SỞ GD&ĐT YÊN BÁI TRƯỜNG THPT HOÀNG QUỐC VIỆT (Đề thi gồm: 04 trang)
ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017 Môn: TIẾNG ANH – Đề số 01 Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Họ và tênthí sinh:……………………………………. SBD:…………………… Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. muddy B. punctual C. studious D. culture Question 2: A. determine B. examine C. valentine D. heroine Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. purchase B. project C. protect D. produce Question 4: A. rhinoceros B. concentrate C. comfortable D. literature Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 5: Don't be concerned about your mother's illness; she'll recover soon. A. surprised at B. worried about C. embarrassed at D. angry with Question 6: The yearly growth of the gross national product is often used as an indicator of a nation's economy. A. annual B. irrefutable C. tentative D. routine Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 7: After Senator Smith announced that he planned to run for president, the telephone at campaign headquarters rang continuously. A. endlessly B. inceasingly C. incisively D. constantly Question 8: Perhaps more than anything else, it was onerous taxes that led to 'the Peasants' Revolt in England in 1381. A. burdensome B. heavy C. easy D. light Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9: For the first time in the history of the country, the person who recommended by the president to replace a retired justice on the Supreme Court is a woman. A. is B. a retired justice C. to replace D. who recommended Question 10: It is interested to compare the early stylized art forms of ancient civilizations with the modern abstract forms of art. A. ancient B. interested C. early stylized D. with Question 11: Humans have done great advances in technology at the expense of the environment. A. have done B. at the expense C. advances D. humans Question 12: There was a gradual raise in the number of literate males and females in the Lowlands. A. in the Lowlands B. was C. raise D. the number of Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 1
Question 13: Having been selected to represent the Association of American Engineers at the International Convention, ____________. A. the members applauded him B. a speech had to be given by him C. he gave a short acceptance speech D. the members congratulated him Question 14: I’m not surprised she changed her mind____________ the last moment. A. on B. at C. in D. for Question 15: The players were cheered by their____________ as they came out of the pitch. A. public B. supporters C. viewers D. audience Question 16: Because of his poor health, it took him a long time to____________ his bad cold. A. throw over B. throw off C. throw away D. throw down Question 17: The hut____________ is said to be haunted. A. at the foot of the hill B. in the foot of the hill C. by the foot of the hill D. with the foot of the hill Question 18: Mrs. Brown had her bicycle____________ yesterday. A. repairing B. repair C. repaired D. be repaired Question 19: They might have told us the way_____________ we hadn’t left in such a hurry way. A. or B. unless C. when D. if Question 20: - Anna: “____________________” - Bob: “I’m glad you enjoyed it. Hope to see you again soon.” A. That’s a great dinner. Thanks a lot. You’ll have to come to our place sometime. B. My uncle is coming soon. Would you like to come to our dinner? C. I highly appreciate for the houses you’ve rebuilt for our village. D. I don’t mind going to the party sometimes but when I know everybody there then I enjoy it. Question 21: The pay was not brilliant but I could____________ and there were many aspects of the job that I enjoyed. A. earn high salary B. do a living C. get high salary D. make a living Question 22: - Linda: “What kinds of music do you like, Mary?” - Mary: “___________________” A. You really guess so. B. Well, I guess I’m really into jazz. C. Hmm, no, I don’t really like Westerns. D. Concert Question 23: - Peter: “Could you fill it up, please? - Ivan: “________________” A. Where? Of course not. B. Not at all. I’ll fill the oil for you. C. Sure. Shall I check the oil as well?” D. Certainly. My job is to fill in the application. Question 24: The university’s programs___________ those of Harvard. A. are second only to B. come second after C. are in second place from D. are first except for Question 25: It was____________ that we decided to stay indoors. A. such a hot day B. so a hot day C. so a day hot D. such a day hot Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks. The steamer Mongolia was built of iron. It was due at eleven a.m. on Wednesday, the 9th of October, at Suez. The Mongolia sailed regularly between Brindisi and Bombay (26)______ the Suez Canal, and was one of the fastest steamers belonging to the company. Two men were walking up and down the dock at Suez (27)______ the crowd of natives and strangers in this fast-growing town. One was the British consul at Suez who was in the (28)______ of watching, from his office window, English ships daily passing to and fro along the great canal. The other was a showing unmistakable sign of impatience, nervously (29)______ up and down, and unable to stand (30)______ for a moment. This was Fix, one of the detectives who had been sent from England in search of the bank robber. It was his task to (31)______ every 2
passenger who arrived at Suez, and to follow up any suspicious (32)______, or anyone who bore a (33)______ to the description of the criminal which he had received two days before from police headquarters at London. "So you say, consul," he asked for the twentieth time, "that this steamer is never (34)______ schedule?" "No, Mr. Fix," replied the consul. "The Mongolia has always been (35)______ of the time required by the company's regulations." Question 26: A. via Question 27: A. within Question 28: A habit Question 29: A. crawling Question 30: A. quiet Question 31: A. see Question 32: A. character Question 33: A. familiarity Question 34: A. behind Question 35: A. before
B. near B. among B. style B. pacing B. motionless B. observe B. man B. correspondence B. before B. after
C. over C. in C. routine C. jumping C. unmoving C. look C. being C. coincidence C. after C. ahead
D. beside D. between D. way D. hopping D. still D. view D. human D. resemblance D. off D. behind
Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Alexis de Tocqueville, the French political scientist, historian, philosopher and politician, is most famous for a four-volume book he wrote called “Democracy in America”. He came to America in 1831 to study the American form of democracy and what it might mean to the rest of the world. After a visit of only nine months, he wrote a remarkable book which is regarded as a classic. De Tocqueville had unusual powers of observation. He described not only the democratic system of government and how it operated, but also its effect on how Americans think, feel, and act. Many scholars believe he had a deeper understanding of traditional American beliefs and values than anyone else who has written about the United States. What is so remarkable is that many of these traits which he observed nearly 200 years ago, are still visible and meaningful today. His observations are also important because the timing of his visit, the 1830s, was before America was industrialized. This was the era of the small farmer, the small businessman, and the settling of the western frontier. It was the period of history when the traditional values of the new country were newly established. In just a generation, some 40 years since the adoption of the U.S. Constitution, the new form of government had already produced a society of people with unique values. He was, however, a neutral observer and saw both the good and bad sides of these qualities. Question 36: What makes Alexis de Tocqueville special? A. His long-ago observations are still visible and meaningful today. B. He wrote about “Democracy in America” C. He named after Alexis de Tocqueville. D. He read the impact of the book “Democracy in America” Question 37: Alexis de Tocqueville’s nationality is____________. A. French B. American C. United States D. France Question 38: What is special about Alexis de Tocqueville? A. He had a deeper understanding. B. He came to America in 1831. C. He had unusual powers of observation. D. He had written about the United States. Question 39: The phrase “these traits” refers to___________. A. observations B. how Americans think, feel, and act C. traditional American beliefs and values D. visible and meaningful observations Question 40: What is the passage primarily about? 3
A. the progress achieved in America within about 40 years after adoption of the U.S. Constitution B. “Democracy in America” C. Alexis de Tocqueville D. the impact of the book “Democracy in America” Question 41: The word “unique” in the passage is closest in meaning to___________. A. clearly identifiable B. outstanding C. unmatched D. positive Question 42: According to the passage, when did de Tocqueville visit America? A. 1831 B. 1830s C. 1831-32 D. 1835 Question 43: The word “neutral” in the passage is closest in meaning to____________. A. impartial B. important C. thorough D. careful Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 44: _________, people buy them. A. As they are expensive B. Because they are expensive C. For they are expensive D. Although they are expensive Question 45: I always kept candles in the house___________ A. in the case that there was a power cut. B. even if there was a power cut. C. in case there was a power cut. D. even though there was a power cut. Mark the letter A, B, c or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions. Question 46: It’s a pity that you didn’t tell us about this. A. I wish you told us about this B. I wish you would tell us about this C. I wish you had told us about this D. I wish you have told us about this Question 47: My brother and I went to that school. A. I went to that school and my brother, too. B. I went to that school and so my brother did. C. I went to that school and so did my brother. D. I went to that school and so my brother did, too. Question 48: Be he rich or poor, she will marry him. A. She doesn’t want to marry him because he is poor. B. She wants to marry him if he is rich. C. She will marry him whether he is rich or poor. D. She will marry him however poor he may be. Question 49: When I met my long-lost brother, I was at a loss for words. A. When the speaker met his brother, he was puzzled about what to say. B. When the speaker met his brother, he had much to say. C. When the speaker met his brother, he refused to say anything. D. When the speaker met his brother, he had nothing pleasant to say. Question 50: Donald could not help weeping when he heard the bad news. A. Donald could not stop himself from weeping at the bad news. B. Donald could not allow himself to weep at the bad news. C. Donald could not help himself and so he wept. D. Donald could not help himself because he was weeping. _________THE END_________
4
SỞ GD&ĐT YÊN BÁI TRƯỜNG THPT HOÀNG QUỐC VIỆT (Đề thi gồm: 04 trang)
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017 Môn: TIẾNG ANH – Đề số 01 Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
1.C
2.C
3.C
4.A
5.B
6.A
7.B
8.D
9.D
10.B
11.A
12.C
13.C
14.B
15.B
16.B
17.A
18.C
19.D
20.A
21.D
22.B
23.C
24.A
25.A
26.A
27.B
28.A
29.B
30.D
31.B
32.A
33.D
34.A
35.C
36.A
37.A
38.C
39.C
40.B
41.C
42.A
43.A
44.D
45.C
46.C
47.C
48.C
49.A
50.A
SỞ GD&ĐT YÊN BÁI TRƯỜNG THPT HOÀNG QUỐC VIỆT (Đề thi gồm: 05 trang)
ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017 Môn: TIẾNG ANH – Đề số 02 Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút,không kể thời gian phát đề
Họ và tênthí sinh:……………………………………. SBD:…………………… Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question1: A. agreed B. missed C. liked D. watched Question 2: A. educate B. eliminate C. certificate D. dedicate Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. religious B. performance C. miserable D. including Question 4: A. decoration B. temperament C. opportunity D. expectation Choose A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 5: American children customarily go trick-or-treating on Halloween. A. inevitably B. readily C. happily D. traditionally Question 6: “Edwards seems like a dog with two tails this morning”. Haven’t you heard the news? His wife gave birth to a baby boy early this morning” A. very proud B. exhausted C. extremely dazed D. extremely pleased Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 7: For most male spiders courtship is a perilous procedure, for they may be eaten by females. A. complicated B. dangerous C. safe D. peculiar Question 8: Names of people in the book were changed to preserve anonymity. A. reveal B. conserve C. presume D. cover Choose A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. 5
Question 9: Alaska’s vast areas of untamed wilderness attracts many people who enjoy the outdoors.A. wilderness B. untamed C. enjoy D. attracts Question 10: Manufacturers may use food additives for preserving, to color, or to flavor, or to fortify foods. A. to flavor B. fortify foods C. for preserving D. many use Question 11: Computer science which is considered by some scientists to have a much closer relationship with mathematics than many scientific disciplines. A. much closer B. than many C. which is considered D. some scientists Question 12: If one type of manufacturing expands, it is like that another type will shrink considerably. A. expands B. like C. another D. considerably Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question13: I love this painting of an old man. He has such a beautiful_________ smile. A. childlike B. childish C. childhood D. childless Question14: Tuition fee must be paid_________ before or on the due date. A. neither B. either C. also D. not only Question15: Please report_________ the supervisor if you find anything unusual. A. for B. into C. among D. to Question16: Student: “_______________.” Teacher: "No worries. Come in, please.” A. I’m late B. I want to come in.C. I'm sorry I'm late. D. I've just arrived. Question17: Mai: "Thank you so much." Sue: “_______________” A. Don’t take it. B. Don’t mention it. C. Don't say so. D. Don’t think so. Question 18:“I have bought you a toy. Happy birthday to you!” –“__________” A. What a lovely toy!Thanks. B.Have a nice day! C. The same to you! D. What a pity! Question19: It is vital that everyone_________ aware of the protection of the environment. A. is B. be C. are D. to be Question20: Never in my life_________ such an intelligent hoy. A. I have met B. I haven't met C. have I met D. haven't I met Question21: Penicillin, _____, probably came into widespread use after the Second World War. A. an antibiotic of known B. was known the antibiotic C. the best-known antibiotic D. known best antibiotic Question22: An: “What is this letter about?" Mai: “It’s in regard_________ at the conference next week.” A. to you speak B. to you speaking C. of your speaking D. to your speaking Question23: ______ we invested in the oil industry two years ago, we would be wealthy by now. A. When B. Had C . Unless D. Although Question24: She has spent her entire life not only teaching young generations subject knowledge_________ also educating them to become helpful citizens of the nation. A. and B. but C. so D. or Question25: _________ how much money she spends on her clothes, she never looks welldressed. A. Despite B. Without C. Regardless D. No matter Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks. The well-being of America's rural people and places depends upon many things - the availability of good-paying jobs; (26)______ to critical services such as education, health care, and communication; strong communities; and a healthy natural environment. And, (27)______ urban America is equally dependent upon these things, the challenges to well-being look very 6
different in rural areas than in urban areas. Small-scale, low-density settlement (28)______ make it more costly for communities and businesses to provide critical services. Declining jobs and income in the natural resource-based industries that many rural areas depend on force workers in those industries to find new ways to make a living. Low-skill, low-wage rural manufacturing industries must find new ways to challenge the increasing number of (29)______ competitors. Distance and remoteness impede many rural areas from being connected to the urban centers of economic activity. Finally, changes in the availability and use of natural resources located in rural areas (30)______ the people who earn a living from those resources and those who (31)______ recreational and other benefits from them. Some rural areas have met these challenges successfully, achieved some level of prosperity, and are ready (32)______ the challenges of the future. Others have neither met the current challenges nor positioned themselves for the future. Thus, concern for rural America is real. And, while rural America is a producer of critical goods and services, the (33)______ goes beyond economics. Rural America is also home to a fifth of the Nation's people, keeper of natural amenities and national treasures, and safeguard of a/an unique part of American culture, tradition, and history. Question 26: A. key Question 27: A. while Question 28: A. means Question 29: A. abroad Question 30: A. encourage Question 31: A. derive Question 32: A. with Question 33: A. concern
B. access B. when B. patterns B. lateral B. affect B. evolve B. in B. stimulus
C. challenge C. because C. tools C. rural C. stimulate C. bring C. for C. research
D. advantage D. since D. styles D. foreign D. effect D. involve D. of D. impatience
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The issue of equality for women in British society first attracted national attention in the early 20th century, when the suffragettes won for women the right to vote. In the 1960s feminism became the subject of intense debate when the women’s liberation movement encouraged women to reject their traditional supporting role and to demand equal status and equal rights with men in areas such as employment and pay. Since then, the gender gap between the sexes has been reduced. The Equal Pay Act of 1970, for instance, made it illegal for women to be paid less than men for doing the same work, and in 1975 the Sex Discrimination Act aimed to prevent either sex having an unfair advantage when applying for jobs. In the same year the Equal Opportunities Commission was set up to help people claim their rights to equal treatment and to publish research and statistics to show where improvements in opportunities for women need to be made. Women now have much better employment opportunities, though they still tend to get less well-paid jobs than men, and very few are appointed to top jobs in industry. In the US the movement that is often called the “first wave of feminism” began in the mid-1800s. Susan B. Anthony worked for the right to vote, Margaret Sanger wanted to provide women with the means of contraception so that they could decide whether or not to have children, and Elizabeth Blackwell, who had to fight for the chance to become a doctor, wanted women to have greater opportunities to study. Many feminists were interested in other social issues. The second wave of feminism began in the 1960s. Women like Betty Friedan and Gloria Steinem became associated with the fight to get equal rights and opportunities for women under the law. An important issue was the Equal Rights Amendment (ERA), which was intended to change the Constitution. Although the ERA was not passed, there was progress in other areas. It became illegal for employers, schools, clubs, etc. to discriminate against women. But women still find it hard to advance beyond a certain point in their careers, the so-called glass ceiling that prevents them from having highlevel jobs. Many women also face the problem of the second shift, i.e. the household chores. In 7
the 1980s, feminism became less popular in the US and there was less interest in solving the remaining problems, such as the fact that most women still earn much less than men. Although there is still discrimination, the principle that it should not exist is widely accepted. Question 34: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that in the 19th century, _________. A. suffragettes fought for the equal employment and equal pay B. British women did not have the right to vote in political elections C. British women did not complete their traditional supporting role D. most women did not wish to have equal status and equal rights Question 35: The phrase “gender gap” in paragraph 2 refers to_________. A. the visible space between men and women B. the social distance between the two sexes C. the social relationship between the two sexes D. the difference in status between men and women Question 36: Susan B. Anthony, Margaret Sanger, and Elizabeth Blackwell are mentioned as _________. A. American women who were more successful than men B. American women with exceptional abilities C. American women who had greater opportunities D. pioneers in the fight for American women’s rights Question 37: The Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) ______. A. supported employers, schools and clubs B. was not officially approved C. was brought into force in the 1960s D. changed the US Constitution Question 38: In the late 20th century, some information about feminism in Britain was issued by __________. A. the Equal Opportunities Commission B. the Sex Discrimination Act C. the Equal Pay Act of 1970 D. the Equal Rights Amendment Question 39: Which of the following is true according to the passage? A. The movement of feminism began in the US earlier than in Britain. B. The women’s liberation movement in the world first began in Britain. C. The British government passed laws to support women in the early 20th century. D. The US movement of feminism became the most popular in the late 20th century. Question 40: The phrase “glass ceiling” in paragraph 4 mostly means_________. A. an overlooked problem B. a transparent frame C. an imaginary barrier D. a ceiling made of glass Question 41: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage? A. There is now no sex discrimination in Britain and in the US. B. British women now have much better employment opportunities. C. Many American women still face the problem of household chores. D. An American woman once had to fight for the chance to become a doctor. Question 42: It can be inferred from the passage that_________. A. women do not have better employment opportunities despite their great efforts B. the belief that sex discrimination should not exist is not popular in the US C. the British government did not approve of the women’s liberation movement D. women in Britain and the US still fight for their equal status and equal rights Question 43: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage? A. The Suffragettes in British Society B. Women and the Right to Vote C. Feminism in Britain and the US D. Opportunities for Women Nowadays Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines the pair ofsentences given in each of the following questions. 8
Question44: The demand was so great. They had to reprint the book immediately. A. They demanded that the book be reprinted immediately. B. The book would be reprinted immediately since the demand was great. C. So great was the demand that they had to reprint the book immediately. D. They demanded to reprint the book immediately. Question45: They wanted to apologize for their behaviour. That’s why they paid for the dinner. A. They paid for the dinner after they apologized for their behaviour. B. Their behaviour was so terrible that they had to pay for the dinner. C. Being so disappointed at their behaviour, they wanted to pay for the dinner. D. They paid for the dinner because they felt regretful about their bchaviour. Question46: The bride didn't turn up. The wedding was cancelled. A. The bride turned the wedding into a mess since she got lost. B. The bride cancelled the wedding by running away. C. They postponed the wedding since the bride didn't turn up. D. The wedding was not carried out since the bride didn’t come. Question47: He did not work hard. He failed the exam. A. Even though he failed the exam, he didn't work hard B. If he had worked hard, he would have passed the exam. C. Unless he had worked hard, he would have failed the exam. D. However hard he worked, he failed the exam. Question48: I was fined by the police. I thought parking was allowed there. A. I had trouble with the police since I was under the impression that I could park there. B. Being fined by the police, I thought parking was allowed there C. The police fined me and let me park there. D. After being fined by the police, I thought I would be able to park my car there. Question 49: Crazianna is a big country. Unfortunately, it has never received respect from its neighbours. A. Though Crazianna is a big country, it has never received respect from its neighbours. B. Crazianna has never received respect from its neighbours because it is a big country. C. It is Crazianna, a big country, that has never received respect from its neighbours. D. Crazianna is such a big country that it has never received respect from its neighbours. Question 50: He cannot lend me the book now. He has not finished reading it yet. A. As long as he cannot finish reading the book, he will lend it to me. B. Having finished reading the book, he cannot lend it to me. C. He cannot lend me the book until he has finished reading it. D. Not having finished reading the book, he will lend it to me. _________THE END_________
9
SỞ GD&ĐT YÊN BÁI TRƯỜNG THPT HOÀNG QUỐC VIỆT (Đề thi gồm: 05 trang)
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017 Môn: TIẾNG ANH – Đề số 02 Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
1.A
2.C
3.C
4.B
5.D
6.D
7.C
8.A
9.D
10.C
11.C
12.C
13.A
14.B
15.D
16.C
17.B
18.A
19.B
20.C
21.C
22.D
23.B
24.B
25.D
26.B
27.A
28.B
29.D
30.B
31.A
32.C
33.A
34.B
35.D
36.D
37.B
38.A
39.A
40.C
41.A
42.D
43.C
44.C
45.D
46.D
47.B
48.A
49.A
50.C
SỞ GD&ĐT YÊN BÁI
ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
TRƯỜNG THPT HOÀNG QUỐC VIỆT
Môn: TIẾNG ANH – Đề số 01 Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi gồm: 04 trang) Họ và tên thí sinh:……………………………………. SBD:……………………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. crucial B. partial C. material D. financial Question 2: A. land
B. sandy
C. many
D. candy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. adventure B. attendance C. opponent D. penalty Question 4: A. represent
B. permanent
C. continent
D. sentiment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5: When the protestor entered the meeting clad only in a beach tower, the audience was dumbfounded. A. speechless B. excited C. content D. applauding Question 6: His new work has enjoyed a very good review from critics and readers. A. opinion B. viewing C. look D. regard 10
Question 7: We have lived there for years and grown fond of the surroundings. That is why we don’t want to leave. A. loved the surroundings B. possessed by the surroundings C. haunted by the surroundings D. planted many trees in the surroundings Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 8: The motorist felt that the ticket for infraction was unwarranted. A. conscientious B. inadvertent C. inevitable D. justified Question 9: On November 25 1972, something dreadful happened on board of the brigantine Mary Celeste, causing all crew members to hastily abandon the ship. A. hold on B. stay on C. take care of D. save for Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 10: Hardly did he enter the room when all the lights went out. A.did he enter B. when C. the lights D.went Question 11: Publishing in the UK, the book has won a number of awards in recent regional book fairs. A.Publishing in the UK B. has won C. in D. book fairs. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer Question 12: Labor unions and the company______ in a confrontation over plans to curb benefits. A. carried away B. faced off C. caught up D. showed up Question 13: What university will you take an_________ examination into? A. entrance B. entry C. admission D. attendance
Question 14: At first the children enjoyed the game but quite soon _______ novelty. A. died out B. wore off C. went off D. died out Question 15: Although he claimed to have left his job voluntarily, he was actually__________ for misconduct. A. released B. dismissed C. resigned D. dispelled Question 16: ______ the fifth largest among the night planets that make up our solar system. A. The Earth is B. The Earth being C. That the Earth is D. Being the Earth Question 17: ________ but he also proves himself a good athlete. A. Not only did he show himself a good student B. Not only he showed himself a good student C. He did not show himself only a good student D. A good student not only showed himself Question 18: It is recommended that he__________- this course. A. took B. take C. takes
D. taking
Question 19: Our boss would rather_________ during the working hours. 11
A. us not chat B. we didn’t chat C. we don’t chat D. us not chatting Question 20: The sky was cloudy and foggy. We went to the beach, _________. A. so B. yet C. however D. even though Question 21: Do you think doing the household chores is the__________of the women only? A. responsibly
B. responsible
C. responsibility
D. responsive
Question 22: He did some odd jobs at home__________. A. disappointment
B. disappointedly
C. disappointed
D. disappoint
Question 23: “I have bought you a toy. Happy birthday to you!” –“__________” A. What a lovely toy! Thanks. B. Have a nice day!C. The same to you!
D. What a
pity! Question 24: My sister is often sick because she doesn’t do physical exercise. A. If my sister does physical exercise, she won’t often be sick. B. If my sister isn’t physical exercise, she does sick. C. If my sister did physical exercise, she wouldn’t often be sick. physical exercise, she would do sick.
D. If my sister wasn’t
Question 25: He read The Old Man and The Sea, a novel__________by Ernest Hemingway. A. written
B. writing
C. which written
D. that wrote
Question 26: If you don’t work much harder, you won’t pass the exam. _ Unless you__________much harder, you__________the exam. A. work / will pass B. don’t work / will pass C. don’t work / won’t pass D. work / won’t pass Question 27: It was nice of you to give me the present. Thank you” Ben said to Mary. Ben thanked Mary__________the present. A. of giving him
C. for giving him
B. it had been nice of her to give him
D. that she had been nice to give him
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 28: “You shouldn’t have leaked our confidential report to the press, Frank!” said Jane. A. Jane suspected that Frank had leaked their confidential report to the press. B. Jane criticized Frank for having disclosed their confidential report to the press. C. Jane accused Frank of having cheated the press with their confidential report. D. Jane blamed Frank for having flattered the press with their confidential report. 12
Question 29: “Don’t forget to tidy up the final draft before submission,” the team leader told us. A. The team leader ordered us to tidy up the final draft before submission. B. The team leader reminded us to tidy up the final draft before submission. C. The team leader asked us to tidy up the final draft before submission. D. The team leader simply wanted us to tidy up the final draft before submission. Question 30: “If you don’t pay the ransom, we’ll kill your boy,” the kidnappers told us. A. The kidnappers ordered to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom. B. The kidnappers pledged to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom. C. The kidnappers threatened to kill our boy if we refused to pay the ransom. D. The kidnappers promised to kill our boy if we refused to pay the ransom. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The food we eat seems to have profound effects on our health. Although science has made enormous steps in making food more fit to eat, it has, at the same time, made many foods unfit to eat. Some research has shown that perhaps eighty percent of all human illnesses are related to diet and forty percent of cancer is related to the diet as well, especially cancer of the colon. People of different cultures are more prone to contact certain illnesses because of the characteristic foods they consume. That food is related to illness is not a new discovery. In 1945, government researchers realized that nitrates nitrites (commonly used to preserve color in meat) as well as other food additives caused cancer. Yet, these carcinogenic additives remain in our food, and it becomes more difficult all the time to know which ingredients on the packaging label of processed food are helpful or harmful. The additives that we eat are not all so direct. Farmers often give penicillin to cattle and poultry, and because of this, penicillin has been found in the milk of treated cows. Sometimes similar drugs are administered to animals not for medical purposes, but for financial reasons. The farmers are simply trying to fatten the animals in order to obtain a higher price on the market. Although the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has tried repeatedly to control these procedures, the practices continue. A healthy diet is directly related to good health. Often we are unaware of detrimental substances we ingest. Sometimes well-meaning farmers or others who do not realize the consequences add these substances to food without our knowledge. Question 31: How has science done to disservice to people? A. As a result of scientific intervention, some potentially harmful substances have been added to our food B. The scientists have preserved the color of meats, but not of vegetables C. It caused a lack of information concerning the value of food D. Because of science, disease caused by contaminated food has been virtually eradicated. Question 32: The word “prone” is nearest meaning to_________. A. healthy B. unlikely C. supine
D. predisposed
Question 33: The word “carcinogenic” is closest in meaning to_________. A. trouble-making B. money-making C. cancer-causing D. colorretaining 13
Question 34: What are nitrates used for? A. They preserve the color of meat C. There are objects of research fatter Question 35: FDA means____________. A. Federal Dairy Additives C. Final Difficult Analysis
B. They preserve flavor in package food D. They cause the animals become
B. Food and Drug Administration D. Food Direct Additives
Question 36: All of the following statements are TRUE except A. Drug are always given to animals for medical reasons B. Food may cause forty percent of the cancer in the world C. Researchers have known about the potential hazard of food additives for more than 45 years D. Some of the additives in our food are added to the food itself and some are given to the living animals Question 37: What is best title for this passage? A. The food you eat can affect your health food
C. Avoiding injurious substances in food Diet
B. Harmful and Harmless substances in
D. Improving health through a Natural
Question 38: The word “fit” could be best replaced by which of the following? A. suitable B. tasty C. athletic D. adaptable Question 39: The word “these” refers to___________? A. researchers B. nitrates and nitrites C. meats
D. colors
Question 40: The word “additives” is closest meaning to__________. A. begin substance B. natural substance C. dangerous substance D. added substance
Read the passage below and choose the best answer ( A, B, C or D ) to each question. The habits of those who constantly play video games are very important to people working in video-game industry. If video games are going to one of the most attractive features of future interactive systems, it is essential for producers to know what types of games to make, how best to present such games on interactive video, and how to ensure that
14
such games maintain their fascination for people. Above all, it is vital to build up detailed profiles of people who are addicted to video games. Until recently, the chief market for video games has been boys aged eight to fifteen. The fascination for interactive video games is seen in its purest form in this group. Video games appeal to some deep instinct in boys who find it impossible to tear themselves from them. Schoolwork is ignored, health is damaged and even eating habits are affected. Girls of the same age, however, are entirely different, demonstrating far greater freedom from the hold of video games. Quite simply, they can take video games in their strike, being able to play them when they want and then leave them alone. Question 41:Producers of video games are keen on __________. A. finding the best ways of continuing to attract people techniques in making such games C. learning about drug to which people are addicted
B. developing computer
D. designing ways
Question 42:The people who are most attracted to video games are __________. A. young adult women
B. boys from eight to fifteen years old
C. girls between eight and fifteen
D. supermarket assistants
Question 43:__________have different attitude towards playing video games. A. Adult men and women girls from eight to fifteen C. Girls and boys above eight
B. Boys and
D. Girls and boys below eight
Question 44:The addiction to video games can be so powerful that it can __________. A. separate boys from girls people relaxing C. destroy people’s instincts
B. make
D. make people physically ill.
Question 45:Compared with boys of the same age, girls are __________. A. more intelligent than boys
B. more addicted to video games
C. more concentrated on video games
D. less affected by video games
Choose the word or phrase ( A, B, C or D ) that best fits the blank space in the following passage. Speech is one of the most important ways of communicating. It consists of far more than just (46)_________noises. To talk or to (47)_________by other people, we have to 15
master a language, that is, we have to use combinations of sound that (48)_________for a particular object or idea. Communication (49)_________impossible if everyone (50)_________up their own language. Question 46:A. makes
B. make
C. to make
D. making
Question 47:A. understanding B. understand understandable
C. be understood
D. be
Question 48:A. to stand
B. stand
C. stands
D. standing
Question 49:A. is
B. will be
C. would be
D. was
Question 50:A. made
B. makes
C. make
D. will make
_________THE END_________
SỞ GD&ĐT YÊN BÁI
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
TRƯỜNG THPT HOÀNG QUỐC VIỆT
Môn: TIẾNG ANH – Đề số 01 Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi gồm: 04 trang) 1.C
2.C
3.D
4.A
5.A
6.A
7.A
8.D
9.B
10.A
11.A
12.B
13.A
14.B
15.B
16.A
17.A
18.B
19.B
20.C
21.C
22.B
23.A
24.C
25.A
26.D
27.C
28.B
29.B
30.C
31.A
32.D
33.C
34.A
35.B
36.A
37.A
38.A
39.B
40.D
41.A
42.B
43.A
44.C
45.D
46.D
47.C
48.B
49.A
50.B
SỞ GD&ĐT YÊN BÁI
ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
TRƯỜNG THPT HOÀNG QUỐC VIỆT
Môn: TIẾNG ANH – Đề số 02 Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi gồm: 04 trang)
16
Họ và tênthí sinh:……………………………………. SBD:…………………… Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. handcraft
B. handbook
C. handkerchief
D. handbag
Question 2: A. exhaust
B. height
C. honest
D. heir
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of main stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. weather
B. confirm
C. highland
D. entrance
Question 4: A. dependence compliment
B. prediction
C. disastrous
D.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 5: Lack of water and nutrients has impeded the growth of these cherry tomato plants A. promoted
B. assisted
C. realized
D. prevented
Question 6: Bone and ivory are light, strong and accessible materials for Inuit artists A. available
B. beautiful
C. economic
D. natural
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of precautionary measures A. physical
B. severe
C. beneficial
D. damaging
Question 8: Vietnam’s admission to the World Trade Organization (WTO) has promoted its trade relations with other countries. A. balanced
B. restricted
C. expanded
D. boosted
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet t indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 9: Not until he got home he realized he had forgotten to give her the present. A. got
B. he realized
C. her
D.the present. 17
Question 10: A lot of people stop smoking because they are afraid their heath will be affected and early death A.A lot of
B. smoking
C.are
D.early death
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following sentences Learning means acquiring knowledge or developing the ability to perform new behaviors. It is common to think of learning as something that takes place in school, but much of human learning occurs outside the classroom, and people continue to learn throughout their lives. Even before they enter school, young children learn to walk, to talk, and to use their hands to manipulate toys, food, and other objects. They use all of their senses to learn about the sights, sounds, tastes, and smells in their environments. They learn how to interact with their parents, siblings, friends, and other people important to their world. When they enter school, children learn basic academic subjects such as reading, writing, and mathematics. They also continue to learn a great deal outside the classroom.
They learn which behaviors are likely to be rewarded and which are likely to be punished. They learn social skills for interacting with other children. After they finish school, people must learn to adapt
to the many major changes that affect their lives, such as getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job. Because learning continues throughout our lives and affects almost everything we do, the study of learning is important in many different fields. Teachers need to understand the best ways to educate children. Psychologists, social workers, criminologists, and other humanservice workers need to understand how certain experiences change people’s behaviors. Employers, politicians, and advertisers make use of the principles of learning to influence the behavior of workers, voters, and consumers. Learning is closely related to memory, which is the storage of information in the brain. Psychologists who study memory are interested in how the brain stores knowledge, where this storage takes place, and how the brain later retrieves knowledge when we need it. In contrast, psychologists who study learning are more interested in behavior and how behavior changes as a result of a person’s experiences. 18
There are many forms of learning, ranging from simple to complex. Simple forms of learning involve a single stimulus. A stimulus is anything perceptible to the senses, such as a sight, sound, smell, touch, or taste. In a form of learning known as classical conditioning, people learn to associate two stimuli that occur in sequence, such as lightning followed by thunder. In operant conditioning, people learn by forming an association between a behavior and its consequences (reward or punishment). People and animals can also learn by observation - that is, by watching others perform behaviors. More complex forms of learning include learning languages, concepts, and motor skills. (Extracted from Microsoft® Student 2009 – DVD Version) Question 11: According to the passage, which of the following is learning in broad view comprised of? A. Knowledge acquisition and ability development skills
B. Acquisition of social and behavioural
C. Acquisition of academic knowledge classroom
D. Knowledge acquisition outside the
Question 12: According to the passage, what are children NOT usually taught outside the classroom? A. interpersonal communication B. life skills
C. literacy and calculation D. right from wrong
Question 13: Getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job are mentioned in paragraph 2 as examples of ______. A. the changes to which people have to orient themselves B. . the situations in which people cannot teach themselves C. the ways people’s lives are influenced by education D. the areas of learning which affect people’s lives Question 14: Which of the following can be inferred about the learning process from the passage? A. . It becomes less challenging and complicated when people grow older B. It plays a crucial part in improving the learner’s motivation in school C. It takes place more frequently in real life than in academic institutions D. It is more interesting and effective in school than that in life Question 15: According to the passage, the study of learning is important in many fields due to ______. A. the need for certain experiences in various areas 19
B. the exploration of the best teaching methods C. the great influence of the on-going learning process D. the influence of various behaviours in the learning process Question 16: It can be inferred from the passage that social workers, employers, and politicians concern themselves with the study of learning because they need to ______. A. change the behaviours of the objects of their interest towards learning B. thoroughly understand the behaviours of the objects of their interest C. make the objects of their interest more aware of the importance of learning D. understand how a stimulus relates to the senses of the objects of their interest Question 17: The word “retrieves” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______. A. generates
B. creates
C. recovers
D. gains
Question 18: Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage? A. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with how the stored knowledge is used
B. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with the brain’s storage of knowledge C. Psychologists are all interested in memory as much as behaviours D. Psychologists studying learning are interested in human behaviours Question 19: According to the passage, the stimulus in simple forms of learning ______. A. bears relation to perception
B. is created by the senses
C. is associated with natural phenomena
D. makes associations between behaviours
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer Question 20: In Vietnam, application forms for the National Entrance Examinations must be __________before the deadline, often in April. A. issued
B. signed
C. filed
D. submitted
Question 21:Points will be added to the Entrance Examination scores for those who hold an excellent high school__________. A. certificate
B. diploma
C. qualification
D. degree
Question 22:The world __________a better place if we had known a hundred years ago what we know about the earth’s environment. A. should be
B. might be
C. was
D. will be 20
Question 23:I _________Tom with me if I had known you and he didn’t get along well with each other. A. won’t bring brought
B. wouldn’t have brought C. Didn’t bring
D. hadn’t
Question 24:Remember to bring with you your school certificate and letters of __________from your teachers or your previous employers when you come to the interview. A. assignment advertisement
B. invitation
C. recommendation
D.
Question 25:It wasn’t an awful experience. It was the worst thing _________has ever happened to me. A. which
B. that
C. what
D. why
Question 26:This present will be given to __________can answer the last question. A. whomever
B. whoever
C. whom
D. who
Question 27:These new laws have laid legal grounds for __________inefficient co-operatives. A. dissolving
B. analyzing
C dividing
D. disarming.
Question 28:I like spending my holidays in the mountains, __________my wife prefers the seaside. A. though
B. whereas
C. despite
D. in spite of
Question 29: __________he wasn’t feeling very well, Alex was determined to take part in the racing. A. Despite the fact that
B. Despite the fact it
C. Despite
D. In spite of
Question 30:When we got home, dinner __________, so we had a drink first. A. was preparing prepared
B. had been prepared
C. was being prepared D. was
Question 31:Linda __________her identity card again. This is the second time this __________. A. lost/ happened happened
B. has lost/ has happened C. has lost/ happened
D. lost/ has
Question 32: I started working here in 2000. A. I have started working here since 2000.
B. I haven’t worked here since 2000. 21
C. I have started working here since 2000.
D. I have worked here since 2000.
Question 33: It took me a long time to __________wearing glasses. A. get used to
B. use to
C. used to
D. use
Question 34: Let’s have this letter __________by express mail. A. sends
B. send
C. being sent
D. sent
Question 35: “Can I help you?” _ “ ___________”. A. No, thanks. I’m just looking
B. No, I’m seeing
C. Yes, I’m watching
D. Yes, I’m thinking
Question 36: Let’s go to the station to see her __________. A. through
B. back
C. off
D. to
Question 37: I can’t recall __________that old movie, but maybe I did many years ago. A. to see
B. to have seen
C. having been seen
D. having seen
Question 38: Henry will pass his exams __________any means. He has studied well. A. by
B. on
C. with
D. in
Question 39: Without transportation, our modern society could not exist. A. Our modern society could not exist if there is no transportation. B. Our modern society will not exist without having transportation. C. If there were no transportation, our modern society would not exist. D. If transportation no longer exists, our modern society will not exist. Question 40:A house in that district will cost at least $ 100,000. A. If you have $ 100,000, you can buy a house in that district. B. $ 100,000 is the maximum price for a house in that district. C. You won't be able to buy a house in that district for more than $ 100,000. D. You won't be able to buy a house in that district for less than $ 100,000. Choose the word or phrase ( A, B, C or D ) that best fits the blank space in the following passage. 22
When you first apply for a job, you (41) ______not succeed in getting it. It’s always a good (42)______to ask them to explain to you what prevented from beating the other candidates. Don’t complain about the situation, but ask them to advise you (43)______what you can do better next time. Perhaps the interviewer disapproved of or disagreed with something you said. Perhaps they just glanced at your application and saw something that made it easy to choose between you and another candidate. Don’t regard it as a failure, but recognize it as a chance to learn more. (44)______you don’t worry too much about it and continue to believe in yourself, you’ll (45)______find the chance you’ve been waiting for. Then, your family and friends will be able to congratulate you on your success! Question 41: A. might
B. would
C. won’t
D. must
Question 42: A. means
B. opinion
C. idea
D. method
Question 43: A. about
B. of
C. over
D. in
Question 44: A. As far as
B. By far
C. So far
D. As long as
Question 45:A. in the end
B. lastly
C. at last
D. eventually
Read the passage below and choose the best answer ( A, B, C or D ) to each question. Higher education, also called tertiary, third stage or post secondary education, is the noncompulsory educational level following the completion of a school providing a secondary education, such as a high school, secondary school. Tertiary education is normally taken to include undergraduate and postgraduate education, as well as vocational education and training. Colleges and universities are the main institutions that provide tertiary institutions. Tertiary education generally results in the receipt of certificates, diplomas, or academic degrees. Higher education includes teaching, research and social services activities of universities, and within the realm of teaching, it includes both the undergraduate level and the graduate level. Higher education in that country generally involves work towards a degree-level or foundation degree qualification. It is therefore very important to national economies, both as a significant industry in its own right, and as a source of trained and educated personnel for the rest of the economy. Question 46: What is ‘tertiary education’? A. Primary education B. higher education education
C. Secondary education D. children
Question 47 : Where can we find tertiary education? A. Colleges and high schools
B. universities and institutes
C. Colleges and universities
D. high schools and universities.
Question 48: The word ‘degree’ in paragraph 1 refers to __________. 23
A. a unit for measuring angles
B. a unit for measuring temperature
C. the qualification something is.
D. a level in a scale of how serious
Question 49: How many kinds does higher education have? A. One
B. two
C. three
D. four
Question 50:_________is important to national economies. A. Qualification education
B. Foundation
C. Schooling
D. Higher
_________THE END_______
SỞ GD&ĐT YÊN BÁI
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
TRƯỜNG THPT HOÀNG QUỐC VIỆT
Môn: TIẾNG ANH – Đề số 02 Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi gồm: 04 trang) 1.C
2.B
3.B
4.D
5.D
6.A
7.C
8.B
9.B
10.D
11.A
12.C
13.A
14.C
15.C
16.B
17.C
18.C
19.A
20.D
21.B
22.B
23.B
24.C
25.B
26.B
27.A
28.B
29.A
30.B
31.B
32.D
33.A
34.D
35.A
36.C
37.D
38.A
39.C
40.D
41.A
42.C
43.B
44.D
45.D
46.B
47.C
48.C
49.B
50.D
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO YÊN BÁI ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT QUỐC QIA NĂM HỌC 2016 - 2017
24
Môn: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút. (Không kể thời gian giao đề) (Đề thi có 04 trang)
Họ, tên thí sinh: ………………………………………………
SECTION A: MUPTIPLE CHOICES (8 points)
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion off 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not expanded even as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two century, English began too spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English, speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking, and diplomacy. Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English. Two thirds of the world's science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media, international airport, and air traffic controllers. Today there are more than 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are non-native speakers, constituting the largest number of non-native users than any other language in the world. Question 1: What is the main topic of the passage? A. The number of non-native users of English. B. The French influence on the English language. C. The expansion of English as an international language. D. The use of English for science and technology. Question 2: In the first paragraph, the word"emerged" is closest in meaning to _______ A. appeared
B. hailed
C. frequented
D. engaged
Question 3: Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England? A. In 1066
B. around 1350
C. before 1600
D. after 1600
25
Question 4: According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world EXCEPT_______ A. the slave trade B. the Norman invasion C. missionaries D. colonization Question 5: In the first paragraph, the word"course" could best be replaced by _______ A. subject
B. policy
C. time
D. track
Question 6: In the second paragraph, the word"stored" is closest in meaning to _______ A. bought
B. saved
C. spent
D. valued
Question 7: In the second paragraph, the word"constituting" is closest in meaning to _______ A. looking over
B. setting down
C. doing in
D. making up
Question 8: According to the passage, approximately how many non-native users of English are there in the world today ? A. a quarter million
B. half a million
C. 350 million
D. 700 million
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions Question 9: A. attract
B. willing
C. reject
D. secure
Question 10: A. preparation
B. economics
C. interviewer
D. education
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 11: We are a very close- knit family. A. need each other
B. are close to each other
C. have very close relationship with each other
D. are polite to each other
Question 12: In England, English, Maths and Science are core subjects, which are compulsory in the national examinations. A. obligatory
B. optional
C. difficult
D. energetic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the questions Question 13: This speedy and secure service of transfering money can be useful A. slow
B. rapid
C. careful
D. hurried
Question 14: Our well-trained staff are always courteous to customers 26
A. helpful
B. friendly
C. rude
D. polite
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 15: A. wanted
B. moved
C.carried
D. rained
Question 16: A. steps
B. tourists
C. banks
D. symbols
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Endangered species are plant and animal species which are in danger of extinction. Over 8,300 plant species and 7,200 animal species around the globe are threatened with extinction, and many thousands more extinct each year before biologists can identify them. The primary causes of species extinction are habitat destruction, commercial exploitation and pollution. The drainage of wetlands, cutting of forests, urbanization and road and dam construction have destroyed or seriously damaged natural habitats. Since the 1600s, worldwide commercial exploitation of animals for food and other products has seriously reduced the number of rare species. Toxic chemicals in the air and land, contaminated water and increased water temperatures have also driven many species to the verge of extinction. Plant and animal extinction leads to a loss of biodiversity. Maintaining biodiversity is important for us in many ways. For example, humans depend on species diversity to have food, clean air and water, and fertile soil for agriculture. In addition, we benefit greatly from the many medicines and other products that biodiversity provides. Different conservation efforts have been made in order to save endangered species. The Red List – a global list of endangered and vulnerable animal species – has been introduced to raise people’s awareness of conservation needs. Governments have enacted laws to protect wildlife from commercial trade and overhunting. A number of wildlife habitats reserves have been established so that a wide range of endangered species can have a chance to survive and develop.
Question 17 : Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a primary cause of species extinction? A. pollution
B. overexploitation
C. habitat destruction
D. natural selection
Question 18: The word “identify” is closest in meaning to _______. A. introduce
B. enact
C. recognize
D. become
.
Question 19: The word “contaminated” is closest in meaning to _______. A. polluted
B. exploited
C. threaten
D. damaged
Question 20: _______leads to the loss of biodiversity. 27
A. plant extinction and other products B. conservation efforts have been made C. plant and animal extinction D. animal extinction and vulnerable animal species Question 21: : The word “established” is closest in meaning to _______. A.set up
B. closed down
C. destroyed
D. maintained
Question 22: The development of wildlife habitat reserves helps _______. A.Make a list of endangered species
B. enact laws to protect wildlife
C. save a large number of endangered species
D. develop commercial trade and overhunting
Question 23: The best title for the passage is_______. A. Endangered species and Conservation Measures B. Endangered species and their Benefits C. The Global Extiction Cricis D. Endangered species Extinction: Causes and Measures
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the following blanks We are using up the world’s petroleum. We use it in our car and to heat our building in winter. Farmers use petrochemicals to (24) ________ the soil rich. They use them to kill insects which eat plants. These chemicals go(25) ________ rivers and lakes and kill the fish there. Thousands of pollutants also go into the air and pollute it. Winds carry this polluted air to other countries and other continents. Poor farmers use the same land over a rest so it will be better next year. However, the farmers must have food this year. Poor people cut down forests for firewood. In some areas when the trees are gone, the land becomes desert. Poor people (26) ________ save the environment for the future. This is not a problem for one country or one are of the world. It’s a problem for all humans. The people and the nations of(27) ________ world must work together to (28) ________ the world’s resources. Question 24: A. work
B. change
C. make
D. let
Question 25: A. on
B. what
C. at
D. into
Question 26: A. doesn’t
B. isn’t
C. didn’t
D. can’t
Question 27: A. the
B. a
C. an
D. no article
Question 28: A. recylce
B. preseve
C. help
D. reuse
28
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 29: Not until I was on my way to the airport that I realized I had left my passport at home. A B C D Question 30: She asked why did Mathew look so embarrassed when he saw Carole. A B C D Question 31: Even on the most careful prepared trip, problems will sometimes develop. A
B
C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the answer that best complete the following questions Question 32. : It is a top secret. You _______ tell anyone about it. A. won't
B. needn't
C. mustn't
D. mightn't
Question 33. Look! The yard is wet. It______ last night. A. must have rained
B. couldn't have rained
C. must rain
D. should have rained
Question 34. Last year she earned _______ her brother. A. twice as much as
B. twice more than
C. twice as many as
D. twice as more as
Question 35. The girls and flowers ______ he painted were vivid. A. whose
B. that
C. which
D. who
Question 36. When his alarm went off, he shut it off and slept for ________15 minutes. A. other
B. others
C. another
D. the others
Question 37. Is it necessary that I _____ here tomorrow? A. am being
B. were
C. be
D. would be
Question 38. I saw him hiding something in a_______ bag. A. small plastic black
B. black small plastic
C. small black plastic
D. plastic small black
Question 39: If Minh hadn’t stayed up late last night, she_______ tired now . A. won’t be
B. wouldn’t be
C. were
D. wouldn’t have been
Question 40: _____ at the table when the telephone rang. A. Hardly we had sat down B. Hardly had we sat down 29
C. No sooner we had sat down
D. No sooner had we sat down
Question 41: Nowadays women _____ the same wage as men A. will be pay
B. should be paid
C. should pay
D. will pay
C. since
D. on
Question 42:I haven’t seen her _____ last year A. for
B. in
Question 43: _____ he did not attend the English class, he knew the lesson quite well A. Although
B. Despite
C. Because
D. Therefore
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 44: - Linda: “ I’ve passed my driving test.” – Peter: “ ___________”. A. Congratulation
B. That’s a good idea
Question 45. Maria: “I’m taking my driving test tomorrow.” Sarah: “……” A. Good chance
B. Good time
C. Good day
D. Good luck
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46: He was driving so fast that he could have had an accident. A. He wasn’t driving fast enough to avoid an accident. B. He didn’t have an accident although he was driving very fast. C. If he had been driving very fast, he would have had an accident. D. An accident happened, and it was caused by his very fast driving. Question 47: Mrs. Jones told me that her neighbors were moving to Florida. A. Mrs. Jones and her neighbors live in Florida. B. Mrs. Jones is planning to move to Florida with her neighbors. C. I knew that Mrs. Jones had moved to Florida because her neighbors told me. D. “My neighbors are moving to Florida,” said Mrs. Jones. Question 48: No matter how hard Fred tried to start the car, he didn’t succeed. A. Fried tried very hard to start the car, and succeeded. 30
B. Fried tried hard to start the car, and with success. C. However hard he tried, Fried couldn’t start the car. D. It’s hard for Fried to start the car because he never succeeded.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: We are wasting time. We are sitting here doing nothing. A.Time wasted because we are sitting doing nothing. B.Wasted time, nothing was done by us. C.We are wasting time, sitting here doing nothing. D.Wasting time, we are sitting here doing nothing. Question 50: Tom was encouraged by my success. He decided not to quit his work. A.Encouraged by my success, Tom decided not to quit his work. B.Encouraging by my success, Tom decided not to quit his work. C.To be encouraged by my success, Tom decided not to quit his work. D.That he was Encouraged by my success, Tom decided not to quit his work.
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NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016 Môn: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút. (Không kể thời gian giao đề) (Đề thi có 04 trang)
1. C 6. B 11. C 16. D 21. A 26. D 31. B 36. C 41. B 46. B
2. A 7. D 12. A 17. D 22. C 27. A 32. C 37. C 42. C 47. D
3. B 8. C 13. A 18. C 23. D 28. B 33. A 38. C 43. A 48. D
4. B 9. B 14. C 19. A 24. C 29. C 34. A 39. B 44. A 49. C
5.C 10. C 15. A 20. C 25. D 30. B 35. B 40. B 45. D 50. A 31
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NĂM HỌC 2016 - 2017 Môn: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút. (Không kể thời gian giao đề) (Đề thi có 05 trang)
Họ, tên thí sinh: ………………………………………………
SECTION A: MUPTIPLE CHOICES (8 points)
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Simply being bilingual doesn't qualify someone to interpret. Interpreting is not only a mechanical process of converting one sentence in language A into the same sentence in language B. Rather, its a complex art in which thoughts and idioms that have no obvious counterparts from tongue to tongue _ or words that have several meanings must be quickly transformed in such a way that the message is clearly and accurately expressed to the listener. At one international conference, an American speaker said, "You can't make a silk purse out of a sows ear", which meant nothing to the Spanish audience. The interpretation was, "A monkey in a silk dress is still a monkey" _ an idiom the Spanish understood and that expressed the same idea. There are 2 kinds of interpreters, simultaneous and consecutive. The former, sitting in a separated booth, usually at a large multilingual conference, speaks to listeners wearing headphones, interpreting what a foreign language speaker says _ actually a sentence behind. Consecutive interpreters are the ones most international negotiations use. They are employed for smaller meetings without sound booths and headphones. Consecutive interpretation also requires two-person teams. A foreign speaker says his piece while the interpreter, using a special shorthand, takes notes and during a pause, tells the client what was said. Question 1. What is the purpose of the passage? A.To differentiate between simultaneous and consecutive interpreters. B.To state the qualifications of an interpreter. C.To point out the importance of an interpreter. D.To explain the scope of interpreting. Question 2. What is a difference mentioned between a simultaneous interpreter and a consecutive interpreter? 32
A.The size of group with whom they work.
B.Their proficiency in the language.
C.The type of dictionary they use.
D.The money they are paid.
Question 3. The word "converting" is closest in meaning to…. A.changing
B.concluding
C.understanding
D.reading
Question 4. The author implies that most people have the opinion that the skill of interpreting is ….. A.very complex and demanding
B.based on principles of business
C.simpler than it really is
D.highly valued and admired
Question 5. The word "rather" is closest in meaning to…. A.in brief
B.on the contrary
C.in general
D.as a result
Question 6. Which of the following would a consecutive interpreter be used for? A.An interpretation of a major literary work. B.A business transaction between 2 foreign speakers. C.A large meeting of many nations. D.A translation of a foreign book. Question 7. The phrase "the former" refers to… A.simultaneous interpreters C.consecutive interpreters
B.the conference D.thebooth
Question 8. The example "You can't make a silk purse out of a sows ear" is used to…. A.point out the difference in attributes of animals in English and Spanish B.emphasize the need for translation of the meaning of what is said C.show the differences in language A and language B D.stress the importance of word for word translation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions Question 9. A. climatic
B. collective
C. abundant
D. regional
Question 10. A. secretary
B. agriculture
C. electronic
D. temporary
33
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 11. You must answer the police’s questions truthfully; otherwise, you will get into trouble.
A. in a harmful way
B. as trustingly as you can
C. with a negative attitude
D. exactly as you can
Question 12. It takes me 15 minutes to get ready. A. to prepare
B. to wake up
C. to go
D. to get up
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the questions Question 13. Their classmates are writing letters of acceptance. A. confirmation
B. agree
C. refusal
D. admission
Question 14. She performed all her duties conscientiously. She didn't give enough care to her work A. insensitively
B. irresponsibly
C. liberally
D. responsibly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 15. A. orphaned B. endangered
C. established
D. recognized
Question 16. A. measure
C. comprehension
D. pleasure
B. decision
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions The hard, rigid plates that form the outermost portion of the Earth are about 100 kilometers thick. These plates include both the Earth's crust and the upper mantle. The rocks of the crust are composed mostly of minerals with light elements, like aluminum and sodium, while the mantle contains some heavier elements, like iron and magnesium. Together, the crust and upper mantle that form the surface plates are called the lithosphere. This rigid layer floats on the denser material of the lower mantle the way a wooden raft floats on a pond. The plates are supported by a weak, plastic layer of the lower mantle called the asthenosphere. Also like a raft on a pond, the lithospheric plates are carried along by slow currents in this more fluid layer beneath them. With an understating of plate tectonics, geologists have put together a new history for the Earth's surface. About 200 million years ago, the plates at the Earth's surface formed a "suppercontinent" called Pangaea. When this supercontinent started to tear apart because of plate movement, Pangaea first broke into two large continental masses with a newly formed sea that grew 34
between the land areas and the depression was filled with water. The southern one, which included the modern continents of South America, Africa, Australia, and Antarctic, is called Gondwanaland. The northern one, with North America, Europe, and Asia, is called Laurasi. North America tore away from Europe about 180 million years ago, forming the northern Atlantic Ocean. Some of the lithospheric plates carry ocean floor and others carry land masses or a combination of the two types. The movement of the lithospheric plates is responsible for earthquakes, volcanoes, and the Earth's largest mountain ranges. Current understating of the interaction between different plates explains why these occur where they do. For example, the edge of the Pacific Ocean has been called the "Ring of Fire" because so many volcanic eruptions and earthquakes happen there. Before the 1960's, geologists could not explain why active volcanoes and strong earthquakes were concentrated in that region. The theory of plate tectonics gave them an answer. Question 17. The word "carry" in the last paragraph could best be replaced by … A.damage
B.squeeze
C.connect
D.support
Question 18. The word "concentrated" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the following? A.allowed
B.clustered
C.strengthened
D.exploded
Question 19 . With which of the following topic is the passage mainly concerned? A.The location of the Earth's major plates. B.The methods used by scientists to measure plate movement. C.The contributions of the theory of plate tectonics to geological knowledge. D.The mineral composition of the Earth's crust. Question 20. According to the passage, the northern Atlantic Ocean was formed when… A.Parts of Laurasi separated from the each other. B.Gondwanaland collided with other templates. C.Pangaea was created
D.Pangaea Plate movement ceased
Question 21. Which of the following can be inferred about the theory of plate tectonics? A.It refutes the theory of the existence of a supercontinent B.It is no longer of great interest to geologists. C.It fails to explain why earthquakes occur D.It was first proposed in the 1960's Question 22. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses… A.How geological occurrences have changed over the years B.The latest innovations in geological measurement C.Why certain geological events happen where they do 35
D.the most unusual geological development in the Earth's history Question 23. The word "one" in the second paragraph refers to … A.mass
B.movement
C.sea
D.depression
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the following blanks
PROBLEMS OF WATCHING TELEVISION IN BRITAIN British parents are always complaining that their children spend too much time gluing to the telly and not enough (24)____ other activities like sports and reading. A survey recently carried out on people's viewing habits does not disapprove it. It shows that young people in Britain spend on (25)___ twenty three hours a week in front of the television, which works out at over three hours every day. What is surprising, however, is the fact that the average adult watches even more: an incredible 28 hours a week. We seem to have become a nation of telly addicts. Just about (26)_______ household in the country has a television and over half have two or more. According (27)___ the survey, people nowadays don't just watch television sitting in their living room, they watch it in the kitchen and in bed as well. The Education Minister said a few weeks ago that Britain's pupils should spend more time reading. Unfortunately, parents are not setting a good example: adults do more reading than young people. In fact, reading is at the bottom of their list of favorite pastimes. They would (28)____ listen to the radio, go to the cinema or hire a video to watch on their television at home. Question 24. A. in
B. For
C. at
D. on
Question 25. A. weekend
B. Sunday
C. average
D. time
Question 26. A. every
B. none
C. neither
D. all
Question 27. A. to
B. on
C. for
D. with
Question 28. A. rather
B. like
C. had better
D. prefer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 29. Robert Frost was not well known as a poet until he reached the forties. A
B
C
D
Question 30. A dolphin locates underwater objects in its path by doing a series of clicking and whistling 36
AB
C
D sounds.
Question 31. The earth is the only planet with a large number of oxygen in its atmosphere. A
B
C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the answer that best complete the following questions Question 32. They had ______ that all of them laughed with joy A. so an interesting game
B. such an interesting game
C. so a game interesting
D. a game such interesting
Question 33. ______ your jacket if you don't want to get cold. A. Set aside
B. Put on
C. Keep on
D. Take off
Question 34. He has not been offered the job because he cannot meet the _______ of the company. A. applicants
B. information
C. requirements
D. education
Question 35. I can't help you any more because I myself have so many problems to ______ A. keep up with
B. put up with
C. deal with
D. get on with
Question 36. ____ Long ______ his brother was at the party last night. They were both busy. A. Neither/ or
B. Either/ or
C. Both/ and
D. Neither/ nor
Question 37. All the victims were made _ their mobile phones, so nobody could ask for help. A. handing in
B. that hand in
C. to hand in
D. hand in
Question 38. ¼ of my income ______ to pay for my university debts. A. has been used
B. has used
C. were used
D. are used
Question 39. ______ that you were invited, would you come? A. In case
B. Unless
C. Provided
D. Since
Question 40. Without ___ all the resources necessary for life would be damaged, wasted or destroyed. A. destruction
B. Conversation
C. Extinction
D. Biodiversity
Question 41. ______ Rocky Mountains stretch more than 3000 miles from British Columbia, Canada to New Mexico, America. A. A
B. The
C. An
D. Ø
Question 42. Despite many recent _______ advances, there are parts where schools are not equipped with computers. A. technologist
B. technological
C. technologically
D. technology 37
Question 43. This machine can perform a variety of tasks. ______ , it is very economic. A. Moreover
B. However
C. On the contrary
D. Beside
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 44. Tom:" Would you take this along to the office for me?" Jerry:" _____ " A. Yes, with pleasure
B. Never mind
C. Not at all
D. Yes, that's righ
Question 45. Anne: "Thanks for the nice gift!" John: "______" A. In fact, I myself don't like it.
B. I'm glad you like it.
C. But do you know how much it costs?
D. You're welcomed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46. They probably don't live at the same address any more. A.I doubt whether they don't live at the same address any more B.I think that they live at the same address any more C.I assume whether they live at the same address any more D.I doubt whether they live at the same address any longer Question 47. I do apologize for my forgetting your birthday. A.I did not forget your birthday. B.I am really sorry I forgot your birthday. C. I am not sorry at all because I remember your birthday. D.I never apologize for my forgetting birthdays. Question 48. She had only just put the phone down when her boss rang back. A.Hardly she had put the phone down when her boss rang back. B.Hardly did she put the phone down than her boss rang back. C.Hardly had she put the phone down when her boss rang back. D.Hardly she puts the phone down when her boss rang back.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 38
Question 49. We are wasting time. We are sitting here doing nothing. A.Time wasted because we are sitting doing nothing. B.Wasted time, nothing was done by us. C.We are wasting time, sitting here doing nothing. D.Wasting time, we are sitting here doing nothing. Question 50. Tom was encouraged by my success. He decided not to quit his work. A.Encouraged by my success, Tom decided not to quit his work. B.Encouraging by my success, Tom decided not to quit his work. C.To be encouraged by my success, Tom decided not to quit his work. D.That he was Encouraged by my success, Tom decided not to quit his work.
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NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016 Môn: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút. (Không kể thời gian giao đề) (Đề thi có 05 trang)
1. D 6. B 11. D 16. C
2. A 7. A 12. A 17. D
3. A 8. B 13. C 18. B
4. A 9. D 14. B 19. C
5.B 10. C 15. C 20. A 39
21. D 26. A 31. B 36. D 41. B 46. D
22. C 27. A 32. B 37. C 42. B 47. B
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀ TẠO
23. A 28. A 33. B 38. A 43. A 48. C
24. B 29. D 34. C 39. C 44. A 49. C
25. C 30. C 35. C 40. B 45. B 50. A
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Thời gian: 60 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
(Đề thi gồm 06 trang)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. included B. wanted C. decided D. noticed Question 2. A. allow B. tomorrow C. slowly D. below Mark A,B,C or D to indicate the word whose main stress differs from the rest. Question 3. A. struggle B. survive C. enlarge D. occur Question 4. A. reliable B. conventional C. preservative D. intellectual Identify the underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be corrected Question 5: These exercises look easy, but they are very relatively difficult for us. A. These exercises B. easy C. relatively D. for Question 6: As the old one, this new copier can perform its functions in half the time A. As B. can perform C. its functions D. in half the time Question 7: The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have been proved. A. that B. effects C. on D. have been proved Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following questions Question 8: Kay: “I wouldn’t do that if I were you.” John: “___________” A. Wouldn’t you? Why? B. Would you, really? C. I’d rather you didn’t. D. It’s out of the question. Question 9: Lucy: “You look really nice in that red sweater!” Sue: “___________” A. Don’t mention it. B. How dare you? C. I’m afraid so. D. Thank you. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 10: I hope to have the privilege of working with them again. A. honor B. advantage C. favor D. right Question 11: Everything was in a thorough mess. A. utter B. full C. complete D. appalling Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 12: His extravagant ideas were never brought to fruition. A. impressive B. exaggerated C. unacceptable D. practical Question 13: This shouldn’t be too taxing for you. A. comfortable B. demanding C. easy D. relaxing 40
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer in each of the following questions. Question 14: Deborah is going to take extra lessons to______ what she missed when she was away. A. catch up on B. put up with C. cut down on D. take up with Question 15: I am sorry I have no time at present to_______ detail of our plan. A. bring in B. come in C. take into D. go into Question 16: In spite of her abilities, Laura has been _____ overlooked for promotion. A. repetitive B. repeatedly C. repetition D. repeat Question 17: The criminal knows the________ of successful robberies. A. trash and treasure B. part and parcel C. ins and outs D. close all Question 18: Don’t________ the kettle; it’s still hot. A. touch B. feel C. look D. taste Question 19: Policemen are sometimes on________ at night. A. force B. alert C. cover D. patrol Question 20: George won five medals at the competition. His parents ___ very proud of him. A. can’t be B. can’t have C. must have been D. could have been Question 21: We bought some________. A. German lovely old glasses C. German old lovely glasses B. lovely old German glasses D. old lovely German glasses Question 22: This is the third time James________ the volunteer program to the village. A. joins B. joined C. has joined D. has been joining Question 23: The higher the content of carbon dioxide in the air is, _________. A. the more heat it retains B. the heat it retains more C. it retains the more heat D. more heat it retains Question 24: The pool should not be made so deep_____ small children can be safe there. A. so as to B. though C. if D. so that Question 25: Standing on the tip of the cape, _________. A. people have seen a lighthouse far away B. a lighthouse can see from the distance C. we can see the lighthouse in the distance D. lies a lighthouse in the middle of the sea Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. New surveys suggest that the technological tools we use to make our lives easier are killing our leisure time. We are working longer hours, taking fewer and shorter vacations (and when we do go away, we take our cell phones, PDAs, and laptops along). And, we are more stressed than ever as increased use of e-mail, voice mail, cell phones, and the Internet is destroying any idea of privacy and leisure. Since the Industrial Revolution, people have assumed that new labor-saving devices would free them from the burdens of the workplace and give them more time to grow intellectually, creatively, and socially – exploring the arts, keeping up with current events, spending more time with friends and family, and even just ‘goofing off’. But here we are at the start of the 21st century, enjoying one of the greatest technological boom times in human history, and nothing could be further from the truth. The very tools that were supposed to liberate us have bound us to our work and study in ways that were inconceivable just a few years ago. It would seem that technology almost never does what we expect. In ‘the old days’, the lines between work and leisure time were markedly clearer. People left their offices at a predictable time, were often completely disconnected from and out of touch with their jobs as they traveled to and from work, and were off-duty once they were home. That is no longer true. In today’s highly competitive job market, employers demand increased productivity, expecting workers to put in longer hours and to keep in touch almost constantly via fax, cell phones, e-mail, or other communications devices. As a result, employees feel the need to check in on what is going on at the office, even on days off. They feel pressured to work after hours just to catch up on everything they have to do. Workers work harder and longer, change their work tasks more frequently, and have more and more reasons to worry about job security. 41
Bosses, colleagues, family members, lovers, and friends expect instant responses to voice mail and e-mail messages. Even college students have become bound to their desks by an environment in which faculty, friends, and other members of the college community increasingly do their work online. Studies of time spent on instant messaging services would probably show staggering use. This is not what technology was supposed to be doing for us. New technologies, from genetic research to the Internet, offer all sorts of benefits and opportunities. But, when new tools make life more difficult and stressful rather than easier and more meaningful – and we are, as a society, barely conscious of it – then something has gone seriously awry, both with our expectations for technology and our understanding of how it should benefit us. From “Summit 1” by Joan Saslow & Allen Ascher Question 26: According to the first three paragraphs, technological tools that were designed to make our lives easier__________. A. have brought us complete happiness B. have fully met our expectations C. have not interfered with our privacy D. have turned out to do us more harm than good Question 27: Which of the following is NOT true about technological tools, according to new surveys? A. They make our life more stressful.B. They bring more leisure to our life. C. They are used even during vacations. D. They are being increasingly used. Question 28: The word “inconceivable” in the passage is closest in meaning to”_________”. A. unforgettable B. unimaginable C. predictable D. foreseeable Question 29: It can be inferred from the fourth paragraph that_________. A. it is compulsory that employees go to the office, even on days off B. employees have more freedom to decide what time they start and finish work C. employers are more demanding and have efficient means to monitor employees D. life is more relaxing with cell phones and other technological devices Question 30: The word “They” in the fourth paragraph refers to________. A. employers B. employees C. workers D. tasks Question 31: This passage has probably been taken from_________. A. a science review B. a political journal C. an advertisement D. a fashion magazine Question 32: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage? A. Expectations and Plain Reality B. Benefits of Technology C. Research on the Roles of Computers D. Changes at the Workplace Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. In “Cerealizing America”, Scott Bruce and Bill Crawford remark that the cereal industry uses 816 million pounds of sugar per year. Americans buy 2.7 billion packages of breakfast cereal each year. If (33)_________ end to end, the empty cereal boxes from one year’s consumption would stretch to the moon and back. One point three (1.3) million advertisements for cereal are broadcast on American television every year at a(n) (34)_________ of $762 million for airtime. Only automobile manufacturers spend more money on television advertising than the makers of breakfast cereal. (35)_________ of the boxed cereals found in supermarkets contain large amounts of sugar and some contain more than 50% sugar. Cereal manufacturers are very clever in their marketing, making many cereals appear much healthier than they really are by “fortifying” them with vitamins and minerals. Oh, lovely - you now have vitamin-fortified sugar! Before you eat any cereal, read the ingredient list and see how (36)_________ sugar appears on the ingredient list. Then check the “Nutrition facts” panel. There are actually only a small handful of national commercially-branded cereals that are made (37)_________ whole grains and are sugar-free. From “Foods That Burn Fat, Foods That Turn to Fat” by Tom Ventulo Question 33:A. to lay Question 34: A. charge Question 35: A. Most Question 36: A. tall Question 37: A. by
B. laying B. average B. Mostly B. large B. from
C. lay C. cost C. Almost C. high C. at
D. laid D. expense D. Furthermost D. many D. in 42
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Very few people, groups, or governments oppose globalization in its entirety. Instead, critics of globalization believe aspects of the way globalization operates should be changed. The debate over globalization is about what the best rules are for governing the global economy so that its advantages can grow while its problems can be solved. On one side of this debate are those who stress the benefits of removing barriers to international trade and investment, allowing capital to be allocated more efficiently and giving consumers greater freedom of choice. With free-market globalization, investment funds can move unimpeded from the rich countries to the developing countries. Consumers can benefit from cheaper products because reduced taxes make goods produced at low cost from faraway places cheaper to buy. Producers of goods gain by selling to a wider market. More competition keepssellers on their toes and allows ideas and new technology to spread and benefit others. On the other side of the debate are critics who see neo-liberal policies as producing greater poverty, inequality, social conflict, cultural destruction, and environmental damage. They say that the most developed nations – the United States, Germany, and Japan – succeeded not because of free trade but because of protectionism and subsidies. They argue that the more recently successful economies of South Korea, Taiwan, and China all had strong state-led development strategies that did not follow neoliberalism. These critics think that government encouragement of “infant industries” – that is, industries that are just beginning to develop – enables a country to become internationally competitive. Furthermore, those who criticize the Washington Consensus suggest that the inflow and outflow of money from speculative investors must be limited to prevent bubbles. These bubbles are characterized by the rapid inflow of foreign funds that bid up domestic stock markets and property values. When the economy cannot sustain such expectation, the bubbles burst as investors panic and pull their money out of the country. Protests by what is called the anti-globalization movement are seldom directed against globalization itself but rather against abuses that harm the rights of workers and the environment. The question raised by nongovernmental organizations and protesters at WTO and IMF gatherings is whether globalization will result in a rise of living standards or a race to the bottom as competition takes the form of lowering living standards and undermining environmental regulations. One of the key problems of the 21st century will be determining to what extent markets should be regulated to promote fair competition, honest dealing, and fair distribution of public goods on a global scale.From “Globalization” by Tabb, William K., Microsoft ® Student 2009 [DVD] Question 38:It is stated in the passage that__________. A. the protests of globalization are directed against globalization itself B. the United States, Germany, and Japan succeeded in helping infant industries C. supporters of globalization stress the benefits of removing trade barriers D. critics of globalization say that the successful economies are all in Asia Question 39:Supporters of free-market globalization point out that__________. A. consumers can benefit from cheaper products B.there will be less competition among producers C. taxes that are paid on goods will be increased D. investment will be allocated only to rich countries Question 40: The word “allocated” in the passage mostly means “_________”. A. removed B. solved C. offered D. distributed Question 41: The phrase “keeps sellers on their toes” in the passage mostly means “__________”. A. makes sellers responsive to any changes B. allows sellers to stand on their own feet C. forces sellers to go bare-footed D. prevents sellers from selling new products Question 42: According to critics of globalization, several developed countries have become rich because of__________. A. their neo-liberal policies B. their help to developing countries C. their prevention of bubbles D. their protectionism and subsidies Question 43: Infant industries mentioned in the passage are__________. 43
A. successful economies B. young companies C. development strategies D. young industries Question 44: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage? A. Critics believe the way globalization operates should be changed. B. The anti-globalization movement was set up to end globalization. C. Some Asian countries had strong state-led economic strategies. D. Hardly anyone disapproves of globalization in its entirety. Question 45: The debate over globalization is about how__________. A. to use neo-liberal policies for the benefit of the rich countries C. to spread ideas and strategies for globalization B. to govern the global economy for the benefit of the community D. to terminate globalization in its entirely Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 46: Sam speaks Chinese well and his Japanese is good, too. A. Sam is good at either Chinese or Japanese. B. Not only Chinese but also Japanese Sam is good at. C. Not only does Sam speak Chinese but also Japanese. D. Sam not only speaks Chinese well but also is good at Japanese. Question 47: It’s a bad line. Do you want me to give you a ring later? A. Can I call you later? B. I would like to give you a ring as a present. C. Would you like to become my wife? D. Can I give the ring back to you later? Question 48: Had she read the reference books, she would have been able to finish the test. A. If she had read the reference books, she could finish the test. B. Not having read the reference books, she couldn’t finish the test. C. Although she didn’t read the reference books, she was able to finish the test. D. Because she read the reference books, she was able to finish the test. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 49: We’d better leave them a note. It’s possible they’ll arrive later. A. If they arrive late, we’d better leave them a note. B. We’d better leave them a note as they possibly arrive later. C. They’ll probably arrive later so that we’d better leave them a note. D. We’d better leave them a note in case they arrive later. Question 50: Women still cover their heads in some countries. They did so in the past. A. In the past, women cover their heads but they do so today in some countries. B. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did in th past. C. Women still cover their heads in some countries similar to what they did so in the past. D. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did so in the past. ________THE END_______
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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀ TẠO
ĐÁP ÁN KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
1D
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀ TẠO
2A
3A
4D
5C
6D
10A 11C
12D
13C
14A
19D 20C
21B
22C
28B
29C
30B
37B
38C
46D 47D
7D
8A
9D
15D 16B
17C
18A
23A
24D 25C
26D
27B
31A
32A
33D 34C
35A
36C
39A
40D
41A
42D 43D 44B
45B
48B
49D
50B
KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017 Môn: TIẾNG ANH
45
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian: 60 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
(Đề thi gồm 05 trang)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from pronunciation in each of the following questions from 1 to 2. Question 1: A. confine
B. conceal
Question 2: A. booked
B. missed
C. convention
D. concentrate
C. described
D. pronounced
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 3 to 5 Question 3: A. capture B. picture Question 4: A. particular
C. ensure
D. pleasure
B. environment C. advertisement
D. circumstances
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 6 to 24. Question 5: “It is very hot in here.___________”
“Of course”
A. Must you open the window
B. Shall you open the window
C. Could you open the window
D . A or C
Question 6: When Tet holiday comes, Vietnamese people often feel inclined to ________ their houses. A. do up
B. do in
C. do through
D. do over
Question 7: My director is angry with me . I didn't do all the work I ________last week. A. should have done
B. may have done
C. need to have done D. must have done
Question 8: The boy _________went to the hospital to ask for doctor's help. A. whose sick sister
B. whose sister sicked
C. who his sister is sick D. whose sister was sick Question 9:__________the phone rang later that night did Tom remember the appoinment. A. No sooner
B. Only
C. Not until
D. Just before
Question 10: __________is the existence of a large number of different kinds of animals and plants which make a balanced environment.. A. extinction
B. biodiversity C. habitat
D. conservation
Question 11: He managed to keep his job_________the manager had threatened to sack him. A. therefore
B. Although
C. unless
D. despite
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Question 12: It’s essential that every student ________ all the lectures. A. attends
B. attend
C. has attended
D. attended
Question 13: You have to move this box to __________ the new television set. A. lose touch with
B. make room for
C. pay attention to
D. take notice of
Question 14: It’s a secret. You _________ let anyone know about it. A. mustn’t
B. needn’t
C. mightn’t
D. may not
Question 15: The singer was _______________ on the piano by her sister. A. discarded
B. accompanied
C. performed
D. played
Question 16: It is possible ______ may assist some trees in saving water in the winter. A. to lose leaves
B. that the loss of leaves
C. the leaves are lost
D. when leaves have lost
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following questions. Question 17: - Kate: “ How lovely your cats are!”
- David: “ ____________”
A. Really? They are
B. Thank you, it is nice of you to say so
C. Can you say it again
D. I love them, too
Question 18: " Would you like another coffee?" - "__________________" A. I'd love one B. Willingly
C. Very kind of your part
D. It's a pleasure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 19: We went away on holiday last week, but it rained day in day out. A. every single day
B. every other day
C. every second day
D. every two days
Question 20: We can use either verbal or non – verbal forms of communication. A. using gestureB. using speech C. using verbs
D. using facial expressions
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 21: The government is not prepared to tolerate this situation any longer. A. look down on
B. put up with
C. take away from
D. give on to
Question 22: I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last summer. A. unplanned
B. deliberate
C. accidental
D. unintentional
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. Question 23: Although not widely sold, that book is considered to be best book on the subject. A
B
C
D
Question 24: Because his sickness he didn’t take part in the English competition held last Sunday. A B C D Question 25: I found my new contact lenses strangely at first, but I got used to them in the end. A
B
C
D
Read the following passage and mark the latter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can’t find the energy to get out of bed (26) ________ for school? According to a new report, today’s generation of children are in danger of getting so (27)_______ sleep that they are putting their mental and physical health at (28)_______. Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours’ sleep a night, (29)_______teenagers require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters (30)________ anything between two and five hours’ sleep a night less than their parents did at their age.
By Tim Falla and Paul A.Davies, Solutions Advanced. OUP Question 26: A. behind time
B. about time
C. in time
D. at time
Question 27: A. few
B. less
C. much
D. little
C. risk
D. danger
Question 29: A. or
B. because
C. whereas
D. so
Question 30: A. puts
B. gets
C. brings
D. makes
Question 28: A. jeopardy
B. threat
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Why is it that flying to New York from London will leave you feeling less tired than flying to London from New York? The answer may be a clear case of biology not being able to keep up with technology. Deep inside the brain there is a “clock” that governs every aspect of the body’s functioning: sleep and wake cycles, levels of alertness, performance, mood, hormone levels, digestion, body temperature and so on. It regulates all of these functions on a 24-hour basis and is called the circadian clock (from the Latin, circa “about” + dies “day”). This body clock programmes us to be sleepy twice a day, between 3-5 a.m and again between 3-5 p.m. Afternoon tea and siesta times are all cultural responses to our natural biological sleepiness in the afternoon. One of the major causes of the travelers’ malady known as jet lag is the non-alignment of a person’s internal body clock with clocks in the external world. Crossing different time zones confuses the circadian clock, which then has to adjust to the new time and patterns of light and activity. To make matters more complex, not all
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internal body functions adjust at the same rate. So your sleep/wake may adjust to a new time zone at one rate, while your temperature adjusts at a different pace. Your digestion may be on a different schedule altogether. Though we live in a 24-hour day, the natural tendency of the body clock is to extend our day beyond 24 hours. It is contrary to our biological programming to shrink our day. That is why travelling in a westward direction is more body-clock friendly than flying east. NASA studies of long haul pilots showed that westward travel was associated with significantly better sleep quantity and quality than eastward flights. When flying west, you are “extending” your day, thus travelling in the natural direction of your internal clock. Flying eastward will involve “shrinking” or reducing your day and is in direct opposition to your internal clock’s natural tendency. One of the more common complaints of travelers is that their sleep becomes disrupted. There are many reasons for this: Changing time zones and schedules, changing light and activity levels, trying to sleep when your body clock is programmed to be awake, disruption of the internal circadian clock and working longer hours. Sleep loss, jet lag and fatigue can seriously affect our ability to function well. Judgment and decision-making can be reduced by 50%, attention by 75 percent, memory by 20 percent and communication by 30 percent. It is often suggested that you adjust your watch as soon as you board a plane, supposedly to try to help you adjust to your destination’s schedule as soon as you arrive. But it can take the body clock several days to several weeks to fully adjust to a new time zone. Question 31: The main function of the body clock is to_________ A. govern all the body’s responses.
B. regulate the body’s functions.
C. help us sleep.
D. help us adapt to a 24-hour cycle.
Question 32: The word “It” refers to_________ A. the programme
B. the body clock
C. the function
D. the brain
Question 33: The word “malady” is closest in meaning to A. illness
B. bore
C. thought
D. feeling
Question 34: The direction you fly in_________ A. helps you sleep better.
B. alters your body’s natural rhythms.
C. affects the degree of jet lag.
D. extends or shrinks your body clock.
Question 35: According to the article, _________ A. various factors stop us sleeping when we fly. B. travelers complain about the negative effects of flying. C. flying seriously affects your judgment and decision-making. D. jet lag can affect different abilities differently. Question 36: On the subject of avoiding jet lag the article_________ A. makes no suggestion B. says there is nothing you can do. C. proposes gradually adjusting your body clock.
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D. suggests changing the time on your watch. Question 37: According to the author, which of the following reasons disrupt travelers’ sleep? A. Travelers try to sleep between 3-5 p.m. B. Travelers’ attention is reduced by 75 percent. C. The traveler’s internal circadian clock has to adjust to patterns of light and activity. D. Travelers fly in the natural direction of their internal clock. Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that_________ A. travelers have to spend more money flying westward than eastward. B. there are more travelers in westward flights than in eastward ones. C. westward travelers become friendlier than eastward ones. D. travelers do not sleep as well in eastward flights as in westward ones.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 39: The president offered his congratulations to the players when they won the cup. A. The President congratulated that the players had won the cup. B. When they won the cup, the players had been offered some congratulations from the President. C. The President would offered the players congratulations if they won the match. D. The President congratulated the players on their winning the match. Question 40: A house in that district will cost at least $ 100,000. A. If you have $ 100,000, you can buy a house in that district. B. $ 100,000 is the maximum price for a house in that district. C. You won't be able to buy a house in that district for more than $ 100,000. D. You won't be able to buy a house in that district for less than $ 100,000. Question 41: To get to work on time, they have to leave at 6.00 a.m. A. They always leave for work at 6.00 a.m. B. Getting to work on time, for them, means leaving at 6.00 am C. They have to leave very early to catch a bus to work . D. Leaving at 6.00 am, they have never been late for work.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
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The ability to conduct electricity is one of the key properties of a metal. Other solid material such as silicon can conduct electricity but only effectively at certain temperatures. Also, some substances such as salt (sodium chloride) can conduct when molten or when dissolved in water. The ability of metals to conduct electricity is due to how their atoms bond together. In order to bond together the metal atoms lose at least one of their outermost electrons. This leaves the metal atoms with a positive charge and they are now strictly ions. The lost electrons are free to move in what are known as a sea of electrons. Since the electrons are negatively charged they attract the ions and this is what keeps the structure together. An electric current is a flow of charge and since the electrons in the sea of electrons are free to move they can be made to flow in one direction when a source of electrical energy such as a battery is connected to the metal. Hence we have an electric current flowing through the wire, and this is what makes metals such good conductors of electricity. The only other common solid conducting material that pencil users are likely to encounter is graphite (what the ‘lead’ of a pencil is made from). Graphite is a form of carbon and again the carbon atoms bond in such a way that there is a sea of electrons that can be made to flow as an electric current. Likewise, if we have an ionic substance like salt we can make the electrically charged ions flow to create a current but only when those ions are free to move, either when the substance is a liquid or dissolved in water. In its solid state an ionic substance like salt cannot conduct electricity as its charged ions cannot flow. Electrical insulators are substances that cannot conduct electricity well either, because they contain no charged particles or any charged particles they might contain do not flow easily. Water itself is a poor conductor or electricity as it does not contain a significant amount of fully charged particles (the ends of a water molecule are partly charged but overall the molecule is neutral). However, most water we encounter does contain dissolved charged particles, so it will be more conductive than pure water. Many of the problems that occur when touching electrical devices with wet hands result from the ever-present salt that is left on our skin through perspiration and it dissolves in the water to make it more conductive. By Helena Gillespie and Rob Gillespie. Science for Primary School Teacher. OUP Question 42: Electrical conductivity is
.
A. one of the most important properties of metals B. one of the key properties of most solid materials C. impossible for any substance when it is dissolved in water D. completely impossible for silicon Question 43: The word “outermost” in paragraph 1 mostly means A. the lightest
.
B. nearest to the inside C. furthest from the inside
Question 44: The atoms of a metal can bond together because
D. the heaviest
.
A. the lost electrons cannot move freely in the sea of electrons C. they lose all of electrons B. electrons can flow in a single direction D. negatively charged electrons attract positive ions Question 45: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to A. charged ions
B. electric currents
. C. charged particles
Question 46: Water is a poor conductor because it contains
D. electrical insulators
.
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A. no positive or negative electric charge
B. only a small amount of fully charged particles
C. only a positive electric charge
D. only a negative electric charge
Question 47: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. Pure water is much more conductive than most water we encounter every day. B. Graphite is a common solid substance that can conduct electricity. C. Salt can conduct electricity when it is molten or dissolved. D. Some materials are more conductive than others. Question 48: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage? A. Electrical Energy
B. Electrical Devices
C. Electrical Insulators
D. Electrical Conductivity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 49: No one but the experts was able to realize that the painting was an imitation. It greatly resembled the original. A. It was obvious that only a person with great talent could fake a painting so successfully. B. It was hard for ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one, but not for the experts. C. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic, though the experts could judge it quite easily. D. The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts could tell it wasn't genuine. Question 50: The new restaurant looks good. However, it seems to have few customers. A. In order to get more business, the new restaurant should improve its appearance. B. The new restaurant would have more customers if it looked better. C. If it had a few more customers, the new restaurant would look better. D. In spite of its appearance, the new restaurant does not appear to attract much business
_________THE END________
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀ TẠO
ĐÁP ÁN KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
52
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
1C
2D
3C
4D
5C
6D
7A
8D
9C
10B
11B
12B
13B
14A
15B
16B
17B
18A
19B
20B
21A
22B
23C
24A
25B
26C
27D
28C
29C
30B
31B
32B
33A
34C
35D
36A
37C
38D
39D
40D
41B
42A
43C
44D
45D
46B
47A
48D
49D
50D
53
54
