

(4) define

(5) exploit

124. (1)status (1) Ignorance

(3) progress

(2) service

(3) measure

(3) indifference

125. (1) dedicated (2) Responsible 126. (1) marginal (3) Affordable 127. (1) entitle (4) debated 128. (1) economic (4) higher 129. (1) unequal (3) appropriate

(2) accountable

(3) equal

(5) antagonistic (2) significant

(3) well-off

(5) dependable (2) decided

(3) indicated

(5) considered (2) appropriate (3) ample (5) social (2) prevailing (4) commendable

(5) deplorable 130. (1) reflected (4) considered

(2) exempted

(3) barred

(5) neglected

Directions (Q. 131-135): In each of these questions, there are three sentences given as A, B and C. Find out which two or three sentences convey the same meaning. If all the three sentences are different, mark 5 as the answer, i.e. ‘all different’. 131. (A) The Manager would like you to help him l ocate the fault. (B) If you help him locate the fault, the Manager would like you. (C) The Manager desires that you should provide him the necessary assistance to locate the fault. (1) A and B (2) B and C (3) A and C (4) All the three (5) All different 132. (A) Although the strike of transporters continues, I shall come. (B) I shall come if the strike of transporters continues. (C) Even though I come, the strike of transporters is going to continue. (1) A and B (2) B and C (3) A and C (4) All the three (5) All different 133. (A) Unlike the tribal who are hardworking, the urban communities cannot withstand physical strain. (B) The tribals can withstand physical strain whereas urban communities cannot. (C) Because the tribals are hardworking they can tolerate physical strain. (1) A and B (2) B and C (3) A and C (4) All the three (5) All different

(5) discrimination

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134. (A) Should you need a visa you must submit an application along with your passport and a copy of income tax returns. (B) Unless you do not submit an application along with your passport and copy of income tax returns, you will not get visa. (C) If you submit your application along with your passport and a copy of income tax returns you do not need visa. (1) A and B (2) B and C (3) A and C (4) All the three (5) All different 135. (A) The judge remarked that not all the accused were really guilty. (B) The judge remarked that some of the accused were guilty while others were not. (C) The judge remarked that all those who are accused include some who are not really guilty. (1) A and B (2) B and C (3) A and C (4) All the three (5) All different Directions (Q. 136-140): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error, in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation; if any.) 136. As I reached the hospital (1)/ I had found, a great rush of visitors (2)/ whose relatives had been admitted there (3)/ for one or the other ailment.(4)/ No error (5) 137. One should study the history (1)/ of his country because it alone can satisfy (2)/ one’s natural curiosity to know (3)/ what happened in the past. (4)/ No error (5) 138. It is interesting to note (1)/ that the greatest lines in poetry are simple (2)/ and yet there is with them some quality (3)/ which makes them outstandingly great (4)/ No error(5) 139. In order to make human life happy,(1)/ man should live (2)/ as far as possible (3)/ in perfect harmony with nature. (4)/ No error (5) 140. You have heard (1)/ of Socrates, I suppose.(2)/ Undoubtedly he was one (3)/ of the greatest man of the world.(4)/ No error (5) Directions (Q. 141-145): Rearrange the following seven sentences A, B, C, D, E, F and G in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. (A) It takes its recourse to progressive march towards perfection.

(B) But one may conclude, while science is inclined towards reason; spiritualism is the essence of religion. (C) In religion, deviation from the set course is permissible though some more rationalistic religious leaders also allow questioning and their satisfactory answers. (D) Many people believe that science and religion are contrary to each other. (E) The tools of religion on the other hand are faith, intuition and the spoken words of the enlightened. (F) The method of science is observation, experiment and experience. (G) There is no doubt that the methods of science and religion are different. 141. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence? (1) F (2) E (3) D (4) B (5) G 142. Which of the following will be the FOURTH SENTENCE? (1) B (2) A (3)D (4) F (5) C 143. Which of the following will be the LAST sentence? (1) C (2) A (3) D (4) B (5) E 144. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence? (1)C (2) B (3)D (4) F (5) A 145. Which of the following will be the SIXTH sentence? (1) C (2) F (3)A (4) G (5) D Directions (Q. 146-150):- Pick out the most effective pair of words from the given pair of words to make the sentences meaningfully complete. 146. When interpersonal problems …………….. but are not dealt with, the organisation’s productivity inevitably ………………….. . (1) Surface ….develops (2) focus ….increases (3) Establish ….projects (4) develop…exhibits (5) Exist….diminishes 147. Participative management, in which everyone has ……………… in a decision that a leader then makes, is a mechanism for ………………. Employees. (1) Share…protecting (2) Value…thwarting (3) Motivation…involving (4) Reward …… stimulating (5) input…empowering

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148. Lack of …………… is basic to good teamwork but our ability to work with others depends on our ……………. . (1) rigidity…compatibility (2) dogmatism…motivation (3) professionalism…vulnerability (4) positivism…flexibility (5) consideration…acumen 149. Complete and constant openness is a notion that can be ……………… to absurdity. Am I …………. To stop everyone on the street and tell them my reaction to their appearance? (1) consigned…communicated (2) reduced…required (3) attributed…requested (4) projected…destined (5) subjected…confined 150. When organisations ………. Creativity and risktaking, the usual method of maintaining order and ……………… are indeed shaken. (1) encourage…decorum (2) exhibit…durability (3) propose…humility (4) enhance…supply (5) Propagate…production

IV. G.A/Computer/Marketing 151. Net National product at Market Price is equal to ______ (1) GNP at Factor Price minus Depreciation (2) GNP minus subsidies (3) NDP at Market Price minus earnings from abroad (4) GNP at Market Price minus depreciation (5) None of these 152. The prices of commodity will increase if in the increase in demand is __________ (1) less than the increase in supply (2) more than the increase in supply (3) less than decrease in supply (4) more than decrease in supply (5) None of these 153. Which of the following is not a Financial/Economic term? (1) Marginal Utility (2) Dumping (3) Pipette (4) Break Even Point (5) None of these 154. What is the full form of FIMMDA? (1) Fined Income More Money Derivatives Authority (2) Fixed Income Measuring Money Dumping Association

(3) Fixed Income Money Market and Derivatives Association (4) Fixed Initial Money Market Development Authority (5) None of these 155. An organisaiton which pools money from investors & invests in stock. Bonds, shares is called _________ (1) Bancassurance (2) A Bank (3) Insurance Company (4) Mutual fund (5) None of these 156. Which of the following term in related with Economy? (1) Absolute Zero (2) Amplitude (3) Soft patch (4) Buoyancy (5) None of these 157. Which of amongst the following is not the aim of Debt Management? (1) Stabilizing prices (2) Social service fund (3) Proper timing & issuing of government bonds (4) Cost effective services (5) None of these 158. When RBI wants to reduce liquidity in the banking system(A) it increase the CRR (B) it increases the SLR (C) it increases the Repo Rate (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) All A, B and C (5) None of these 159. Negotiated Dealing System Relates to – (A) Trading at stock markets (B) Settlement of security dealings (C) Trading in government securities (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) All A, B & C (5) None of these 160. If RBI increases the Repo Rate then it will result in(A) Reduction of cost to borrowers on loans from banks (B) Increase in cost of borrowing by banks from RBI (C) Reduction in cost of borrowing by banks from RBI (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) All A, B & C (5) None of these 161. The term convertible debentures means(1) it is the debenture which is issued as a ‘bonus issue’ to the holders. (2) it is the debenture which after a specified time is converted to equity (3) it is the debenture issued by a company with the intention to buy it back after a specified time gap.

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(4) these are debentures issued to the main promoters of a company (5) None of these 162. The key challenge to market driven strategy is (1) selling maximum products (2) Employing maximum DSAs (3) Delivering superior value to customers (4) being rigid to changes (5) None of these 163. Effective selling skills depends on (1) size of the sales team (2) Age of the sales team (3) Peer strength (4) Knowledge level of the sales team (5) Educational level of the sales team 164. Generation of sales leads can be improved by (1) Being very talkative (2) increasing personal and professional contacts (3) being passive (4) Engaging Recovery Agents (5) Product designs 165. A market plan is (1) Performance Appraisal of marketing staff (2) Company Prospectus (3) Documented marketing strategies (4) Business targets (5) Call centre 166. Marketing channels mean (1) Delivery objects (2) Sales targets (3) Delivery outlets (4) Delivery boys (5) Sales teams 167. Social Marketing means (1) Share market prices (2) Marketing by the entire society (3) Internet Marketing (4) Marketing for a social cause (5) Society by laws 168. Service Marketing is the same as (1) Internet Marketing (2) Telemarketing (3) Internet marketing (4) Relationship Marketing (5) Transaction Marketing 169. Market-driven strategies include (1) Identifying problems (2) Planning marketing tactics of peers (3) Positioning the Organisation and its brands in the marketplace (4) Internal marketing (5) Selling old products

170. Online Marketing is the function of which following? (1) Purchase Section (2) Production Department (3) IT Department (4) Designs Section (5) A collective function of all staff 171. Customisation is useful for (1) Designing customer specific products (2) Call centres (3) Publicity (4) Motivating the staff (5) Cold calls 172. Who won the Australian open little 2014? (1) Lina (2) Victoria Azarenlea (3) S. Williams (4) Dominika cibulkoua (5) None of these 173. National voters day is observed on (1) 15th Jan (2) 25th Jan (3) 23rd Jan th (4) 27 jan (5) None of these 174. Who won the best debut (Male) award at the 59th film-fare awards(1) Aditya roy Kappor (2) Raj kumar roy (3) varun dhawan (4) dhanush (5) None of these 175. UN projected the economic growth rate of India for the year 2014 at – (1) 5.35% (2) 6.35% (3) 4.25% (4) 4.50% (5) None of these 176. Amul launches India’s 1st Milk ATM in which state? (1) Gujarat (2) Maharastra (3) Delhi (4) M.P (5) None of these 177. Recently Iran clinched a deal with 6 world power to curb nuclear activities which of the following is not a party of it? (1) USA (2) France (3) Russia (4) Japan (5) None of these 178. Recently a public sector bank has launched Aspire a platinum credit card which offers interest free credit facility for 55 days against fixed deposits the bank is (1) Union bank of India (2) Central bank of India (3) Bank of India (4) Canara Bank (5) None of these 179. Who designed the ‘inverted red triangle’ symbol family planning compaign in India? (1) Dharmendra Kumar Tyagi (2) DAVP (3) WHO (4) MCI (5) None of these

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180. Nelesson Mandela who died recently, fought against? (1) apartheid (2) Communalism (3) foreign rule (4) All of the above (5) None of these 181. Labour Ministry has relaxed investment norms for retirement fund manager EPFO which can’t invest in (1) Equity market (2) Debt securities by banks (3) Debt securities issued by financial (4) All of these (5) None of these 182. Which Public sector bank of India has allowed withdraw of up to Rs. 1000 from any shop/ trader with a POS terminal? (1) IDBI (2) PNB (3) SBI (4) BOB (5) None of these 183. Who has been Selected for the ‘Cricketer of the year’ 2013 by ICC? (1) Virat Kohli (2) M.S. Dhoni (3) Michal Clark (4) Kumar Sangakara (5) None of these 184. The United Nations has declared the year 2014 as ‘The International Years’ of (1) Family Planning (2) wildlife conservation (3) Water Conservation (4) Child Education (5) None of these 185. What is a popular program for creating documents that can be read on both a PC and a Macintosh computer? (1) Microsoft Word (2) Adobe In Design (3) Adobe Acrobat (4) QuarkXPress (5) None of these 186. What type of software creates a smaller file that is faster to transfer over the Internet? (1) MPEG (2) Unzipped (3) Fragmentation (4) Compression (5) None of these 187. The world's first truly cross-platform programming language is called: (1) C++ (2) Java (3) Visual Basic.NET (4) Smalltalk (5) None of these 188. The most widely used type of database management system is the: (1) Flat database (2) Network database (3) Relational database (4) Hierarchical database (5) None of these 189. What is the newest type of database, which is well suited for multimedia applications, called? (1) Object-oriented database

(2) Client/server database (3) Data warehouse (4) Multimedia database (5) None of these 190. What do the circles on a data flow diagram represent? (1) Data sources and destinations (2) Data flows (3) Transformation processes (4) Data stores (5) None of these 191. The type of printer that prints by selectively unchanging static electricity from spots on a metal drum is a(n): (1) A. Plotter (2) Dot-matrix printer (3) Laser printer (4) Ink-jet printer (5) None of these 192. A warm boot in older versions of Windows is caused by: (1) Typing the Alt+ Tab key combination (2) Selecting Hibernate or Standby when shutting down (3) Typing the Ctrl+ Alt+ Delete key combination (4) Pressing the power switch (5) None of these 193. Setting fonts for the text in your document is an example of: (1) Formatting (2) Formulas (3) Tracking changes (4) Tools (5) None of these 194. ____________ is the file system used by the operating system to identify the physical locations of files on the hard drive. (1) RTOS (2) GIF (3) FAT (4) POST (5) None of these 195. A server uses _________applications software to support its client computers. (1) back-end (2) front end (3) Programming (4) java (5) None of these 196. What does the XP stand for in Windows XP? (1) Exponential (2) Experience (3) Expertise (4) Exchange (5) None of these 197. Which symbol is used in Excel to denote exponential numbers? (1) * (2) ^ (3) & (4) $ (5) None of these 198. Which of the following is NOT a source of viruses? (1) Diskettes (2) The Internet (3) E-mail messages (4) Computer networks (5) None of these 199. Which printer type is an impact printer? (1) Page printers (2) Laser printers

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(3) Ink-jet printers (4) Dot-matrix printers (5) None of these 200. What type of software must to be used to translate scanned text into a format that can be manipulated? (1) OCR (2) CRT (3) RGB (4) MIDI (5) None of these

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